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Exam AZ-500: Microsoft Azure Security Technologies

manage identity and access;
implement platform protection;
manage security operations;
and secure data and applications.

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-500

Microsoft AZ-500 Practice Exams Dumps Question Answers

Listed below are question answers in the AZ-500 eaxm:

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Subscription named Sub1.
You have an Azure Storage account named Sa1 in a resource group named RG1.
Users and applications access the blob service and the file service in Sa1 by using several shared access signatures
(SASs) and stored access policies.
You discover that unauthorized users accessed both the file service and the blob service.
You need to revoke all access to Sa1.
Solution: You generate new SASs.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead you should create a new stored access policy.
To revoke a stored access policy, you can either delete it, or rename it by changing the signed identifier. Changing the
signed identifier breaks the associations between any existing signatures and the stored access policy. Deleting or
renaming the stored access policy immediately affects all of the shared access signatures associated with it.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/rest/api/storageservices/Establishing-a-Stored-Access-Policy

QUESTION 2
Your company uses Azure DevOps.
You need to recommend a method to validate whether the code meets the company\\’s quality standards and code
review standards.
What should you recommend implementing in Azure DevOps?
A. branch folders
B. branch permissions
C. branch policies
D. branch locking
Correct Answer: C
Branch policies help teams protect their important branches of development. Policies enforce your team\\’s code quality
and change management standards.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/repos/git/branch-policies?view=azuredevopsandviewFallbackFrom=vsts

QUESTION 3
You plan to use Azure Log Analytics to collect logs from 200 servers that run Windows Server 2016.
You need to automate the deployment of the Microsoft Monitoring Agent to all the servers by using an Azure Resource
Manager template.
How should you complete the template? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
Your company plans to create separate subscriptions for each department. Each subscription will be associated to the
same Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.
You need to configure each subscription to have the same role assignments. What should you use?
A. Azure Security Center
B. Azure Policy
C. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
D. Azure Blueprints
Correct Answer: D
Just as a blueprint allows an engineer or an architect to sketch a project\\’s design parameters, Azure Blueprints
enables cloud architects and central information technology groups to define a repeatable set of Azure resources that
implements and adheres to an organization\\’s standards, patterns, and requirements.
Blueprints are a declarative way to orchestrate the deployment of various resource templates and other artifacts such
as: Role Assignments Policy Assignments Azure Resource Manager templates Resource Groups
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/blueprints/overview

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a hybrid configuration of Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You have an Azure HDInsight cluster on a virtual network.
You plan to allow users to authenticate to the cluster by using their on-premises Active Directory credentials.
You need to configure the environment to support the planned authentication.
Solution: You deploy Azure Active Directory Domain Services (Azure AD DS) to the Azure subscription.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead, you connect HDInsight to your on-premises network by using Azure Virtual Networks and a VPN gateway.
Note: To allow HDInsight and resources in the joined network to communicate by name, you must perform the following
actions:
Create Azure Virtual Network.
Create a custom DNS server in the Azure Virtual Network.
Configure the virtual network to use the custom DNS server instead of the default Azure Recursive Resolver.
Configure forwarding between the custom DNS server and your on-premises DNS server.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/connect-on-premises-network

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Subscription. The subscription contains 50 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2012 R2 or
Windows Server 2016.
You need to deploy Microsoft Antimalware to the virtual machines.
Solution: You add an extension to each virtual machine.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
You can use Visual Studio to enable and configure the Microsoft Antimalware service. This entails selecting Microsoft
Antimalware extension from the dropdown list under Installed Extensions and click Add to configure with default
antimalware configuration.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/antimalware

QUESTION 7
You have an Azure subscription that contains 100 virtual machines. Azure Diagnostics is enabled on all the virtual
machines.
You are planning the monitoring of Azure services in the subscription.
You need to retrieve the following details:
Identify the user who deleted a virtual machine three weeks ago.
Query the security events of a virtual machine that runs Windows Server 2016.
What should you use in Azure Monitor? To answer, drag the appropriate configuration settings to the correct details.
Each configuration setting may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
Your company has an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com.
The company is developing an application named App1. App1 will run as a service on server that runs Windows Server
2016. App1 will authenticate to contoso.com and access Microsoft Graph to read directory data.
You need to delegate the minimum required permissions to App1.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence from the Azure portal? To answer, move the appropriate actions
from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q8-2

Step 1: Create an app registration
First the application must be created/registered.
Step 2: Add an application permission
Application permissions are used by apps that run without a signed-in user present.
Step 3: Grant permissions
Incorrect Answers:
Delegated permission
Delegated permissions are used by apps that have a signed-in user present.
Application Proxy: Azure Active Directory\\’s Application Proxy provides secure remote access to on-premises web applications.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/v2-permissions-and-consent

QUESTION 9
You need to create Role1 to meet the platform protection requirements.
How should you complete the role definition of Role1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q9

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q9-2

Scenario: A new custom RBAC role named Role1 must be used to delegate the administration of the managed disks in
Resource Group1. Role1 must be available only for Resource Group1.
Azure RBAC template managed disks “Microsoft.Storage/”
References:
https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/azureedu/2017/02/11/new-managed-disk-storage-option-for-your-azure-vms/

QUESTION 10
You need to ensure that you can meet the security operations requirements. What should you do first?
A. Turn on Auto Provisioning in Security Center.
B. Integrate Security Center and Microsoft Cloud App Security.
C. Upgrade the pricing tier of Security Center to Standard.
D. Modify the Security Center workspace configuration.
Correct Answer: C
  The Standard tier extends the capabilities of the Free tier to workloads running in private and other public clouds,
providing unified security management and threat protection across your hybrid cloud workloads. The Standard tier also
adds
advanced threat detection capabilities, which uses built-in behavioral analytics and machine learning to identify attacks
and zero-day exploits, access and application controls to reduce exposure to network attacks and malware, and more.
Scenario: Security Operations Requirements
Litware must be able to customize the operating system security configurations in Azure Security Center.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security-center/security-center-pricing

QUESTION 11
You create resources in an Azure subscription as shown in the following table.

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q11

VNET1 contains two subnets named Subnet1 and Subnet2. Subnet1 has a network ID of 10.0.0.0/24. Subnet2 has a
network ID of 10.1.1.0/24. Contoso1901 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q11-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q11-3

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q11-4

Box 1: Yes
Access from Subnet1 is allowed.
Box 2: No
No access from Subnet2 is allowed.
Box 3: Yes
Access from IP address 193.77.10.2 is allowed

QUESTION 12
You create a new Azure subscription that is associated to a new Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.
You create one active conditional access policy named Portal Policy. Portal Policy is used to provide access to the
Microsoft Azure Management cloud app.
The Conditions settings for Portal Policy are configured as shown in the Conditions exhibit. (Click the Conditions tab.)

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q12

The Grant settings for Portal Policy are configured as shown in the Grant exhibit. (Click the Grant tab.)

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q12-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q12-3

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q12-4

Box 1: No The Contoso location is excluded
Box 2: Yes
Box 3: Yes Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/location-condition

QUESTION 13
You have an Azure web app named webapp1.
You need to configure continuous deployment for webapp1 by using an Azure Repo.
What should you create first?
A. an Azure Application Insights service
B. an Azure DevOps organizations
C. an Azure Storage account
D. an Azure DevTest Labs lab
Correct Answer: B
To use Azure Repos, make sure your Azure DevOps organization is linked to your Azure subscription.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/deploy-continuous-deployment

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Exam preparation tips

  • Questions: 40–60 questions
  • Duration: 3,5 hours
  • Practice is key
  • Plan(Days 1 to 3: Design for identity and security (20-25%).Day 4-5: Design a data platform solution (15-20%).Day 6: Design a business continuity strategy (15-20%).Day 7: Design an infrastructure strategy (15-20%).Day 8: Determine workload requirements (10-15%)and Design for deployment, migration, and integration (10-15%).Day 9: Practice exams and mock questions, and finally review.Day 10: EXAM!)

Free Microsoft Azure AZ-301 certification training video

Pass Microsoft AZ-301 exam – questions 1-12

Create free practice!

QUESTION 1
You are designing an Azure solution for a company that wants to move a .NET Core web application from an onpremises data center to Azure. The web application relies on a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database on Windows
Server 2016.
The database server will not move to Azure.
A separate networking team is responsible for configuring network permissions.
The company uses Azure ExpressRoute and has an ExpressRoute gateway connected to an Azure virtual network
named VNET1.
You need to recommend a solution for deploying the web application.
Solution: Deploy the web application by using an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) container on VNET1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead, use VNet Integration.
Note: VNet Integration gives your web app access to resources in your virtual network. VNet Integration is often used to
enable access from apps to a databases and web services running in your VNet.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/web-sites-integrate-with-vnet

QUESTION 2
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com that contains several administrative user
accounts. You need to recommend a solution to identify which administrative user accounts have NOT signed in during
the previous 30 days. Which service should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure AD Identity Protection
B. Azure Activity Log
C. Azure Advisor
D. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a strategy for migrating the database content of WebApp1 to Azure. What should you include
in the recommendation?
A. Use Azure Site Recovery to replicate the SQL servers to Azure.
B. Use SQLServer transactional replication.
C. Copy the BACPAC file that contains the Azure SQL database file to Azure Blob storage.
D. Copy the VHD that contains the Azure SQL database files to Azure Blob storage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are planning to deploy an application by using the Azure Kubermets Services (AKS)> the application will reedy on
having access to an encryption key that will be used to … transmit files What should you use to provides the encryption
key AKS security?
A. secrets
B. Azure Storage Service Encryption
C. a Kubernetes deployment YAML file
D. ConfigureMap
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You configure the Diagnostics settings for an Azure SQL database as shown in the following exhibit.

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q5

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on The information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each coned selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q5-2

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q5-3

QUESTION 6
You manage a network that includes an on-premises Active Directory Domain Services domain and an Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD).
Employees are requires to use different accounts when using on-premises or cloud resources. You must recommend a
solution that lets employees sign in to all company resources by using a single account. The solution must implement an
identity provider.
You need provide guidance on the different identity providers.
How should you describe each identity provider? To answer, select the appropriate description from each list in the
answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q6

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q6-2

Box1: User management occurs on-premises. Azure AD authenticates employees by using on-premises passwords.
Azure AD Domain Services for hybrid organizations Organizations with a hybrid IT infrastructure consume a mix of
cloud resources and on-premises resources. Such organizations synchronize identity information from their on-premises
directory to their Azure AD tenant. As hybrid
organizations look to migrate more of their on-premises applications to the cloud, especially legacy directory-aware
applications, Azure AD Domain Services can be useful to them.
Example: Litware Corporation has deployed Azure AD Connect, to synchronize identity information from their onpremises directory to their Azure AD tenant. The identity information that is synchronized includes user accounts, their
credential hashes for authentication (password hash sync) and group memberships. User accounts, group memberships, and credentials from Litware\\’s on-premises directory are synchronized to Azure AD via Azure AD
Connect. These user accounts, group memberships, and credentials are automatically available within the
managed domain.
Box 2: User management occurs on-premises. The on-promises domain controller authenticates employee credentials.
You can federate your on-premises environment with Azure AD and use this federation for authentication and
authorization. This sign-in method ensures that all user authentication occurs on-premises.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory-domain-services/active-directory-ds-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/whatis-fed

QUESTION 7
You have an Azure subscription that contains a resource group named RG1.
You create an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) group named ResearchUsers that contains the user accounts of all
researchers.
You need to recommend a solution that meets the following requirements:
The researchers must be allowed to create Azure virtual machines.
The researchers must only be able to create Azure virtual machines by using specific Azure Resource Manager
templates.
Solution: Create an Azure DevOps Project. Configure the DevOps Project settings.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead: On RG1, assign the Contributor role to the ResearchUsers group. Create a custom Azure Policy definition and
assign the policy to RG1.

QUESTION 8
You have Azure virtual machines that run a custom line-of-business web application.
You plan to use a third-party solution to parse event logs from the virtual machines stored in an Azure storage account.
You need to recommend a solution to save the event logs from the virtual machines to the Azure Storage account. The
solution must minimize costs and complexity.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure VM Diagnostics Extension
B. Azure Monitor Metrics
C. event log subscriptions
D. Azure Monitor Logs
Correct Answer: A
The Azure Diagnostics VM extension enables you to collect monitoring data, such as performance counters and event
logs, from your Windows VM. You can granularly specify what data you want to collect and where you want the data to
go, such as an Azure Storage account or an Azure Event Hub.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/extensions-diagnostics

QUESTION 9
You have standard Load balancer configured to support three virtual machines on the same subnet.
You need to recommend a solution to notify administrators when the load balancer fails.
Which metrics should you recommend using to test the load balancer? To answer, drag the appropriate metrics to the
correct conditions. Each metric may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
NOT: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q9

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q9-2

QUESTION 10
Your company has an on-premises Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain and an established Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD) environment.
Your company would like users to be automatically signed in to cloud apps when they are on their corporate desktops
that are connected to the corporate network.
You need to enable single sign-on (SSO) for company users.
Solution: Install and configure an Azure AD Connect server to use password hash synchronization and select the
Enable single sign-on option.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You have an Azure subscription. The subscription contains Azure virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016 and
Linux.
You need to use Azure Log Analytics design an alerting strategy for security-related events.
Which Log Analytics tables should you query? To answer, drag the appropriate tables to the correct log types. Each
value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q11-2

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You are evaluating the components of the migration to Azure that require you to provision an Azure Storage account.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q12-2

QUESTION 13
You have a virtual machine scale set named SS1.
You configure autoscaling as shown in the following exhibit.
[Missing the exhibit]
You configure the scale out and scale in rules to have a duration of 10 minutes and a cool down time of 10 minutes.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented
in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q13

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q13-2

 

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QUESTION 1
You have a Power BI app named App1. The privacy for the App1 app workspace is set to Private.
A user named User1 reports that App1 does not appear in the My organization AppSource. App1 appears in the My
organization AppSource for your account.
You need to ensure that User1 sees App1 from the My organization AppSource.
What should you do?
A. From the app workspace, click Update app, configure the Access setting, and then click Update app.
B. From the app workspace, share the dashboard.
C. From the app workspace settings, add a member.
D. From the app workspace, click Update app, configure the Content settings, and then click Update app.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have a query named FactlnternetSales used by several Power BI reports. The query is shown in the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q2

You plan to create a bar chart showing the count of sales by year that have a SalesAmount greater than $1,000.
You need to create a measure that will be used in the bar chart.
How should you complete the DAX formula? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value
may be used once more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q2-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q3

 

QUESTION 3
You embed a Power BI report in a Microsoft SharePoint Online page.
A user name User1 can access the SharePoint Online page, but the Power BI web part displays the following error
message: “This content isn\\’t available”.
User1 is unable to view the report.
You verify that you can access the SharePoint Online page and that the Power BI report displays as expected.
You need to ensure that User1 can view the report form SharePoint Online.
What should you do?
A. Publish the app workspace.
B. Edit the settings of the Power BI web part.
C. Modify the members of the app workplace.
D. Share the dashboards in the app workspace.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-embed-report-spo

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario.
You have a Microsoft SQL Server database that has the tables shown in the Database Diagram exhibit. (Click the
Exhibit button.)

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q4

You plan to develop a Power BI model as shown in the Power BI Model exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q4-2

You plan to use Power BI to import data from 2013 to 2015.
Product Subcategory[Subcategory] contains NULL values.
End of Repeated Scenario.
You implement the Power BI model.
You need to create a hierarchy that has Category, Subcategory, and Product.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You will receive credit for any of the correct orders you select.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q4-3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q4-4

References: https://intelligentsql.wordpress.com/2013/05/08/tabular-hierarchies-across-multiple-tables/
https://www.desertislesql.com/wordpress1/?p=1629

QUESTION 5
Your company plans to use Power BI for 20 users in the sales department. The users will perform the following tasks:
Access a published Power BI app Modify reports in an app workspace Share dashboards created in My Workspace
You need to identify which Power BI licenses are required for the tasks. The solution must use the Power BI (free)
licenses, whenever possible.
Which license should you identify for each task? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q5-2

QUESTION 6
You open powerbi.com as shown in the following exhibit.

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q6

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q6-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q6-3

QUESTION 7
You plan to create a Power BI report. You have the schema model shown in the exhibit. (Click the exhibit).

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q7

The model has the following relationships:
Store the District based on DistrictID
Sales to Store based on LocationID
Sales to Date based on PeriodID
Sales to Item based on ItemID
You configure row-level security (RLS) so that the district managers of the stores only see the sales from the stores they
manage.
When the district managers view the sales report, they see Sales by Items for all stores.
You need to ensure that the district managers can see Sales by items for the stores they manage only.
How should you configure the relationship from Sales to Item?
A. Change the Cardinality to One to one (1:1).
B. Change the Cardinality to One to Many (1.*).
C. Select Assume Referential Integrity.
D. Change the Cross filter direction to Both.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://powerbi.microsoft.com/en-us/guided-learning/powerbi-admin-rls/

QUESTION 8
You plan to use Power BI Desktop optimized for Power BI Report Server to create a report. The report will be published
to Power BI Report Server.
You need to ensure that all the visualization in the report can be consumed by users.
Which two types of visualizations should you exclude from the report? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Funnel charts
B. Custom visuals
C. Bubble maps
D. Breadcrumbs
E. R visuals
Correct Answer: DE
References: https://powerbi.microsoft.com/en-us/guided-learning/reportserver-quickstart- powerbi-report/

QUESTION 9
You have the report shown in the following exhibit.

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q9

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q9-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q9-3

QUESTION 10
You have the following table named Location.

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q10

The GeoCode column represents the country where each customer is located.
You create a map visualization as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q10-2

You need to ensure that the map displays the country locations. What should you do?
A. Replace the values in the GeoCode column with postal codes or zip codes.
B. Change the name of the GeoCode column to Country.
C. Change the name of the Location table to Country.
D. Change the Default Summarization of the GeoCode column.
E. Add a Geoportal column to the Location table.
F. Change the Data Type of the GeoCode column.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/visuals/power-bi-map-tips-and-tricks

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Excel workbook that is saved to Microsoft SharePoint Online. The workbook contains several
Power View sheets.
You need to recreate the Power View sheets as reports in the Power Bl service.
Solution: From the Power Bl service, get the data from SharePoint Online, and then click Connect
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
We need to click “Import”, not “Connect”.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-excel-workbook-files

QUESTION 12
You are importing sales data from a Microsoft Excel file named Sales.xlsx into Power BI Desktop.
You need to create a bar chart showing the total sales amount by region.
When you create the bar chart, the regions appear as expected, but the sales amount value displays the count of sales
amount instead of the sum of sales amount each region.
You need to modify the query to ensure that the data appears correctly.
What should you do?
A. Delete the query, import the data into Microsoft SQL Server, and then import the data from SQL Server.
B. In Query Editor, add a calculated column that totals the sales amount column.
C. Change the Data Type of sales amount column to Numeric.
D. Refresh the data model.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You have a Power BI report in an app workspace.
You plan to embed a report from the app workspace into a line-of-business application by using Power BI Embedded.
Which information should you provide to the application developers?
A. The application token and the report URL
B. The report URL and a user name
C. The app workspace name and the access key
D. The access key and the report ID
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/developer/integrate-report

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Exam 70-483: Programming in C# – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-483.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Manage Program Flow (25-30%)
  • Create and Use Types (25-30%)
  • Debug Applications and Implement Security (25-30%)
  • Implement Data Access (25-30%)

Microsoft 70-483 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You have the following code (line numbers are included for reference only): You need to ensure that new instances of
Connection can be created only by other classes by calling the Create method. The solution must allow classes to
inherit from Connection. What should you do?pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The following list provides the main features of a static class:
*
Contains only static members.
*
Cannot be instantiated.
*
Is sealed.
*
Cannot contain Instance Constructors.
Creating a static class is therefore basically the same as creating a class that contains only static members and a
private constructor. A private constructor prevents the class from being instantiated.
Incorrect:
Not A: An abstract method is a method that is declared without an implementation. Not C: Private methods can be
called from derived classes.
Reference: Static Classes and Static Class Members (C# Programming Guide)
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/79b3xss3.aspx

QUESTION 2
You are creating an application that reads from a database.
You need to use different databases during the development phase and the testing phase by using conditional
compilation techniques.
What should you do?
A. Configure the Define TRACE constant setting in Microsoft Visual Studio.
B. Decorate the code by using the [DebuggerDisplay(“Mydebug”)] attribute.
C. Configure the Define DEBUG constant setting in Microsoft Visual Studio.
D. Disable the strong-name bypass feature of Microsoft .NET Framework in the registry.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Use one debug version to connect to the development database, and a standard version to connect to the
live database.

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You are developing the following classes named:
Class1
Class2
Class3
All of the classes will be part of a single assembly named Assembly.dll. Assembly.dll will be used by multiple
applications.
All of the classes will implement the following interface, which is also part ofAssembly.dll:
public interface Interface1
{
void Method1(decimal amount);
void Method2(decimal amount);
}
You need to ensure that the Method2 method for the Class3 class can be executed only when instances of the class are
accessed through the Interface1 interface. The solution must ensure that calls to the Method1 method can be made
either through the interface or through an instance of the class.
Which signature should you use for each method? (To answer, select the appropriate signature for each method in the
answer area.)
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q3-1

QUESTION 4
You have the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only).pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q4

You need to complete the WriteTextAsync method. The solution must ensure that the code is not blocked while the file
is being written. Which code should you insert at line 12?

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q4-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: await sourceStream.WriteAsync(encodedText, 0, encodedText.Length);
The following example has the statement await sourceStream.WriteAsync(encodedText, 0, encodedText.Length);,
which is a contraction of the following two statements:
Task theTask = sourceStream.WriteAsync(encodedText, 0, encodedText.Length); await theTask;
Example: The following example writes text to a file. At each await statement, the method immediately exits. When the
file I/O is complete, the method resumes at the statement that follows the await statement. Note that the async modifier
is
in the definition of methods that use the await statement.
public async void ProcessWrite()
{
string filePath = @”temp2.txt”;
string text = “Hello World\r\n”;
await WriteTextAsync(filePath, text);
}
private async Task WriteTextAsync(string filePath, string text) {
byte[] encodedText = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(text);
using (FileStream sourceStream = new FileStream(filePath, FileMode.Append, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.None,
bufferSize: 4096, useAsync: true))
{
await sourceStream.WriteAsync(encodedText, 0, encodedText.Length); };
}
Reference: Using Async for File Access (C# and Visual Basic)
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj155757.aspx

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You are developing a C# application. The application includes a class named Rate. The following code segment
implements the Rate class:pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q5

You define a collection of rates named rateCollection by using the following code segment:
Collection rateCollection = new Collection() ;
The application receives an XML file that contains rate information in the following format:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q5-1

You need to parse the XML file and populate the rateCollection collection with Rate objects. You have the following
code:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q5-2

Which code segments should you include in Target 1, Target 2, Target 3 and Target 4 to complete the code? (To
answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct targets in the answer area. Each code segment may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q5-3

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q5-4

QUESTION 6
You are developing a C# application that has a requirement to validate some string input data by using the Regex
class.
The application includes a method named ContainsHyperlink. The ContainsHyperlink() method will verify the presence
of a URI and surrounding markup.
The following code segment defines the ContainsHyperlink() method. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q6

The expression patterns used for each validation function are constant.
You need to ensure that the expression syntax is evaluated only once when the Regex object is initially instantiated.
Which code segment should you insert at line 04?

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q6-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
RegexOptions.Compiled – Specifies that the regular expression is compiled to an assembly.This yields faster execution
but increases startup time.This value should not be assigned to the Options property when calling the
CompileToAssembly method. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.text.regularexpressions.regexoptions.aspx
Additional info http://stackoverflow.com/questions/513412/how-does-regexoptions-compiled-work

QUESTION 7
You are developing an application that uses the Microsoft ADO.NET Entity Framework to retrieve order information from
a Microsoft SQL Server database. The application includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference
only.)

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q7

The application must meet the following requirements:
Return only orders that have an OrderDate value other than null. Return only orders that were placed in the year
specified in the year parameter.
You need to ensure that the application meets the requirements. Which code segment should you insert at line 08?

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q7-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You are developing an application by using C#. You provide a public key to the development team during development.
You need to specify that the assembly is not fully signed when it is built.
Which two assembly attributes should you include in the source code? (Each correct answer presents part of the
solution. Choose two.)
A. AssemblyFlagsAttribute
B. AssemblyKeyFileAttribute
C. AssemblyConfigurationAttribute
D. AssemblyDelaySignAttribute
Correct Answer: BD
*
AssemblyDelaySignAttribute
Specifies that the assembly is not fully signed when created.
*
The following code example shows the use of the AssemblyDelaySignAttribute attribute with the
AssemblyKeyFileAttribute.
using System;
using System.Reflection;
[assembly:AssemblyKeyFileAttribute(“TestPublicKey.snk”)] [assembly:AssemblyDelaySignAttribute(true)]
namespace DelaySign
{
public class Test { }
}
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/t07a3dye(v=vs.110).aspx

QUESTION 9
You are developing an application that includes a class named Employee and a generic list of employees. The following
code segment declares the list of employees:
List employeesList = new List();
You populate the employeesList object with several hundred Employee objects.
The application must display the data for five Employee objects at a time.
You need to create a method that will return the correct number of Employee objects.
Which code segment should you use?pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q9

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: public static IEnumerable Page(IEnumerable source, int page, int pageSize) { return source.Skip((page ?1)
* pageSize).Take(pageSize); }
if page 1 means it skips 0 and take the pageSize if page 2 means it skips first page and take the 2nd page.

QUESTION 10
You have a collection of Product objects named products. Each Product has a category.
You need to determine the longest name for each category.
You write the following code.pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q10

Which keyword should you use for Target 1?
A. Group
B. Where
C. Aggregate
D. Select
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are creating a console application by using C#.
You need to access the assembly found in the file named car.dll.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Assembly.Load();
B. Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly();
C. This.GetType();
D. Assembly.LoadFile(“car.dll”);
Correct Answer: D
Assembly.LoadFile – Loads the contents of an assembly file on the specified path. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/b61s44e8.aspx

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
You have the following code.pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q12

You need to store the SHA1 hash value of MessageString in a variable named HashValue.
Which code should you use? Develop the solution by selecting and arranging the required code blocks in the correct
order. You may not need all of the code blocks.
Select and Place:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q12-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q12-2

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
You are creating a method by using C#. The method will accept three strings as parameters. The parameters are
named string1, string2, and string3. The parameter values range from 5,000 to 15,000 characters.
The method will have the following signature.pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q13

You need to ensure that StringCompare only returns true if string1 concatenated to string2 is equal to string3. The
comparison must be case-insensitive. The solution must ensure that StringCompare executes as quickly as possible.
Which three code blocks should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate code blocks from
the list of code blocks to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q13-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q13-2

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VCEkey shares the latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 exam dumps for free exam practice tests and online downloads! “Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure” 300-165 exam. Ready to pass the 300-165 exam please click https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-165.html (full exam dump)

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Cisco 300-165 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Assuming hello PDU authentication has been disabled, which command re-enables the feature on a FabricPath
interface?
A. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication-type cleartext
B. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication-type md5
C. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication check
D. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis hello-interval
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement about SNMP support on Cisco Nexus switches is true?
A. SNMP requires the LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKG license.
B. SNMP is not VRF-aware.
C. Only users belonging to the network operator RBAC role can assign SNMP groups.
D. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per VDC.
E. Cisco NX-OS only supports SNMP over IPv4.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
When implementing Cisco Adapter FEX, which setting on the virtual interface card on the Cisco UCS C-Series Server
must be configured?
A. uplink failover
B. PXE boot
C. network interface virtualization
D. VM-FEX
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Scenario
The following four questions concern the Nexus 7010\\’s which are configured as a vPC pair at the core of a Data
Center network. You can utilize all the available show commands to answer the questions. Access to the running-
configuration is
not allowed.
Instructions
Enter NX-OS commands on 7K-3 and 7K-4 to verify network operation and answer four multiple-choice questions.
THIS TASK DOES NOT REQUIRE DEVICE CONFIGURATION.
Click on the switch to gain access to the console of the switch. No console or enable passwords are required.
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next
button.

pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q4 pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q4-1

Within the vpc configuration of the 7K\\’s, the command peer-switch is configured.
What is the result of enabling this command?
A. Both vPC peers use the same STP root ID
B. The vPC primary switch (7K-4 in this case) also serves as the STP root to improve vPC convergence
C. The vPC secondary switch (7K-3 in this case) serves as the STP root to improve vPC performance
D. Allows 7K-3 to act as the active HSRP gateway for packets that are addressed to the MAC address of 7K-4
E. Automatically disables IP redirects on all interface VLANs mapped over a vPC VLAN to avoid generation of IP
redirect messages for packets switched through the vPC peer gateway router
F. Enables faster convergence of ARP tables after the vPC peer link flaps
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is implementing a new network design that includes a port channel to connect an MDS
core switch and an NPV switch. Which two Fibre Channel port types must be used to create Fibre Channel port
channel? (Choose two.)

pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q5

A. N Port
B. NP Port
C. F Port
D. E Port
E. TL Port
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/4_1/configuration/guides/cli_4_1/clibook/pc.html


QUESTION 6
Drag and drop the VXLAN protocol characteristic from the left onto the benefit it provides on the right.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
A Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch suffers a supervisor failure. Which statement is true regarding Cisco NSF
functionality?
A. The line cards are reloaded.
B. The neighbouring routers do not participate in Cisco NSF.
C. The Cisco Express Forwarding cache is pruned.
D. Layer 3 reconvergence does not occur.
E. Cisco NSF can be deployed with RPR+.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum IPv6 unicast route memory allocated?pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q8

A. 4 MB
B. 8 MB
C. 1024 MB
D. 1 GB
E. 5 MB
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which two items are required components of VN-Link in software? (Choose two.)
A. VDC
B. VEM
C. vPC
D. VSM
E. VRRP
Correct Answer: BD
The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series consists of two main types of components that can virtually emulate a 66-slot modular
Ethernet switch with redundant supervisor functions:
Virtual Ethernet module (VEM)-data plane: This lightweight software component runs inside the hypervisor. It enables
advanced networking and security features, performs switching between directly attached virtual machines, provides
uplink capabilities to the rest of the network, and effectively replaces the vSwitch. Each hypervisor is embedded with
one VEM.
Virtual supervisor module (VSM)-control plane: This standalone, external, physical or virtual appliance is responsible for
the configuration, management, monitoring, and diagnostics of the overall Cisco Nexus 1000V Series system (that is,
the combination of the VSM itself and all the VEMs it controls) as well as the integration with VMware vCenter. A single
VSM can manage up to 64 VEMs. VSMs can be deployed in an active-standby model, helping ensure high availability.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmware-vsphere/white_paper_c11-525307.html

 

QUESTION 10
Which statement regarding the implementation of Fibre Channel domain IDs is true?
A. They are assigned on a per-switch basis.
B. They must be unique on all of the Fibre Channel switches in the fabric.
C. They are assigned on a per-line card basis.
D. They must be the same on all of the Fibre Channel switches in the fabric.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Fibre Channel IDs are dynamically assigned to which objects?
A. Cisco Fabric Services packets
B. WWPNs
C. FSPF packets
D. FEXs
E. VSANs
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 12
Which standard has Cisco used to implement VM-FEX?
A. IEEE 802.1BR
B. IEEE 802.1Qbb
C. IEEE 802.1Qaz
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. IEEE 802.1x
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
You configure STP on a switch that is attached to a Cisco FabricPath domain and that has the vPC feature deployed.
How do you configure STP on the switch in the Cisco FabricPath domain on VLAN 10?
A. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 0
B. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 8192 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 4096
C. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 8192
D. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 4096
Correct Answer: B
Note that it is fine to use the spanning-tree priority command and the spanning-tree pseudo-information command
together, but the root priority in the pseudo-information needs to be a lower value (higher priority) than the spanning-tree
priority to make sure that the remaining working Cisco FabricPath switch is sending a superior BPDU with the common
FabricPath bridge ID and the configured spanning-tree pseudo-information priority and remains at the spanning-tree
root. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/white_paper_c07-728188.pdf page 44

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The latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-170 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
A system administrator checks the endpoint database and discovers MAC addresses that belong to inactive local
nodes. Which description of the retention of the MAC addresses for the local hosts is true?
A. After five minutes of inactivity, the hosts are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
B. The local database is cleared only when the leaf reboots.
C. The leaf sends three ARP requests to the hosts after an aging period. If the switch receives no response, the hosts
are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
D. After 30 minutes of inactivity, the hosts are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Which two options are purposes of a device package? (Choose two.)
A. to identify a set of network or service functions required by the application
B. to provide a leaf and spine devices with operating systems and firmware
C. to provide a Cisco APIC with information about device specifics
D. to render the services required by a graph
E. to manage a class of service devices
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://webcache.googleusercontent.com/search?q=cache:sbj6aGf31j0J:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/d
ocs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/L4-L7_Services_Deployment/guide/b_L4L7_Deploy_ver211/
b_L4L7_Deploy_ver211_chapter_011pdf+andcd=1andhl=enandct=clnkandgl=inandclient=firefox-b-ab

 

QUESTION 3
You deploy AVS for Virtual Machine Manager integration and you add a host that has five VMNICs. You must use
VXLAN to maximize the load balancing of the traffic inside the fabric. How many VMKNICs must you add?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Why should you configure DHCP relay for Virtual Machine Manager integration?
A. to create VTEP VMK interfaces on each host for the OpFlex control channel
B. to provide IP addresses to ESXi hosts
C. to provide IP addresses to virtual hosts through the VXLAN infrastructure
D. to ensure that virtual hosts have the same address when they are moved by using VMware vMotion
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/white-paper-c11-738412.pdf

 

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco technology addresses management and performance concerns in a data center by unifying physical and
virtual switch management?
A. VSD
B. SVM
C. VM-FEX
D. AVS
Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/interfaces-modules/ucs-m81kr-virtual-interface-card/white_paper_c11-618838.pdf

 

QUESTION 6
A system administrator checks the endpoint database and discovers MAC addresses that belong to inactive local
nodes. Which description of the retention of the MAC addresses for the local nodes is true?
A. After five minutes, the inactive nodes are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
B. The local database if cleared only when the leaf reboots.
C. The leaf sends three ARP requests after an aging period. The MAC addresses are stored to the local endpoint
database as long as the devices respond to the requests
D. After 15 minutes, the inactive nodes are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
Which two methods does a Cisco APIC support to connect to the management IP address of a service appliance?
(Choose two.)
A. out-of-band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the management VLAN
B. in-band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the VRF of the tenant
C. out-of-band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the VRF of the tenant
D. out-of-band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the management VRF of the tenant
E. in-band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the management VRF of the tenant
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 8

pass4itsure 300-170 exam question q8

Refer to the exhibit. Which description of the configuration of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch is true?
A. VSM connects to the VMware vCenter server
B. Mgmt0 is a Layer 2 interface
C. SVS mode is set to L3.
D. Packet VLAN is a private VLAN
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
When you perform a task in the Cisco APIC GUI, the GUI creates and sends internal API messages to the operating
system to exclude the task. Which ACI tool enables you to view and copy the API messages?
A. SPAN
B. Postman
C. syslog
D. API Inspector
E. SNMP
F. EPG Listener
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-x/GSG/b_APIC_Getting_Started_Guide_Rel_2_x/b_APIC_Getting_Started_Guide_Rel_2_x_chapter_011.html

 

QUESTION 10

pass4itsure 300-170 exam question q10

Refer to the exhibit. Which result occurs when a user without a role attempts to log into the fabric?
A. The user is denied access.
B. The user is assigned to the local domain.
C. The user is assigned to a default role.
D. The user is authenticated by using TACACS.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
You are performing VMM integration between ACI and VMware with vDS. You place a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect
between the leaf and the ESXi hosts running on UCS-B series. Which is a valid configuration if using VMM integration
with “On Demand” resolution?
A. In the interface policy group, disable LLDP, enable Cisco Discovery Protocol, and then select MAC pinning on the
Fabric Interconnects.
B. In the interface policy, enable LLDP, Cisco Discovery Protocol, and LACP.
C. In the interface policy group, disable LLDP, disable Cisco Discovery Protocol, and then select active in the LACP
policy
D. Configure LLDP, Cisco Discovery Protocol, and LACP policies under global policies to match the interface policies.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
You have a Cisco Nexus device that is configured to use a RADIUS server. What occurs when local RBAC user account
and RADIUS roles exist simultaneously?
A. Only rules that are in local roles and the radius roles are applied
B. Rules from local account and radius account are merged
C. Only rules from local are applied
D. Only rules from Radius are applied
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Which Layer 3 protocol is used within the ACI fabric?
A. OperFlow
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. IS-IS
Correct Answer: D

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Easily pass the Microsoft MCSA 70-764 exam: “Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure – Microsoft” – https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-764.html (Q&As: 442) Free share the latest 70-764 dumps questions and answers!
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Exam 70-764: Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-764.aspx

This exam is intended for database professionals who perform installation, maintenance, and configuration tasks.
Other responsibilities include setting up database systems, making sure those systems operate efficiently, and regularly storing, backing up, and securing data from unauthorized access.

pass4itsure 70-764 Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

Configure data access and auditing (20–25%)

  • Configure encryption
  • Configure data access and permissions
  • Configure auditing

Manage backup and restore of databases (20–25%)

  • Develop a backup strategy
  • Restore databases
  • Manage database integrity

Manage and monitor SQL Server instances (35–40%)

  • Monitor database activity
  • Monitor queries
  • Manage indexes
  • Manage statistics
  • Monitor SQL Server instances

Manage high availability and disaster recovery (20–25%)

  • Implement log shipping
  • Implement AlwaysOn Availability Groups
  • Implement failover cluster instances

Latest effective Microsoft MCSA 70-764 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You plan to migrate the DB to Azure.
You verify that all objects are valid for Azure SQL database. You need to ensure that users and logins are migrated to
Azure.
What should you do?
A. Use the Copy Database wizard
B. Use the Database Transfer wizard
C. Use the SQL Management Studio to deploy the DB to Azure
D. Back up the database from the local server and restore it to Azure
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 2
You manage a Microsoft SQL Server environment. You plan to encrypt data when you create backups.
You need to configure the encryption options for backups.
What should you configure?
A. a certificate
B. an MD5 hash
C. a DES key
D. an AES 256-bit key
Correct Answer: D
To encrypt during backup, you must specify an encryption algorithm, and an encryptor to secure the encryption key. The
following are the supported encryption options: Encryption Algorithm: The supported encryption algorithms are: AES
128, AES 192, AES 256, and Triple DES Encryptor: A certificate or asymmetric Key
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/backup-restore/backup-encryption

 

QUESTION 3
You use Microsoft SQL Server 2016 to write code for a transaction that contains several statements.
There is high contention between readers and writers on several tables used by your transaction. You need to minimize
the use of the tempdb space.
You also need to prevent reading queries from blocking writing queries.
Which isolation level should you use?
A. SERIALIZABLE
B. SNAPSHOT
C. READ COMMITTED SNAPSHOT
D. REPEATABLE READ
Correct Answer: C
For most applications, read committed isolation using row versioning is recommended over snapshot isolation for the
following reasons:
It consumes less tempdb space than snapshot isolation.
Etc.
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188277.aspx

 

QUESTION 4
An organization deploys Microsoft SQL Server instances at the main office and the organization\\’s remote office. SQL
The server is not using Windows failover clustering.
Remote employef s report connection issues when they attempt to run queries against a specific database that is hosted
at the main office.
You need to ensure that remote employees can retrieve data from a database instance that is hosted in the remote
office.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q4-1

Database mirroring is a solution for increasing the availability of a SQL Server database.
Mirroring is implemented on a per-database basis and works only with databases that use the full recovery model.

 

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company is developing a new business intelligence application that will access data in a Microsoft Azure SQL
Database instance. All objects in the instance have the same owner.
A new security principal named BI_User requires permission to run stored procedures in the database. The stored
procedures read from and write to tables in the database. None of the stored procedures perform IDENTIFY_INSERT
operations or dynamic SQL commands.
The scope of permissions and authentication of BI_User should be limited to the database. When granting permissions,
you should use the principle of least privilege.
You need to create the required security principals and grant the appropriate permissions.
Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement in the database:pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q5

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
We need to add a login.
Secondly, it is enough to grant EXECUTE permissions on the stored procedures for database roles you want to be able
to access the data. We do not need to add roles to this user.
Note: One method of creating multiple lines of defense around your database is to implement all data access using
stored procedures or user-defined functions. You revoke or deny all permissions to underlying objects, such as tables,
and
grant EXECUTE permissions on stored procedures. This effectively creates a security perimeter around your data and
database objects.
Best Practices
Simply writing stored procedures isn\\’t enough to adequately secure your application. You should also consider the
following potential security holes.
Grant EXECUTE permissions on the stored procedures for database roles you want to be able to access the data.
Revoke or deny all permissions to the underlying tables for all roles and users in the database, including the public role.
All users inherit permissions from the public. Therefore denying permissions to public means that only owners and
sysadmin
members have access; all other users will be unable to inherit permissions from membership in other roles.
Do not add users or roles to the sysadmin or db_owner roles. System administrators and database owners can access
all database objects.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/data/adonet/sql/managing-permissions-with-stored-procedures-in-sql-server

 

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You have a table that contains a column named Department. Each user is assigned to a database role name that
matches the Department column value. Users authenticate to the database with accounts that are assigned to their department’s database role. You belong to the db_owner role and have the rights to run the EXECUTE AS USER
statement.
Users must only view records that match their department.
You need to implement Microsoft SQL Server row-level security (RLS) and test the implementation.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q6-1

Step 1: Create a filter predicate by using a SQL Server inline table-valued user-defined function.
Create a new schema and an inline table-valued function.
Step 2: Create a security policy
Create a security policy adding the function as a filter predicate.
The CREATE SECURITY POLICY command creates a security policy for row level security.
Step 3: Run EXECUTE AS USER
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-security-policy-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/security/row-level-security

 

QUESTION 7
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 server.
You plan to deploy new features to an application.
You need to evaluate existing and potential clustered and non-clustered indexes that will improve performance.
What should you do?
A. Query the sys.dm_db_index_usage_stats DMV.
B. Query the sys.dm_db_missing_index_details DMV.
C. Use the Database Engine Tuning Advisor.
D. Query the sys.dm_db_missing_index_columns DMV.
Correct Answer: C
The Microsoft Database Engine Tuning Advisor (DTA) analyzes databases and makes recommendations that you can
use to optimize query performance. You can use the Database Engine Tuning Advisor to select and create an optimal
set of indexes, indexed views, or table partitions without having an expert understanding of the database structure or the internals of SQL Server. Using the DTA, you can perform the following tasks. Troubleshoot the performance of a
specific problem query Tune a large set of queries across one or more databases Perform an exploratory what-if
analysis of potential physical design changes Manage storage space References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/performance/database-engine-tuning-advisor

 

QUESTION 8
You administer a single server that contains a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 default instance.
You plan to install a new application that requires the deployment of a database on the server. The application login
requires sysadmin permissions.
You need to ensure that the application login is unable to access other production databases.
What should you do?
A. Use the SQL Server default instance and configure an affinity mask.
B. Install a new named SQL Server instance on the server.
C. Use the SQL Server default instance and enable Contained Databases.
D. Install a new default SQL Server instance on the server.
Correct Answer: B

SQL Server supports multiple instances of SQL Server on a single server or processor, but only one instance can be the
default instance. All others must be named instances. A computer can run multiple instances of SQL Server
concurrently, and each instance runs independently of other instances.
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms143531(v=SQL.105).aspx

 

QUESTION 9
You have a database named DB1. You complete a full backup on January 1, 2018, to a backup set named DB1_Backup.
You create a differential backup January 2, 2018, to the same backup set. You perform transaction log backups each
day at 1:00 PM.
DB1 experiences a catastrophic failure.
You need to restore the database to January 3, 2018, at 11:00 AM.
Which three Transact-SQL segments should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate
Transact-SQL segment from the list of Transact-SQL segments to the answer area and arrange them in the correct
order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q9-1

This example restores a database, differential database, and transaction log backup of the MyAdvWorks database.
Step 1:
— Assume the database is lost at this point. Now restore the full
— database. Specify the original full database backup and NORECOVERY.
— NORECOVERY allows subsequent restore operations to proceed.
RESTORE DATABASE MyAdvWorks
FROM MyAdvWorks_1
WITH NORECOVERY;
GO
Step 2:
— Now restore the differential database backup, the second backup on
— the MyAdvWorks_1 backup device.
RESTORE DATABASE MyAdvWorks
FROM MyAdvWorks_1
WITH FILE = 2,
NORECOVERY;
Step 3:
— Now restore each transaction log backup created after
— the differential database backup.
RESTORE LOG MyAdvWorks
FROM MyAdvWorks_log1
WITH NORECOVERY; GO RESTORE LOG MyAdvWorks FROM MyAdvWorks_log2 WITH RECOVERY; GO
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/backup-restore/restore-a-differential-database-backup-sql-server

 

QUESTION 10
You have a database named DB1.
DB1 contains a table named Sales. The SalesPerson that has an index named AK_SalesPerson_rowguid.
Queries that do not use the index take approximately 10 times longer to complete than queries that use the index. You
discover that AK_SalesPerson_rowguid has severe fragmentation. You need to recommend a solution to defragment
the index.
The solution must ensure that the index can be used by queries during the defragmentation.
What statement should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate elements to the correct locations. Each element may
be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q10-1

Rebuilding an index can be executed online or offline. Reorganizing an index is always executed online. To achieve
availability similar to the reorganize option, you should rebuild indexes online. Use: ALTER INDEX REBUILD WITH
(ONLINE = ON)
References: Reorganize and Rebuild Indexes https://msdn.microsoft.com/enus/library/ms189858.aspx

 

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a database named DB1 that is 640 GB and is updated frequently.
You enable log shipping for DB1 and configure backup and restore to occur every 30 minutes.
You discover that the hard disks on the database server are almost full.
You need to reduce the amount of disk space used by the log shipping process.
Solution: You configure log shipping to backup and restore by using a single shared folder.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
You should compress the transaction log backups.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/database-engine/log-shipping/configure-log-shipping-sql-server?view=sql-server-2017

 

QUESTION 12
You are a database administrator for an organization. You manage a mission-critical database named DB1 that is
hosted on a server named LON-SQL1.
An audit record for transactions that occur in DB1 is written to a file every five seconds. If an audit record cannot be
recorded, the transaction must be terminated. You create a shared folder named Audits on a server named LON-SVR1.
You need to implement the process for recording audit records.
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, select the appropriate Transact-SQL segment in
the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q12-1

Box 1: Server Audit The CREATE SERVER AUDIT command creates a server audit object using SQL Server Audit. Box
2: FILE(FILEPATH=\\’\\LON-SVR1\Audits\\\’) An audit record for transactions that occur in DB1 are written to a file every
five seconds. You create a shared folder named Audits on a server named LON-SVR1. Box 3: QUEUE_DELAY=5000
QUEUE_DELAY =integer Determines the time, in milliseconds, that can elapse before audit actions are forced to be
processed. A value of 0 indicates synchronous delivery. The minimum settable query delay value is 1000 (1 second),
which is the default. Box 4: ON_FAILURE= FAIL_OPERATION FAIL_OPERATION Database actions fail if they cause
audited events. Actions, which do not cause audited events can continue, but no audited events can occur. The audit
continues to attempt to log events and resumes if the failure condition is resolved. Use this option when maintaining a
complete audit is more important than full access to the Database Engine.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-server-audit-transact-sql

 

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answers choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
You are a database administrator for a company that has an on-premises Microsoft SQL Server environment and
Microsoft Azure SQL Database instances. The environment hosts several customer databases, and each customer
uses a
dedicated instance. The environments that you manage are shown in the following table.pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q13

You need to configure auditing for the Adventure Works environment.
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q13-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q13-2

Box 1: CREATE SERVER AUDIT
Create a server audit.
You must implement auditing to record access to data that is considered sensitive by the company.
Create database audit
Box 2: ALTER SERVER AUDIT
Enable the server audit.
Box 3: CREATE DATABASE AUDIT
Create the database audit specification.
Box 4: FOR SERVER AUDIT
You must implement auditing for all objects in the DAV schema.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relationaldatabases/security/auditing/create-a-server-audit-and-database-audit-specification

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Latest Microsoft MCSA 70-762 exam dumps, 70-762 Exam Practice Tests | 100% Free

70-762 dumps

Easily pass the Microsoft MCSA 70-762 exam: “Developing SQL Databases – Microsoft” – https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-762.html (Q&As: 164) Free share the latest 70-762 dumps questions and answers!
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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam 70-762: Developing SQL Databases – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-762.aspx

This exam is intended for database professionals who build and implement databases across organizations and who ensure high levels of data availability. Their responsibilities include creating database files, data types, and tables; planning, creating, and optimizing indexes; ensuring data integrity; implementing views, stored procedures, and functions; and managing transactions and locks.

pass4itsure 70-762 Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam.

Design and implement database objects (25–30%)

  • Design and implement a relational database schema
  • Design and implement indexes
  • Design and implement views
  • Implement columnstore indexes

Implement programmability objects (20–25%)

  • Ensure data integrity with constraints
  • Create stored procedures
  • Create triggers and user-defined functions

Manage database concurrency (25–30%)

  • Implement transactions
  • Manage isolation levels
  • Optimize concurrency and locking behavior
  • Implement memory-optimized tables and native stored procedures

Optimize database objects and SQL infrastructure (20–25%)

  • Optimize statistics and indexes
  • Analyze and troubleshoot query plans
  • Manage performance for database instances
  • Monitor and trace SQL Server baseline performance metrics

Latest effective Microsoft MCSA 70-762 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You have a trigger named CheckTriggerCreation that runs when a user attempts to create a trigger. The
The CheckTriggerCreation trigger was created with the ENCRYPTION option and additional proprietary business logic.
You need to prevent users from running the ALTER and DROP statements or the sp_tableoption stored procedure.
Which three Transact-SQL segments should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate
Transact-SQL segments from the list of Transact-SQL segments to the answer area and arrange them in the correct
order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have a database named DB1. There is no memory-optimized filegroup in the database. You run the following
query:pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q2

The following image displays the execution plan the query optimizer generates for this query: Users frequently run the
same query with different values for the local variable @lastName. The table named Person is persisted on disk. You
need to create an index on the Person. Person table that meets the following requirements:

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q2-1

1.
All users must be able to benefit from the index.
2.
FirstName must be added to the index as an included column.
What should you do?
A. Create a clustered index on the table.
B. Create a nonclustered index on the table.
C. Create a nonclustered filtered index on the table.
D. Create a clustered column store index on the table.
E. Create a nonclustered column store index on the table.
F. Create a hash index on the table.
Correct Answer: B
By including nonkey columns, you can create nonclustered indexes that cover more queries. This is because the
no key columns have the following benefits:
They can be data types not allowed as index key columns.
They are not considered by the Database Engine when calculating the number of index key columns or index key size.

 

QUESTION 3
You are monitoring a Microsoft Azure SQL Database.
The database is experiencing high CPU consumption.
You need to determine which query uses the most cumulative CPU.
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, drag the appropriate Transact-SQL segments to
the correct locations. Each Transact-SQL segment may be used once, more than one or not at all. You may need to
drag
the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q3-1

Box 1: sys.dm_exec_query_stats sys.dm_exec_query_stats returns aggregate performance statistics for cached query
plans in SQL Server. Box 2: highest_cpu_queries.total_worker_time DESC Sort ontotal_worker_time column
Example:
The following example returns information about the top five queries ranked by average CPU time.
This example aggregates the queries according to their query hash so that logically equivalent queries are grouped by
their cumulative resource consumption.
USE AdventureWorks2012;
GO
SELECT TOP 5 query_stats.query_hash AS “Query Hash”,
SUM(query_stats.total_worker_time) / SUM(query_stats.execution_count) AS “Avg CPU Time”,
MIN(query_stats.statement_text) AS “Statement Text”
FROM
(SELECT QS.*,
SUBSTRING(ST.text, (QS.statement_start_offset/2) + 1,
((CASE statement_end_offset
WHEN -1 THEN DATALENGTH(ST.text)
ELSE QS.statement_end_offset END
-QS.statement_start_offset)/2) + 1) AS statement_text FROM sys.dm_exec_query_stats AS QS CROSS APPLY
sys.dm_exec_sql_text(QS.sql_handle)as ST) as query_stats GROUP BY query_stats.query_hash ORDER BY 2
DESC;
References:
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms189741.aspx

 

QUESTION 4
You have a database that contains both disk-based and memory-optimized tables.pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q4

You need to create two modules. The modules must meet the requirements described in the following table.
Which programming object should you use for each module? To answer, select the appropriate object types in the
answer area.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q4-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q4-2

Returning Data by Using OUTPUT Parameters
If you specify the OUTPUT keyword for a parameter in the procedure definition, the stored procedure can return the current value of the parameter to the calling program when the stored procedure exits.
SQL Server stored procedures, views and functions are able to use the WITH ENCRYPTION option to disguise the
contents of a particular procedure or function from discovery.
Native Compilation of Tables and Stored Procedures
In-Memory OLTP introduces the concept of native compilation. SQL Server can natively compile stored procedures that
access memory-optimized tables. SQL Server is also able to natively compile memory-optimized tables. Native
compilation
allows faster data access and more efficient query execution than interpreted (traditional) Transact-SQL. Native
compilation of tables and stored procedures produce DLLs.
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187004(v=sql.105).aspx
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn249342.aspx

 

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answers choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
You have a database that contains the following tables: blog category, blog entry, ProductReview, Product, and
SalesPerson. The tables were created using the following Transact SQL statements:pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q5

You must modify the ProductReview Table to meet the following requirements:
The table must reference the ProductID column in the Product table
Existing records in the ProductReview table must not be validated with the Product table.
Deleting records in the Product table must not be allowed if records are referenced by the ProductReview table.
Changes to records in the Product table must propagate to the ProductReview table.
You also have the following database tables: Order, ProductTypes, and SalesHistory. The Transact-SQL statements for
these tables are not available.
You must modify the Orders table to meet the following requirements:
Create new rows in the table without granting INSERT permissions to the table.
Notify the salesperson who places an order whether or not the order was completed.
You must add the following constraints to the SalesHistory table:
a constraint on the SaleID column that allows the field to be used as a record identifier
a constant that uses the ProductID column to reference the Product column of the ProductTypes table
a constraint on the CategoryID column that allows one row with a null value in the column
a constraint that limits the SalePrice column to values greater than four
Finance department users must be able to retrieve data from the SalesHistory table for salespersons where the value
of the SalesYTD column is above a certain threshold.
You plan to create a memory-optimized table named SalesOrder. The table must meet the following requirements:
The table must hold 10 million unique sales orders.
The table must use checkpoints to minimize I/O operations and must not use transaction logging.
Data loss is acceptable.
Performance for queries against the SalesOrder table that use WHERE clauses with exact equality operations must be
optimized.
You need to modify the environment to meet the requirements for the Orders table.
What should you create?
A. an AFTER UPDATE trigger
B. a user-defined function
C. a stored procedure with output parameters
D. an INSTEAD OF INSERT trigger
Correct Answer: D
From Question: You must modify the Orders table to meet the following requirements: Create new rows in the table
without granting INSERT permissions to the table. Notify the salesperson who places an order whether or not the order
was completed.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-trigger-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017

 

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You have a database that contains a table named Employees. The table stores information about the employees of your
company.
You need to implement and enforce the following business rules:
Limit the values that are accepted by the Salary column.
Prevent salaries less than $15,000 and greater than $300,000 from being entered.
Determine valid values by using logical expressions.
Do not validate data integrity when running DELETE statements.
Solution: You implement a FOR UPDATE trigger on the table.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/16081582/difference-between-for-update-of-and-for-update

 

QUESTION 7
You are developing an application that connects to a database. The application runs the following jobs:pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q7

The READ_COMMITTED_SNAPSHOT database option is set to OFF, and auto-content is set to ON. Within the stored
procedures, no explicit transactions are defined.
If JobB starts before Joba, it can finish in seconds. If Joba starts first, JobB takes a long time to complete.
You need to use Microsoft SQL Server Profiler to determine whether the blocking that you observe in JobB is caused by
locks acquired by Joba.
Which trace event class in the Locks event category should you use?
A. LockAcquired
B. LockCancel
C. LockDeadlock
D. lock escalation 
Correct Answer: A
The Lock: Acquired event class indicates that acquisition of a lock on a resource, such as a data page, has been
achieved.
The Lock: Acquired and Lock: Released event classes can be used to monitor when objects are being locked, the type of
locks taken, and for how long the locks were retained. Locks retained for long periods of time may cause contention issues and should be investigated.

 

QUESTION 8
You are experiencing performance issues with the database server.
You need to evaluate schema locking issues, plan cache memory pressure points, and backup I/O problems.
What should you create?
A. a System Monitor report
B. a sys.dm_tran_database_transaction dynamic management view query
C. an Extended Events session that uses Query Editor
D. an Activity Monitor session in Microsoft SQL Management Studio.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh212951.aspx

 

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You are performing a code review for Transact-SQL statements.
Which action does the constraint in each statement perform? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q9-1

 

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in this series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Your company has employees in different regions around the world. You need to create a database table that stores the
following employee attendance information: Employee ID date and time employee checked in to work date and time
employee checked out of work
Date and time information must be time zone aware and must not store fractional seconds.
Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q10

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Datetimeoffset defines a date that is combined with a time of a day that has time zone awareness and is based on a
24-hour clock.
Syntaxis: datetimeoffset [ (fractional seconds precision) ]
Forthe use “datetimeoffset(0)”, the Fractional seconds precision is 0, which is required here.
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb630289.aspx

 

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in this series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. The Account table was created using the
following Transact-SQL statement:pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q11

There are more than 1 billion records in the Account table. The Account Number column uniquely identifies each
account. The ProductCode column has 100 different values. The values are evenly distributed in the table. Table
statistics are refreshed and up to date.
You frequently run the following Transact-SQL SELECT statements:

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q11-1

You must avoid table scans when you run the queries. You need to create one or more indexes for the table. Solution:
You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q11-2

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Create a clustered index on the AccountNumber column as it is unique, not a nonnonclustered one.
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms190457.aspx

 

QUESTION 12
You have a database that contains three encrypted stored procedures named dbo. Proc1, dbo.Proc2 and dbo.Proc3. The
stored procedures include INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, and BACKUP DATABASE statements. You have the following
requirements:
-You must run all the stored procedures within the same transaction.
-You must automatically start a transaction when stored procedures include DML statements.
-You must not automatically start a transaction when stored procedures include DDL statements.
You need to run all three stored procedures.
Which four Transact-SQL segments should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate Transact-
SQL segments to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q12-1

Note:
Implicit transaction mode remains in effect until the connection executes a SET IMPLICIT_TRANSACTIONS OFF
the statement, which returns the connection to auto-commit mode. In auto-commit mode, individual statements are
committed if
they complete successfully.

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q12-2

When a connection is in implicit transaction mode and the connection is not currently in a transaction, executing any of
the following statements starts a transaction:
Note 2: XACT_STATE returns the following values.
1 The current request has an active user transaction. The request can perform any actions, including writing data and
committing the transaction. The transaction is committable.
-1 The current request has an active user transaction, but an error has occurred that has caused the transaction to be
classified as an uncommittable transaction. the transaction is uncommittable and should be rolled back.
0 There is no active user transaction for the current request. A commit or rollback operation would generate an error.
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187807(v=sql.105).aspx https://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/ms189797(v=sql.110).aspx

 

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You have a database that contains a table named Employees. The table stores information about the employees of your
company.
You need to implement and enforce the following business rules:
Limit the values that are accepted by the Salary column.
Prevent salaries less than $15,000 and greater than $300,000 from being entered.
Determine valid values by using logical expressions.
Do not validate data integrity when running DELETE statements.
Solution: You implement a foreign key on the table. Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
A check constraint is needed.
References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Check_constraint

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Pass4itsure offers the latest CompTIA Cloud Essentials CLO-001 practice test free of charge (39Q&As)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following describes the difference between SaaS and IaaS?
A. SaaS defines a standard while IaaS implements the standard.
B. SaaS enables the software developer while IaaSprovides the specifications.
C. SaaS provides applications while IaaS provides equipment.
D. SaaS implements security while IaaS provides information.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following aspects of public cloud computing would a company MOST likely need to consider
to ensure information security?
A. Data integrity
B. Server type
C. Firewall specifications
D. Network hardware
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is BEST used when setting up security for services being used within a public
cloud?
A. LDAP
B. SFTP
C. SNMP
D. SSL
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A company Chief Information Officer (CIO) who wants to ensure rapid elasticity for the company’s cloud
solution would MOST likely choose which of the following types of cloud?
A. Public cloud
B. Private community cloud
C. Private cloud
D. Community cloud
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the function of orchestration services?
A. Assemble functional requirements for application development
B. Configure application clusters with Web services
C. Enable and disable load balancers
D. Manage the starting and stopping of application server clusters
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is true when mitigating risks in a cloud environment while avoiding impact to
performance?A. When securing cloud resources, only the most sensitive data should be secured.
B. When securing cloud resources, it is always a best practice to encrypt all data stored in the cloud.
C. When securing cloud resources, data security is not an issue.
D. When securing cloud resources, it is always a best practice to use the strongest security on the most
sensitive data.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
As part of a critical SaaS application, one of the contractual statements by the cloud provider is a
requirement to perform scheduled maintenance. This has a direct impact on which of the following?
A. Service strategy
B. Service transition
C. Service operation
D. Service design
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a benefit of cloud computing?
A. Cloud computing delivers IT capabilities that scale with demand.
B. Cloud computing delivers a wide range of services that are easily accessible to users
C. Cloud computing delivers IT capacity on demand.
D. Cloud computing negates the need for a procurement department.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
How can an organization successfully implement a PaaS strategy?
A. Open up internal databases with Web service access.
B. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
C. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines.
D. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A company’s IT department currently spends several hours a day maintaining the hardware of the
database server. The company migrates the server to the cloud. Which of the following job responsibilities
of the IT department has been MOST impacted by this change?
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Operation
C. Service Design
D. Service Transition
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following roles can the IT department play in the selection process of cloud computing
providers?
A. Help understand and explain the application lifecycle
B. Help understand performance parametersC. Help understand provider quality
D. All of the above are correct
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Why does cloud computing shift capital cost to variable cost?
A. Cloud computing is more cost-efficient
B. IT assets are not owned by the customer
C. Servers are better utilized
D. Staff is no longer hired by the customer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A private cloud is defined as:
A. a deployment model that uses an external cloud provider to provide host application servicesthat are
Internet accessible.
B. a deployment model that partners with other industry related companies to provide infrastructure
services.
C. a deployment model that uses virtualization technologies to provide infrastructure on demand within its
network.
D. a deployment model that uses an external cloud provider to provide host infrastructure services that
are Internet accessible.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is important to standardize?
A. Information standards and applications
B. User names and hardware providers
C. Virtual machine images and applications
D. Virtual machine images and identity information standards
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server?
A. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C. Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D. Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A specific cloud deployment has been established specifically for financial services companies to
consume. Which of the following BEST describes this type of cloud environment?
A. Private cloud
B. Community cloud
C. Hybrid cloud
D. Public cloud
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
An organization is in the process of selecting a SaaS provider to replace its current internal customer
relationship management system. The business expects better functionality than what is provided with the
internal system. Which of the following is the BEST reason for moving to a SaaS cloud service?
A. Understand who the most experienced IaaS cloud providers are so that a recommendation can be
made to the business based on what other industry vendors are doing.
B. Understand the current SLA’s of the cloud providers to ensure that they can exceed the current
expected business SLA’s.
C. Understand current functional and non-functional requirements of the system in order to ensure the
new system can meet and provide value add to current business needs.
D. Understand the cost model of the hosted infrastructure and whether the current system can be hosted
on cloud provided infrastructure.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
In which of the following ways do IT outsourcing and cloud computing differ?
A. Cloud computing services are typically much more scalable.
B. Cloud computing is much cheaper.
C. Hardware and software assets are typically customizable.
D. IT outsourcing promotes innovation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Since the implementation of a cloud infrastructure, a senior level network administrator’s job description
has changed from being responsible for maintaining the hardware of the network infrastructure to more of
a management position, ensuring the cloud vendor is providing the services specified in the contract with
the company. Which of the following has been impacted the MOST by the change in job responsibility?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Operation
D. Service Strategy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which of the following risks occurs when a cloud provider stops serving the company?
A. Continuity risk
B. Financial risk
C. Legal risk
D. Confidentiality risk
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
When using SaaS, the cloud computing vendor is responsible to maintain which of the following?
A. Client infrastructure
B. Client firewall
C. Updates and licenses
D. Workstation OS version
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
An organization is planning to host a number of its critical applications in the cloud. Which of the following
is the BEST way to gain a broad assurance of the cloud provider’s security posture?
A. A review that includes interviewing key security stakeholders and identifying the key controls that they
operate
B. A review that includes security policies, evidence of the controls, physical site assessment and
vulnerability scanning
C. A review that includes the right to audit on a yearly basis and review of the security clauses on the
contract
D. A review that includes security applications, external audits, intrusion detection and firewall policy
reviews
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Cloud computing relies heavily on which of the following virtualization characteristics? (Select two.)
A. User federation
B. Hardware independence
C. Simplistic setup
D. Scalable resources
E. Information sharing
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 24
In order to maintain strategic flexibility and the ability to bring a cloud system back internally, which of the
following is the MOST important requirement in the contract?
A. Yearly independent audit is performed to measure performance
B. Cloud provider has ability to terminate contract
C. One week timeframe for termination of service
D. Cloud subscriber maintains ownership of their data
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which of the following actions should a company take if a cloud computing provider ceases to uphold their
contract?
A. Consult the company’s exit plan.
B. Move the company data to the backup provider that was selected earlier.
C. Re-host all critical applications on the company’s internal servers.
D. Evaluate the company’s strategic options for an alternative provider
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which of the following is the BEST example of a cloud vendor’s monthly hosting fee changing based on
cost allocations?
A. The company’s fee varies based on the projected quarterly revenue of the client’s company.
B. The company’s fee varies based on the number of their IT staff required to support the infrastructure.
C. The company’s fee varies based on the number of servers needed to house data in the datacenter.D. The company’s fee varies based on the energy consumption of each server in the datacenter.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which of the following cloud computing risks is compliance related?
A. Access rights that are handled by a cloud provider
B. Capacity management that is handled by a cloud provider
C. Cross-charging policies that are handled by both clients
D. Provider reputation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
A company is implementing a system replacement which has application components that are internally
hosted and multiple application components that are hosted as software as a service by different cloud
providers. Which of the following represents the challenge of this architecture?
A. Complexity
B. Time to market
C. Cost saving
D. Elasticity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is an important factor for maintaining strategic flexibility?
A. Return on investment
B. Integrity
C. Elasticity
D. Vendor lock-in
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which of the following should be measured with a direct cost chargeback method?
A. Power and cooling consumed
B. CPU cycles used
C. Technical staff
D. Square footage cost of the facility
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which of the following is the MOST complex security provisioning problem in a cloud environment?
A. Handling credit cards for purchasing cloud services
B. Keeping track of cloud provider performance
C. Managing users and their rights across multiple providers
D. Software assets that are introduced and can expire
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
A business has recently implemented a hybrid cloud federated solution, which will allow if to rapidly anddynamically allocate resources during high demand, and quickly implement its Disaster Recovery Plan
(DRP) and Continuity of Operations (COOP). Given this implementation, the IT director is MOST likely
concerned about:
A. maintaining strategic flexibility.
B. reducing OPEX allocations.
C. hiring additional IT staff.
D. eliminating security risks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
A cloud subscriber may come under certain security constraints when hosting sensitive data in the cloud
due to government regulations. Which of the following is the BEST mitigating control that could be
implemented by the cloud provider?
A. Offer multi-tenancy software as a service with segregated physical infrastructure.
B. Offer a single-tenancy software service with segregated virtualized infrastructure.
C. Offer multi-tenancy software as a service with logically segregated infrastructure.
D. Offer a single-tenancy software service with monitored intrusion detection systems.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which of the following is a benefit of implementing cloud computing via the ITIL guideline?
A. Increased costs
B. Larger knowledge base
C. Increased free hard drive space
D. Improved service level
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Which of the following is included in a compliance audit?
A. Analyzing chargeback agreements
B. Analyzing cloud provider Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
C. Analyzing identity management and access controls
D. Analyzing the provider release calendar
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which of the following BEST describes the properly of cloud computing that allows changes in transaction
volume without major changes to the system?
A. Scalability
B. Reliability
C. Integrity
D. Availability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
A private cloud generally has which of the following characteristics?
A. Services are restricted to members of the same organizationB. Infrastructure is managed by an independent service provider
C. Services are managed by a third-party provider
D. Services are accessed by members outside of the organization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Amazon Elastic Cloud Computing (EC2) is a facility for quickly providing virtual servers.
This is an example of:
A. SaaS
B. IaaS
C. PaaS
D. QoS.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 39
Which of the following is an example of SaaS?
A. Offshore help desk support
B. Hosted database software and development tools
C. Hosted email software
D. Hosted network hardware
Correct Answer: C

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It is the only vendor-neutral, performance-based certification covering more than a specific vendor or a single function like security or
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QUESTION 1
An administrator is tasked to reduce the company’s datacenter power utilization. Currently there are 500
physical servers in the datacenter and 600 virtual servers with five additional available host servers. Which
of the following should the administrator perform?
A. Migrate servers using V2V technology
B. Perform an offline migration of virtual servers
C. Migrate servers using V2P technology
D. Migrate servers using P2V technology
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
An administrator is tasked with installing an application patch on a virtual server. The administrator needs
the ability to restore the server to its previous state quickly if the patch corrupts the system. Which of the
following should the administrator do to accomplish this task?
A. Install the patch on a development server
B. Create a full backup
C. Create a snapshot
D. Install the patch on a test server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following cloud delivery models presents the LEAST vulnerabilities to a company’s existing
network?
A. Hybrid
B. Community
C. Public
D. Private
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following uses the business model of shared resources in a cloud environment?
A. Elasticity
B. Self-serve
C. Cloud bursting
D. Multi-tenancy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is used to locate a specific area of storage in a cloud environment?
A. Object ID
B. SAN
C. Replicas
D. Metadata
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following can be done after an administrator deploys a virtual server to ensure that the server
vNIC can communicate to the physical network?
A. Bridge the vNIC
B. Set the vNIC speed to half-duplex
C. Add an addition vNIC
D. Set the vNIC speed to full-duplex
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
After an administrator successfully migrated the last physical application server to a virtual environment,
the help desk reported slow performance. Which of the following should the administrator have done
FIRST before migrating this server?
A. Apply operating system patches to the application server after the migration.
B. Contact the vendor to see if the application is supported in a virtual environment.
C. Take a backup of the application server after the migration.
D. Migrate the application server in a test environment and have users test it.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following would be used to establish a dedicated connection in a hybrid cloud environment?
A. CHAP
B. AES
C. PKI
D. VPN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An administrator deployed a DaaS cloud delivery model for a financial institution and implemented a data
encryption technology using AES cryptography. Which of the following should the administrator implement
NEXT?
A. Access controls
B. RC5
C. SSL
D. Zoning
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An administrator deployed ten application servers from a single VM template. A senior administrator
notices that these ten VMs are not using their resources efficiently. Which of the following is MOST likely
the issue with the new servers?
A. The dynamic resource pool is malfunctioning.
B. The server is missing security patches.
C. The VM servers were not properly configured.
D. There are insufficient resources available on the host.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which of the following storage technologies is file-based?A. WAN
B. DAS
C. SAN
D. NAS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which of the following storage technologies can leverage switches in its implementation?
A. HBA
B. DAS
C. SCSI
D. SAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following RAID configuration would be used to accomplish disk mirroring with two disks?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which of the following only uses Fibre Channel to implement a storage infrastructure?
A. NFS
B. SAN
C. NAS
D. SMB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which of the following solutions primarily relies on private cloud resources but may use public cloud
resources based on capacity requirements?
A. Rapid deployment
B. Cloud bursting
C. Multi-tenancy
D. Pay-as-you-grow
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
An employee is asked to run an instance of a Linux OS while booted up in a Windows OS. Which of the
following types of virtualization would be used to meet this requirement?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Bare Metal
D. NativeCorrect Answer: B

QUESTION 17
A small startup wins a contest giving them advertising time during a major sporting event. Which of the
following cloud characteristics should be in place to handle the possible spike in demand?
A. Shared disk space
B. Elasticity
C. Scalability
D. Shared memory
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which of the following components should be virtualized and added to cloud infrastructure to ensure virtual
servers are only able to access the volumes assigned to them?
A. NAS
B. DAS
C. LUN
D. HBA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which of the following can be used to protect data integrity when information is being written to a SAN
from multiple clients?
A. Port Zoning
B. SAN Zoning
C. LUN Masking
D. Multipathing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Several servers are connected to a SAN using three storage devices and FCoE for transmissions. These
servers only need to access one SAN device. All servers, the SAN, and the HBA are virtualized. Which of
the following should be used to ensure access is controlled appropriately between devices? (Select TWO).
A. LUN Masking
B. Hard Zoning
C. Supernetting
D. Soft Zoning
E. Subnetting
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 21
An administrator is called in to determine why a virtual desktop has been unable to connect to the
corporate network. Which of the following should be run to determine if the adapter is enabled? (Select
TWO).
A. ipconfig
B. netstat
C. ping
D. ifconfigE. iwconfig
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 22
Which of the following should be installed on VMs to report and take action against potential threats?
A. NIDS
B. HIPS
C. NIPS
D. HIDS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which of the following will explain why only some of the CPU cycles are available to a virtualized server
using two virtualized processors?
A. Extra processing is needed to store encryption keys used for secure transmission between the server
and the network.
B. Additional processing is used to run ports and services not turned off through the process of server
hardening.
C. Some processing is required for operational overhead on the processor and between the physical and
virtualized processors.
D. Significant processing is used to create and maintain the cache on multi-core processors.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which of the following would be used to prove the existence of vulnerabilities on a network?
A. Penetration testing
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. Business impact analysis
D. Risk assessment
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which of the following is MOST likely to be retrieved from an individually addressable blob?
A. An object ID
B. A hash
C. A sequence number
D. An image
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which of the following is true about a Type II hypervisor?
A. It requires a primary hypervisor to function properly.
B. It implements stronger security controls than a Type I supervisor at the same patch level.
C. It provides slower performance than a Type I hypervisor installed on the same hardware.
D. It provides direct hardware access through the use of specialized drivers.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
An enterprise hypervisor offers which of the following benefits over a workstation hypervisor?
A. Ability to create templates
B. Ability to provision more than 2 vCPUs
C. Snapshots
D. Live storage migration
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
In order to enhance security on a SAN, which of the following should be configured?
A. ZFS
B. LUN
C. VSAN
D. Zoning
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
An administrator has provisioned a LUN on a SAN and wants to be able to connect a VM to the new
storage using SCSI commands sent across the LAN. Which of the following should be configured on the
VM?
A. Virtual NIC
B. Virtual HBA
C. Virtual SAN
D. LUN masking
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
A company has tasked an administrator with virtualizing the server farm and wants to adhere to the
principle of n+1. The administrator has analyzed the resource consumption of the current server farm and
observes the following:
5 application servers consuming 12 GB RAM each.
4 web servers consuming 2 GB RAM each.
10 terminal servers consuming 6 GB RAM each.
Which of the following is the MINIMUM necessary to meet the requirements of the new host cluster?
A. 1 host with 196GB RAM
B. 2 hosts with 64GB RAM each
C. 3 hosts with 128GB RAM each
D. 4 hosts with 24GB RAM each
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
An administrator has installed a new NAS and is now attempting to optimize the servers for best
performance when communicating with the NAS. Modifying which of the following would MOST likely
enhance throughput?
A. Page file
B. Multipath I/O
C. N_Port settings
D. Jumbo frames
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Which of the following would provide the ability to perform transparent page sharing?
A. Type I hypervisor
B. Logical arrays
C. Type II hypervisor
D. Journal file system
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
A system administrator has a server that has lost one of its connections to an adjacent server room. The
server can still be accessed remotely through its single network interface; however, it has lost access to
some of its drives. Which of the following is MOST likely correct?
A. The system has exceeded its disk latency threshold and has disabled its NIC.
B. The system has memory issues which are causing the OS to incorrectly define drives.
C. The system is having intermittent network issues.
D. The system is having an HBA failure or disconnection.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Which of the following BEST describes a copy of data?
A. Access control
B. Replicas
C. Metadata
D. Extended metadata
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
After receiving a report from the helpdesk that a database application is exhibiting degraded performance,
the storage administrator detected an issue. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue that was
discovered resulting in the degraded performance?
A. NIC failure
B. Power supply failure
C. Disk failure
D. HBA failure
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which of the following is used to handle non-sensitive information in a datacenter and can be moved to the
public cloud to free up local resources and meet high demands?
A. Chargeback
B. Cloud bursting
C. Automation
D. Rapid deployment
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Which of the following is a type of hypervisor that runs on another operating system instead of running
directly on the host’s hardware?
A. Type II
B. Indirect access
C. Direct access
D. Type I
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
One of the administrators of a cloud service provider has been asked to assist one of its newest customers
to deploy a multi-tier application (web, application, and database). The architecture design does not
specify where each service should reside and the customer is asking for a recommendation. Which of the
following should be recommended?
A. Application server should be placed in the DMZ
B. Database server should be placed in the DMZ
C. DMZ are only used for single-tier infrastructure
D. Web server should be placed in the DMZ
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
An IT professional is considering the migration of an on-line store to the cloud due to high variation in
demand. Which of the following cloud characteristics is key?
A. Elasticity
B. Security
C. Scalability
D. Standardization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
A shipment company is looking to streamline some of their business activity. They are considering the
automation of a number of electronic services. The company handles confidential documents and
confidential data. Which of the following service options would the company choose?
A. Automated business process tools delivered by a public cloud provider
B. Community cloud
C. On-demand/self-service private cloud
D. On-demand/self-service public cloud
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 41
In the process of streamlining the IT activity, a company has considered the delivery of a number of
services from a cloud. The best identified candidates were the newly acquired CRM and Help- Desk
platforms. Which of the following would be their choice considering the company offers a 24/7 help line/self
service portal to both their internal users and customers?
A. SaaS deployed on Public Cloud
B. PaaS deployed on Private Cloud
C. BPaaS deployed on a Hybrid Cloud
D. IaaS deployed on a Hybrid Cloud
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
Which of the following would be used to mitigate the risk of an unauthorized party authenticating into the
network?
A. Install a software-based firewall
B. Establish a baseline and review logs daily
C. Install antivirus software
D. Disable the administrator account
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 43
A company that provides Software as a Service wants to prevent the application code from being modified.
Which of the following techniques should be used to accomplish this task?
A. Obfuscation
B. Encryption
C. Auditing
D. Signing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 44
An administrator is planning to implement multipathing for iSCSI-connected storage. Which of the following
is required for this configuration?
A. Multiple gateways configured on the subnet
B. At least one HBA on the server
C. Multiple HBAs on the server
D. Multiple IP addresses on the storage device
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 45
Which of the following is a disk interface type that has the BEST performance?
A. NAS
B. SAN
C. SAS
D. SSD
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 46
Which of the following can be used to enable additional network interfaces on a router?
A. SNMP
B. WMI
C. Syslog
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 47
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is selecting a hardware network solution that will optimize the WAN
between company locations in North America and Europe. Which of the following can be changed by third-
party hardware?A. IP latency
B. TCP flow control
C. Ethernet bandwidth
D. UDP latency
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 48
A number of virtual servers suddenly crash, but the physical host is accessible and performing within the
baseline. Which of the following should be done to troubleshoot the issue?
A. Review the dump files on the physical host to determine the reason(s) for the failure.
B. Check the SAN configuration and ensure storage is available.
C. Change from thin to thick-provisioned virtual disks for the virtual machines.
D. Re-enable the physical NIC on the affected hosts.
Correct Answer: B

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