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QUESTION 1 #

Which three options define Enterprise Structures Configurator (ESC)? (Choose three.)

A. It is an interview-based tool that guides through the process of setting up a basic enterprise structure.
B. The tool creates a structure of divisions, legal entities, business units, and reference data sets.
C. The tool creates a structure of divisions that may then be manipulated by the administrator.
D. After defining the enterprise structure and the job/position structures, the administrator can review them, make any
necessary changes, and then load/rollback the final configuration.
E. The tool creates a structure of divisions, legal entities, business units, and departments.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2 #

Your organization needs to be able to select the action of Legal Employer Transfer on the employment record to move a
a worker from one legal employer to another.
What configuration will you need to do to make this possible?

A. Create a new action type of Legal Employer Transfer, and then create a new action of Legal Employer Transfer and
associate it with the new action type.
B. Modify the delivered action of Transfer and associate it with the action type of Global Transfer.
C. Create a new action called Legal Employer Transfer and associate it with the action type of Global Transfer.
D. Create a new action called Legal Employer Transfer and associate it with the action type of Legal Entity Transfer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3 #

Which values on the Enterprise HCM Information task can you override on the Manage Legal Employer information
task?

A. workday information, person number generation method, employment model, position synchronization configuration,
worker number generation
B. workday information, user account generation, employment model, position synchronization configuration, worker
number generation
C. workday information, person number generation method, employment model, position synchronization configuration,
worker number generation
D. workday information, employment model, position synchronization configuration, worker number generation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4 #

An HR administrator is unable to enter the details of an intern due to the unavailability of the right choice of values. The HR
the administrator is unaware that the worker type “Intern” has not been set up in the application.
Select four valid system person types (which are part of the person model) that the HR administrator should be aware
of. (Choose four.)

A. Contract Worker
B. Person of Interest
C. Contingent Worker
D. Employee
E. Non-Worker
F. Pending Worker
Correct Answer: CDEF

QUESTION 5 #

As an implementation consultant, you have been assigned the task of configuring Person Name Format within
Workforce Information.
Which two configurations can be done through this task? (Choose two.)

A. the name fields that appear in the Person Details section when you are hiring an employee
B. the appearance of a worker\\’s name when it appears in search results
C. what name fields are required when completing the Person Details section when hiring or updating a worker\\’s
person details
D. the way a worker\\’s name appears on top of employee-level pages
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6 #

An enterprise operates in a country where contract information is required for employees. What type of employment
a model can the enterprise use?

A. multiple assignments with contracts
B. single assignment with contracts
C. multiple assignments
D. single assignment
E. contract assignment
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7 #

The Promote transaction was configured using Page Composer to require the location field. Another change was made
to the transaction using the Transaction Design Studio that indicated the location filed must be hidden when a manager
uses Promote transaction.
How does the system determine how the user interface will render?

A. Transaction Design Studio configurations always override Page Composer configurations.
B. If modifications were made in both tools and the changes conflict, the last change created in either tool will be
applied.
C. Page Composer configurations always override Transaction Design Studio configurations.
D. When a user tries to use the Promote transaction. the page will be an error when loading.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8 #

A client\\’s organization employs disabled individuals. All these individuals are registered with an external organization
that supports them. The client wants to capture the registration details and some legislative information about
their disabilities. As an implementation consultant, how would you configure the system to capture this information?

A. Define disability organizations in the system and, while creating personal records, enter any other descriptive or
legislative information about disability.
B. Define a tax reporting unit for the group of employees with disabilities.
C. Define Reporting Establishment for the group of employees with disabilities and capture the required information.
D. Because the organization supporting disabled employees is an external organization, information about
this cannot be captured in the system.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9 #

As an implementation consultant, you have configured a rule for the Promote transaction that for workers who are being
promoted in the Healthcare US Business Unit, the Position field displays and is required to submit the transaction.
Now that you have created the rule, how do you test it?

A. Publish the sandbox, log in as a user that is in the Healthcare US Business Unit, navigate to the Promote transaction,
and select a worker who is also in the Healthcare US Business Unit. As you go through the transaction, you will see the
Position field display and there will be an asterisk next to the field indicating it is required.

B. Publish the sandbox, log in as a user that has access to the Promote transaction, navigate to the Promote
transaction, and select any worker. As you go through the transaction, you will see the Position field display and there
will be an asterisk next to the field indicating it is required.

C. While in a sandbox, you can test your rules by exiting Transaction Design Studio and navigating to the page you just
configured. You select a worker in the Healthcare US Business Unit and will see the Position field display and with an
asterisk next to the field indicating it is required.

D. Publish the sandbox, log in as a user that is in the Healthcare US Business Unit, navigate to the Promote transaction,
and select any worker. As you go through the transaction, you will see the Position field display and there will be an
asterisk next to the field indicating it is required.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10 #

As an implementation consultant, you realize during the Requirement Gathering phase of your project that some Actions
are not required.
How will make these Actions unavailable for the end-user?

A. Hide Actions.
B. Enter Auction End Date.
C. Delete Actions.
D. Educate users not to use such Actions.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11 #

A multinational construction company, headquartered in London, has operations in five countries. It has its major
operations in the US and UK and small offices in Saudi Arabia, UAE, and India. The company employs 3,000 people in
the UK and US and 500 people in the remaining locations. The entire workforce in India falls under the Contingent
Worker category.

How many Legislative Data Groups (LDGs), divisions, legal employers, and Payroll Statutory Units (PSUs) need to be
configured for this company?

A. five LDGs (one for each country), four divisions (the UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), two
legal employers and PSUs (US and UK only, because the workforce is very small in other countries)

B. five LDGs (one for each country), four divisions (the UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), five
legal employers and PSUs (all except India)

C. five LDGs, five divisions, five legal employers, and five PSUs

D. four LDGs (the UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), five divisions (one for each country), four
legal employers (all except India), and five PSUs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12 #

Which three options are true regarding Grade Ladders? (Choose three.)
A. Five types of Grade Ladders are available.
B. A Grade Ladder cannot be created with a combination of both grades and grades with steps.
C. Grade Ladders are used to group grades or grades with steps.
D. Two types of Grade Ladders are available.
E. A Grade Ladder can be created with a combination of both grades and grades with steps.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 13 #

An HR representative enters employee details in the application as part of the hiring process. On the
Review page, the HR representative notices that Person Number does not show any number, but indicates
“Generated Automatically”.
Identify the option that relates to this intended behavior.


A. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Manual.
B. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Automatic before submission.
C. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Automatic after final save.
D. Worker Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Manual.
Correct Answer: C

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# QUESTION 1

Your company is a manufacturing company using a legacy system to define and maintain their Item
Master.
On a daily basis, your company updates and defines new items in the legacy system, which is integrated
with Oracle WMS Cloud. You are an Inventory Super User.

Which option will you use to automatically update the Item Master of Oracle WMS Cloud daily from the
legacy system?

A. Using the host system to drop the ITMR file into the shared SFTP directory
B. Creating New Item manually on the Items screen of Oracle WMS Cloud
C. Manually uploading ITMR file using the Input Interfaces screen
D. Manually downloading Item Master file from ERP and uploading it to Oracle WMS Cloud
Correct Answer: A

# QUESTION 2

You are configuring the WMS Cloud to have multiple facilities and, as an added measure of control, you
want to easily identify the facility by looking at the barcode printed on the outbound carton.

Identify two valid configurations that are available in the Sequence Counter UI that you can use for the
OBLPN. (Choose two.)

A. You can set up the count increment in Facility 1 to increase by 1, the count increment in Facility 2 to increment by 2,
and so on.
B. You can set up the sequence counter OBLPN to “Append Facility Code to Prefix”.
C. You can specify different counts for the different facilitates within the Sequence Counter.
D. You can configure the sequence length for this facility to be different from the other facilities.
E. You can specify the “Color Code” in the Sequence Counter.
Correct Answer: BC

# QUESTION 3

What is true about emailing a scheduled report?

A. You cannot customize the subject of the email
B. You can email reports in HTML format
C. The person receiving the email must have an email registered with a username in the system
D. You can add an additional filter for a specific scheduled report
Correct Answer: D

# QUESTION 4

Your company is looking for a simplified method for managing a group of reports. Identify the type of report used in
WMS Cloud compiles multiple existing reports into a single document while executing each report in a single order.

A. CrossTab Report
B. Express Report
C. Linked Report
D. Chained Report
E. Standard Report
Correct Answer: D

# QUESTION 5

Your company has two facilities, one in California, and the other in New Jersey. The California facility needs to
exclusively check the quality of each item on receiving whereas the New Jersey one needs to exclusively perform ValueAdded Service (VAS) on each unit during receiving and shipping.

Identify the Location Types that are required to be defined in the Oracle WMS Cloud to receive the items at the California Facility.

A. Reserve and VAS
B. Active and VAS
C. Reserve and QC
D. Active and Reserve
Correct Answer: D

# QUESTION 6

Which two configurations are necessary to use a pick-to-cart functionality? (Choose two.)

A. Configure label types for cart capacity
B. Configure the Print Task setting
C. Define the OBLPN Types
D. Define the Cubing Rule
E. Add the Pick Cart UI to the Receiving personnel\’s menu
Correct Answer: CE

# QUESTION 7

Select two configurations required to fulfill a Cross Dock order. (Choose two.)
A. The Replenishment template is required to replenish Cross Dock Order
B. Wave template should be configured to allocate Cross Dock Order
C. The Cross Dock Outbound Order type should be defined
D. IB Shipment Type should be defined for Cross Dock ASN
E. Module Parameter should be enabled on the RF Receive Screen for receiving Cross Dock ASN
Correct Answer: AD

# QUESTION 8

You have a high-demand item in the warehouse that you order from different vendors (e.g. copy paper).
Each one of your vendors has its own item number and barcode for the item, and you have your own
internal number for the item. You want to process fulfill orders using your internal number.

What should you do in order to accomplish this?

A. Create Alternate Item Codes in the Item Barcode UI to include all of the vendor\\’s item barcodes.
B. Create a pre-pack item with the original item barcode as the parent and the vendor barcodes as child items.
C. Create a different item in the WMS Cloud master data for each vendor.
D. Capture the vendor\\’s barcode upon receiving in an inventory attribute and then scan the inventory attribute during
each transaction that requires an item scan.
E. Manage your workflow to only receive items from one vendor.
Correct Answer: A

# QUESTION 9

You are creating a standard report for a client to display LPN Numbers (for multi-SKU LPNs) and their associated items.
The two data fields you have in your report are LPN Number and Item Code. Identify what controls need to be set to
create a sub-total for the number of items for each LPN.

A. Set the Summary Function for the item to “Count” and check the Summarize By box for LPN.
B. Set the Summary Function for the item to “Total” and check the Group By box for LPN.
C. Set the Summary Function for LPN to “Count” and check the Summarize By box for Item.
D. Set the Summary Function for LPN to “Total” and check the Group By box for items.
Correct Answer: A

# QUESTION 10

A warehouse manager needs to view additional information not available in the existing Picking
applications.
Identify two ways to fulfill this requirement. (Choose two.)

A. Create a custom WMS BI Cloud showing the information.
B. Access data through SQL.
C. Modify the base application to display additional information.
D. Use a base WMS BI Cloud showing the needed information.
Correct Answer: AC

# QUESTION 11

Your customer wants to Putaway LPN to Location by using the Putaway Rules and link the location with
the Replenishment Zone. Which four configurations are required? (Choose four.)

A. Putaway Priority and Rules are set at Facility Level.
B. Set Replenishment Zone for Active Location.
C. Set the Location Size Type at Facility Level.
D. Putaway Type is set at Facility Level.
E. Set Replenishment Zone for Reserve Location.
F. Set Criteria for Putaway Rules.
Correct Answer: ABCD

# QUESTION 12

What happens behind the flag Only deallocate on Short in the order type screen?

A. The Order Type has no impact on the Picking Process.
B. When the parameter is set to YES, during short pick, the system will put the order hold status until more inventory is
available.
C. When the parameter is set to Yes, then only the shorted quantity will get deallocated from the order.
D. When the parameter is set to No, the shorted quantity on the order remains in the “allocated” status.
E. When the parameter is set to Yes, the short pick will cancel the shorted order line automatically and inventory
adjustment will be generated for the item.
Correct Answer: E
Reference: https://learn.oracle.com/ords/launchpad/learn?page=picking-modesandcontext=0:44208:44214

#QUESTION 13

Which two packing transactions do not require you to open up an IB LPN (Everything will go in the box)? (Choose two.)

A. Pick Cart Transaction
B. Distribution Transaction
C. PackNC Transaction
D. PackLPN Transaction
Correct Answer: AD

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Genuine Oracle 1Z0-809 practice test [Q1-Q13 free] which helps you to understand in-depth

QUESTION 1
Given the code fragment:

1Z0-809 exam questions-q1

Which code fragment, when inserted at line 7, enables printing 100?
A. Function funRef = e –andgt; e + 10; Integer result = funRef.apply(value);
B. IntFunction funRef = e –andgt; e + 10; Integer result = funRef.apply (10);
C. ToIntFunction funRef = e –andgt; e + 10; int result = funRef.applyAsInt (value);
D. ToIntFunction funRef = e –andgt; e + 10; int result = funRef.apply (value);
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Given:

1Z0-809 exam questions-q2

Your design requires that:
fuelLevel of Engine must be greater than zero when the start() method is invoked. The code must terminate if fuelLevel
of Engine is less than or equal to zero.
Which code fragment should be added at line n1 to express this invariant condition?
A. assert (fuelLevel) : “Terminating…”;
B. assert (fuelLevel > 0) : System.out.println (“Impossible fuel”);
C. assert fuelLevel
D. assert fuelLevel > 0: “Impossible fuel” ;
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Given the content of Operator.java, EngineOperator.java, and Engine.java files: and the code fragment:

1Z0-809 exam questions-q3

What is the result?
A. The Engine.java file fails to compile.
B. The EngineOperator.java file fails to compile.
C. The Operator.java file fails to compile.
D. ON OFF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Given the code fragments:
class Employee {
Optional address;
Employee (Optional address) {
this.address = address;
}
public Optional getAddress() { return address; }
}
class Address {
String city = “New York”;
public String getCity { return city: }
public String toString() {
return city;
}
}
and
Address address = new Address;
Optional addrs1 = Optional.ofNullable (address);
Employee e1 = new Employee (addrs1);
String eAddress = (addrs1.isPresent()) ? addrs1.get().getCity() : “City Not available”;
System.out.println(eAddress);
What is the result?
A. New York
B. City Not available
C. null
D. A NoSuchElementException is thrown at run time.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
For which three objects must a vendor provide implementations in its JDBC driver? (Choose three.)
A. Time
B. Date
C. Statement
D. ResultSet
E. Connection
F. SQLException
G. DriverManager
Correct Answer: CDE
Database vendors support JDBC through the JDBC driver interface or through the ODBC connection. Each driver must
provide implementations of java.sql.Connection, java.sql.Statement, java.sql.PreparedStatement,
java.sql.CallableStatement, and java.sql.Re sultSet. They must also implement the java.sql.Driver interface for use by
the generic java.sql.DriverManager interface.

QUESTION 6
Given the code fragment:

1Z0-809 exam questions-q6

What is the result?
A. A compilation error occurs at line n1.
B. Checking…
C. Checking… Checking…
D. A compilation error occurs at line n2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Given:
class Student {
String course, name, city;
public Student (String name, String course, String city) {
this.course = course; this.name = name; this.city = city;
}
public String toString() {
return course + “:” + name + “:” + city;
}
public String getCourse() {return course;}
public String getName() {return name;}
public String getCity() {return city;}
and the code fragment:
List stds = Arrays.asList(
new Student (“Jessy”, “Java ME”, “Chicago”),
new Student (“Helen”, “Java EE”, “Houston”),
new Student (“Mark”, “Java ME”, “Chicago”));
stds.stream()
.collect(Collectors.groupingBy(Student::getCourse))
.forEach(src, res) -> System.out.println(scr));
What is the result?
A. A compilation error occurs.
B. Java EE Java ME
C. [Java EE: Helen:Houston] [Java ME: Jessy:Chicago, Java ME: Mark:Chicago]
D. [Java ME: Jessy:Chicago, Java ME: Mark:Chicago] [Java EE: Helen:Houston]
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Given the code fragments: and

1Z0-809 exam questions-q8

What is the result?
A. Video played.Game played.
B. A compilation error occurs.
C. class java.lang.Exception
D. class java.io.IOException
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Given the code fragment:
Stream files = Files.walk(Paths.get(System.getProperty(“user.home”)));
files.forEach (fName -> { //line n1
try {
Path aPath = fName.toAbsolutePath(); //line n2
System.out.println(fName + “:”
+ Files.readAttributes(aPath, Basic.File.Attributes.class).creationTime
());
} catch (IOException ex) {
ex.printStackTrace();
});
What is the result?
A. All files and directories under the home directory are listed along with their attributes.
B. A compilation error occurs at line n1.
C. The files in the home directory are listed along with their attributes.
D. A compilation error occurs at line n2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Given the code fragments:

1Z0-809 exam questions-q10

What is the result?
A. France Optional[NotFound]
B. Optional [France] Optional [NotFound]
C. Optional[France] Not Found
D. France Not Found
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Given the code fragment:
Path file = Paths.get (“courses.txt”); // line n1
Assume the courses.txt is accessible.
Which code fragment can be inserted at line n1 to enable the code to print the content of the courses.txt file?
A. List fc = Files.list(file); fc.stream().forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));
B. Stream fc = Files.readAllLines (file); fc.forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));
C. List fc = readAllLines(file); fc.stream().forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));
D. Stream fc = Files.lines (file); fc.forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Given the content:

1Z0-809 exam questions-q12

What is the result?
A. username = Entrez le nom d\\’utilisateur password = Entrez le mot de passe
B. username = Enter User Name password = Enter Password
C. A compilation error occurs.
D. The program prints nothing.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Given the code fragment:
List empDetails = Arrays.asList(“100, Robin, HR”,
“200, Mary, AdminServices”,
“101, Peter, HR”);
empDetails.stream()
.filter(s-> s.contains(“1”))
.sorted()
.forEach(System.out::println); //line n1
What is the result?
A. 100, Robin, HR 101, Peter, HR
B. A compilation error occurs at line n1.
C. 100, Robin, HR 101, Peter, HR 200, Mary, AdminServices
D. 100, Robin, HR 200, Mary, AdminServices 101, Peter, HR
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
When a customer opts to make a payment by a credit card, this receipt is identified as a(n) _______________.
A. miscellaneous receipt
B. quick cash receipt
C. manual receipt
D. automatic receipt
E. AutoLockbox receipt
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
After reviewing an incomplete invoice, the Billing Manager clicks the Complete button in the Transactions
window.
What are three results of this action? (Choose three.)
A. Payment schedules are created using the payment terms specified.
B. The invoice is sent for a dunning follow-up.
C. The invoice can now be printed.
D. The invoice is eligible for transfer to the General Ledger.
E. The invoice is included in the standard aging and collection process if the transaction type has the Open Receivables
option set to No.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
Which two duties are included in the Accounts Receivable Specialist associated role? (Choose two.)
A. Import Payables Invoices Duty
B. Receipt Creation Duty
C. Trading Community Hierarchy Management Duty
D. Payment Settlement Management Duty
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
There are a few customers that you do not want to send dunning letters to. How would you exclude these customers
from dunning?
A. Disable Send Dunning Letter in Transaction Source Type.
B. Disable Send Dunning Letter on the Correspondence tab.
C. Disable Send Dunning Letter in Collections Preferences.
D. Disable Send Dunning Letter on the Profile tab.
E. Disable Send Dunning Letter in Transaction Type.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which three actions are facilitated through the Reconciliation Summary Report? (Choose three.)
A. drilldown to see reconciliation details and to make reconciling corrections
B. drilldown on the difference amounts to see specific reconciling items and the potential cause of the outof-balance
condition
C. drilldown from any of the summarized Receivables and Accounting amounts to see detailed activity
D. drilldown to see details of unaccounted revenue transactions not transferred and posted to the General Ledger
E. drilldown to view data and use standard Excel functions such as sum, find, sort, and filtering without actually
downloading to Excel
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 6
You are the Billing Manager and you are responsible for reviewing adjustments and approving them. Which two tabs are
available in the Adjustments Overview Region on the Billing Work Area page? (Choose two.)
A. Pending My Research
B. Pending Approval From Managers
C. Pending Approval
D. Pending My Approval
E. Approved
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Identify a valid reason for a Collector being unable to enter a dispute against a particular transaction.
A. The invoice is not closed.
B. The transaction is partially paid.
C. The transaction type is not associated with a credit memo type.
D. The transaction date falls in a closed period.
E. The transaction is an invoice.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Company ABC wants their logo displayed in all customer invoices. How do you meet this business requirement?
A. Use Web Services to integrate with an external system that can handle this requirement.
B. Modify the Invoice Print Layout Bill Presentment Template.
C. Enable the setting “Allow Change to Printed Transactions” in Receivables System Options.
D. Extend the “Print Receivables Transactions” program.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Identify two credit memo options. (Choose two.)
A. Tax only
B. Advance
C. Paid freight
D. Invoice lines
E. Paid amount only
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
The Billing Manager has navigated to the Billing work area to complete a transaction. The Incomplete Transactions Overview Region on the Billing Work Area page has a drilldown option through a column to
complete the transaction.
Identify the column.
A. Transaction Class
B. Transaction Number
C. Transaction Source
D. Transaction Date
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two statements are true about Accounting for Tax on Receivables? (Choose two.)
A. For Miscellaneous receipts, if the receivable activity tax rate code source is Activity for the activity type of
Miscellaneous Cash, Receivables use the tax account that is defined on the receivable activity.
B. For Adjustments, if the receivable activity tax rate code source is Invoice, Receivables derive the tax account from
auto-accounting.
C. For Adjustments, if the receivable activity tax rate code source is Invoice, Receivables use the tax account that is
defined on the receivable activity.
D. For Adjustments, if the receivable activity tax rate code source is Invoice, Receivables use the tax account of the tax
code.
E. For Credit memos, if the profile “AR: Use Invoice Accounting for Credit Memos” is set to Yes, Receivables derive the
item distribution from the invoice and the tax account from auto-accounting.
F. For Credit memos, if the profile “AR: Use Invoice Accounting for Credit Memos” is set to No, Receivables derive the
tax account from auto-accounting.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
Which four output file types are available when you run the “Print Receivables Transactions” program?
A. JPG
B. PDF
C. Excel
D. HTML
E. Word
F. Zipped PDFs
Correct Answer: BCDF

QUESTION 13
You schedule print runs of transactions and balance forward bills according to the needs of your
enterprise.
Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. It is not recommended to print transactions and balance forward bills directly from BI Publisher.
B. If you have printed a transaction, the View Print button will not display a preview of the print.
C. If you have not printed a transaction, the View Print button (Preview of Print) displays the transaction according to the
default template in BI Publisher.
D. It is recommended that you always print directly from BI Publisher to give you more control over the templates in
case you need to change them.
E. Both the transaction, or each transaction in a balance forward bill, will be marked as printed in the system.
Correct Answer: CDE

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QUESTION 1
You need to have an invoice line automatically distributed across multiple cost centers. For example, you
want your monthly utility bill allocated across multiple cost centers based on a percentage.
Select two methods to achieve this. (Choose two.)
A. Configure Subledger Accounting rules to allocate costs.
B. Define a distribution set and assign it manually to the invoice.
C. Choose the `All Lines\\’ option from the Allocate menu in the invoice line area.
D. Define a distribution set and assign it to the supplier.
Correct Answer: AB
A: Account Rules by Segment Define segment rules to derive a specific segment of the general ledger account. For
example, a particular segment like the company segment can be determined from the distribution account. Another
segment can be determined with the use of a constant value. Creating the account one segment at a time offers greater
flexibility, but also requires more setup.
C: You can use a Distribution Set to automatically enter distributions foran invoice when you are not matching it to a
purchase order. For example, you can create for an advertising supplier a Distribution Set that allocates advertising
expense on an invoice to four advertising departments. References:https://docs.oracle.com/cd/A60725_05/html/comnls/us/ap/distsets.htm

QUESTION 2
How will system evaluate the tolerances for expense reports?
A. System will calculate error tolerance as (|Policy Rate * (1+Error Tolerance/100)|) currency precision.
B. System will calculate warning tolerance as Policy Rate * (1+Warning Tolerance/100)*currency precision.
C. System will calculate error tolerance as Policy Rate * (1+Warning Tolerance+ Error Tolerance/100).
D. System will calculate warning tolerance as Policy Rate * (1+Warning Tolerance/100).
E. System will use absolute amount tolerance setup to do validations.
Correct Answer: C
Error: A percentage is used to calculate an error. The error tolerance amount is calculated as follows: Policy Rate *
(1+Error Tolerance/100)
References:https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E60665_01/financialscs_gs/FAIEX/F1456644AN125F2.htm

QUESTION 3
When creating a check payment, from where is the payment document defaulted?
A. Legal Entity
B. Bank
C. Business Unit
D. Bank Account
E. Supplier
Correct Answer: D
Create Check
This step shows how to create a check to pay the customer for theclaim. The customer will be paid with the
designated amount in Oracle Payables.
Navigation: Actions > Pay in Full.
Notes:
Bank Account: Select BofA.
Document: Select Check.
References:https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18727_01/doc.121/e16295/T544851T544993.htm

QUESTION 4
Which three are invoice types that can be entered using the Supplier Portal? (Choose three.)
A. Invoices that are automatically created when the supplier creates an ASN for drop shipments
B. B2B XML invoices
C. Non purchase order matched invoices
D. Invoices that are created from the Evaluated Receipt Settlement (ERS) process
E. Purchase order matched invoices
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 5
Identify three scenarios where you are not allowed to cancel an invoice. (Choose three.)
A. Prepayments were applied to the invoice.
B. An accounting entry has been created for the invoice.
C. The invoice is validated.
D. The invoice is fully or partially paid.
E. The invoice was adjusted by a credit or a debit memo.
Correct Answer: ADE
Why can\\’t I cancel an invoice?
The invoice is:
Additional reasons thatyou can\\’t cancel an invoice are as follows:
You can cancel any unapproved invoice, or an approved invoice that does not have anyeffective payments
or posting holds.
References:https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/financialscs_gs/FAPPP/FAPPP1011878.htm#FAPPP1011878

QUESTION 6
While entering an expense report for your corporate card transactions, you notice that the conversion rate
defined in the Manage Conversion Rates and Policies page is not used.
What is the reason?
A. You did not define conversion rates for your business unit.
B. You did not specify a default expense template.
C. Only cash transactions use those settings.
D. You did not define conversion rates in the General Ledger Cloud.
Correct Answer: C
Conversion rate behavior applies only to cash expenses, not to corporate card expenses.
References:https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E60665_01/financialscs_gs/FAIEX/F1456644AN125F2.htm

QUESTION 7
Your client company has two business units and requires the Payables Specialist to process invoice
transactions for both business units.
What setup is required to achieve this?
A. a Self-Service Service Provider Model
B. a Dedicated Service Provider model
C. Business Unit Security
D. a Dedicated and Self-Service Service Provider Model
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What happens if a company runs the Payables Unaccounted Transactions Sweep program for February 2018 if the
invoices with a Hold status have an invoice date of January 20, 2018?
A. The accounting dates of all unaccounted invoices will be changed to February 20,2018, the same day of the next
period.
B. The accounting dates of all unaccounted invoices will change to February 28, 2018, the last day of the next period.
C. The accounting dates of all unaccounted invoices will remain unchanged at January 20, 2018.
D. The accounting dates of all unaccounted invoices will be changed to February 1, 2018, the first day of the next
period.
Correct Answer: D
Run the Payables Unaccounted Transactions Sweep program to transfer unaccounted transactions from one
accounting period to another. If your accounting practices permit it, use this program to change the accounting date of
the transactions to the next open period. The program transfers unaccounted transactions to the period you specify by
updating the accounting dates to the first day of the new period.
References:https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel8/financialscs_gs/FAPPP/F1011880AN1B948.htm

QUESTION 9
You have an invoice for $200 USD and a credit memo for $225 USD. In other words, the credit amount exceeds the
invoice amount. If you enable the option to apply credits up to zero amount payment, then how will the invoice and credit
memo be paid?
A. Neither the invoice nor the credit memo are included in the payment process request because the credit reduces the
payment amount below zero.
B. Both the invoice and the credit memo are paid and a refund of $25 USD is created.
C. Both the invoice and credit memo are included in the payment process request for a payment amount of $0 USD.
The credit memo is partially paid with a remaining credit of $25 USD.
D. Both the invoice and the credit memo are selected and the Payment Process Request requires attention.
Correct Answer: C
When you submit a “payment process request”, you can enable the Apply credits up to zero amount payment option.
Enabling the option causes the payment process to apply credits when the credits reduce the payment amount below
zero. The following scenario illustrate the impact of this option. Credit Amount Greater Than Invoice Amount An invoice
for 200 USD and a credit memo for 225 USD are due for payment. The following tabledescribes the payment processing
that occurs based on the setting for the Apply credits up to zero amount payment option. Assume that the “Apply Credits
Up to Zero Amount” option is enabled. Payment processing applies 200 USD of the credit memo to the invoice and
creates a payment for 0 USD. The remaining credit is 25 USD.
References:https://fusionhelp.oracle.com/helpPortal/topic/TopicId_P_9F438E13CC89BA0CE040D30 A68816F77

QUESTION 10
A Bill Payable document was paid but has not yet matured. What is the status of the payment?
A. In Transit
B. Cleared
C. Negotiable
D. Issued
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which job role has full access to perform all Functional Setup Manager related activities?
A. Application System Administrator
B. Any Functional User
C. Functional Setup Manager Superuser
D. IT Security Manager
E. Application Implementation Consultant
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
You are using the Payable\\’s Deferred Expense feature (also known as Multiperiod Accounting). You have entered an
invoice for a three-month lease that is entered on Jan 10th. The total expense is $12,000 and it covers the rental period
from Jan 1st to Mar 31st. Assuming that the rental expenses are split evenly per month and a monthly accounting
calendar is used, what would the accounting entry be?
A. On Jan 10th, Debit Prepaid Expense for 12,000 and Credit Liability 12,000
B. On Jan 31st, Debit Rental Expense for 4,000 and Credit Prepared Expense for 4,000On Feb 28th, Debit Rental
Expense for 4,000 and Credit Prepared Expense for 4,000
C. On Jan 10th, Debit Prepaid Expense 12,000 and Credit Liability for 12,000 and thenOn Jan 31st, Debit Rental
Expense for 4,000 and Credit Prepared Expense for 4,000On Feb 28th, Debit Rental Expense for 4,000 and Credit
Prepared Expense for 4,000On Mar 31st, Debit Rental Expense for 4,000 and Credit Prepared Expense for 4,000
D. On Mar 31st, Debit Rental Expense for 4,000 and Credit Prepared Expense for 4,000On Jan 10th, Debit Rental
Expense for 12,000 and Credit Cash for 12,000
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which dashboard or workarea displays the Scanned Invoices region for invoices processed through the Payables
Integrated Imaging solution?
A. Manage Invoices page
B. C-level executives
C. Invoices Workarea only
D. Payables Dashboard only
E. Payables Dashboard and Invoices Workarea
Correct Answer: C
Accounts payable specialists can view the list of scanned images for invoice entry, along with the additional routing
attributes, in the Scanned Invoices region of the Invoices work area. References:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E36909_01/fusionapps.1111/e20375/F569958AN60E65.htm

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QUESTION 1
Your customer awards three types of bonuses to its workers: Joining Bonus, Ad-hoc Bonus, and Annual Bonus. All
three bonuses are awarded by using element entries. How would you configure the Compensation Statement? (Choose
the best answer.)
A. Create one Compensation Item as Bonus and specify the source type as Element Entry. Associate the three
elements with the Compensation Item.
B. Create three Compensation Items: Joining Bonus, Ad-hoc bonus, and Annual Bonus. Specify the source type as
Element Entry and associate the respective elements with the respective Items.
C. Create one Compensation Category as Bonus and specify the source type as Element Entry. Associate the three
elements with the Compensation Category.
D. Create three Compensation Categories: Joining Bonus, Ad-hoc Bonus, and Annual Bonus. Specify the source type
as Element Entry and associate the respective Elements with the respective Categories.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You client has a requirement that allows a salary adjustment based on the number of dependents the employee has,
and this allowance must be mapped to a separate component. Because this allowance cannot have a logical mapping
with any of the predefined components, you decide to create a new salary component called “Family Allowance”. Which
option would you use to achieve this? (Choose the best answer.)
A. The Configure Compensation Component task in Manage plans
B. The Salary Component Lookup
C. It is not possible to achieve this, because only the delivered salary components can be used.
D. The Compensation Models
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E60665_01/common/FAIWC/F1477720AN1CD0E.htm#F1477720AN1CD 0E

QUESTION 3
Plan access restrictions control the situations in which an individual compensation plan is available for allocations or
contributions by a line manager or worker, and regulate a user\\’s ability to create, update, or discontinue allocations or
contributions under the plan. What are three common decisions to make about plan access? (Choose three.)
A. If user access should be based on career levels or earnings thresholds
B. If the plan is going to require updates that are driven by business users in the time frame of the next payroll cycle
C. if there should be a “white list” name criteria for access to the plan
D. if plan access should be related to HR actions
E. if there should be a time period in which a user can create, update, or discontinue allocations or contributions
F. whether or not to restrict access to the plan at all
Correct Answer: DEF
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E25054_01/fusionapps.1111/e20376/F642623AN4283B.htm

QUESTION 4
A corporation has implemented Oracle Fusion Workforce Compensation. Per business requirements, the Fusion
consultant must integrate Oracle Fusion Workforce Compensation with Oracle Fusion Benefits to fetch the value of
Benefits Amount as one of the input values for the Benefit element to get the eligible salary of an employee for the
compensation process. Identify the option that will enable fetching of the Benefits Amount value. (Choose the best
answer.)
A. Select the “Allow User Entry” and “Create a Database Item” check boxes for the element input value.
B. Database items are created by default for the element input values.
C. Select “Pay Separately” as the “Special Purpose” option.
D. Create an “Amount” input value at the element eligibility link level.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You are required to explain to your client the use of Hierarchy design in Compensation Process. Which two
Compensation-related activities use Hierarchy? (Choose two.)
A. Approval routing
B. Allocating budgets
C. Plan access
D. Sending Compensation alerts
E. Feedback survey
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Identify the two valid formula types applicable for Workforce Compensation Plans. (Choose two.)
A. Compensation Currency Selection
B. Compensation Organization Selection
C. Compensation Item Selection
D. Compensation Person Selection
E. Compensation amounts Selection
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7
You can use predefined alerts to notify managers about issues on the worksheet that need their attention. Which four
predefined alerts are available? (Choose four.)
A. Salary changed in HR
B. Allocation outside target range
C. Grade changed in HR
D. Job changed in HR
E. Worker was terminated
F. Worker is on long-term leave
Correct Answer: ABCE
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37583_01/doc.1116/e22776/F387136AN11E5B.htm (predefined alerts)

QUESTION 8
Which statement is correct about secondary element classifications? (Choose the best answer.)
A. They are user-defined and can be edited.
B. They are user-defined and cannot be edited.
C. They are predefined and can be edited.
D. They are predefined and cannot be edited.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Your customer wants line managers to be able to access the active workforce compensation plan during
the first three months of the Plan period, but not to update it. The evaluation period start and end dates for
the plan are January 1 to December 31 of the year.
How should you set this up? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Configure Plan access start and end dates from January 1 to March 31 of the year and Worksheet update period
start and end dates from April 1 to December 31 of the year.
B. Configure Worksheet update period start and end dates from January 1 to March 31 of the year and Plan access
start and end dates from April 1 to December 31 of the year.
C. Configure Plan access start and end dates from January 1 to December 31 of the year.
D. Configure Worksheet update period start and end dates from January 1 to December 31 of the year.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your client has a requirement where work-at-home assignments are not eligible for an employee compensation revision
cycle. To facilitate capturing work-at-home assignment, you have created a custom column and associated a List of
Values (LOV) with values “Yes” and “No”. Now you wish to create an eligibility profile around this. Which is the correct
option? (Choose the best answer.)
A. User-defined-criteria-based eligibility profile on “Work-at-home” and value = “Yes” with exclude option selected
B. User-defined-criteria-based eligibility profile on “Work-at-home” and value = “Yes” with exclude option deselected
C. User-defined-criteria-based eligibility profile on “Work-at-home” and value = “No” with exclude option selected
D. Derived-factor-based eligibility profile based on the “Work-at-home” column
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
The compensation administrator has configured an Annual Salary Review plan that is linked to the performance of
employees so that the annual increment amount is based on the rating that an employee has received in the
performance evaluation. The percentages are fixed for each of the ratings by using the dynamic column. All the
managers have completed updating the worksheet and the information has been transferred to HR by running the
Transfer Workforce Compensation Data to HR process. After this, the compensation administrator realizes that the
increment percentages for each of the ratings used in the dynamic column were incorrect. Now each of these incorrect
salary records should be deleted and new correct salary record entries should be made for the employees in Manage
Salary. How should you accomplish this? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Change the plan status to Inactivate and create a new compensation plan with correct percentage increase for each
of the ratings.
B. Correct the percentage increase for each of the ratings, run the Refresh Workforce Compensation Data process, and
return the same compensation plan.
C. Run the Back Out Workforce Compensation Data process, run the Refresh Workforce Compensation Data process, return the same compensation plan, and then transfer the data to HR.
D. Run the Back Out Workforce Compensation Data process, correct the percentage increase for each of the ratings,
run the Refresh Workforce Compensation Data process, and rerun the same compensation plan.
E. Run the Back Out Workforce Compensation Data process, correct the percentage increase for each of the ratings,
run the Refresh Workforce Compensation Data process, and rerun the same compensation plan. Finally transfer the
data to HR.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You are responsible for configuring variable allocations to manage approvals for individual compensation plans. Your
company wants to control plan availability by using defaults. What are the default attributes of the actionable Variable
Allocation task? (Choose the best answer.)
A. The task is only for notification and has no rules.
B. The task applies to all allocations, uses two levels of the Supervisory list builder, and does not require a response
from the current approver.
C. The task applies to selected allocations, uses two levels of the Supervisory list builder, and requires a response from
the current approver.
D. The task applies to all allocations, uses two levels of the Supervisory list builder, and requires a response from the
current approver.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Contingent workers are ineligible as per the eligibility rules defined for your organization\\’s compensation plan. The
compensation plan cycle is started. As is the standard practice, the compensation administrator schedules the “Refresh
Workforce Compensation Data” nightly. A worker who was a contingent worker is now an employee of the organization
and the next day shows up in Manager\\’s worksheet. How is this possible? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Track Ineligible Workers is selected in the compensation plan.
B. Show Ineligible Workers is selected in the compensation plan.
C. Hide Ineligible Workers is selected in the compensation plan.
D. Process Ineligible Workers is selected in the compensation plan.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which two describe reasons to modularize the JDK? (Choose two.)
A. easier to understand the Java language
B. improves security and maintainability
C. easier to expose implementation details
D. improves application robustness
E. easier to build a custom runtime linking application modules and JDK modules
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 2

1z0-819 exam questions-q2

What is the output?
A. A compilation error is thrown.
B. Message from Copier: Attempt00
C. Message from Abstract Copier: Attempt00
D. A runtime error is thrown.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3

1z0-819 exam questions-q3

What is the result?
A. Take extra care
B. The program prints nothing.
C. Take extra care Take extra care
D. An exception is thrown at runtime
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which three guidelines are used to protect confidential information? (Choose three.)
A. Limit access to objects holding confidential information.
B. Clearly identify and label confidential information.
C. Manage confidential and other information uniformly.
D. Transparently handle information to improve diagnostics.
E. Treat user input as normal information.
F. Validate input before storing confidential information.
G. Encapsulate confidential information.
Correct Answer: ADF
Reference: https://danielkvist.net/code/java-secure-coding-guidelines

QUESTION 5
Given:

1z0-819 exam questions-q5

What code must you insert on Line 1 to enable the code to print Hello world?
A. Hello.Greeting myG = new Hello.Greeting() myG.sayHi();
B. Hello myH = new Hello(); Hello.Greeting myG = myH.new Greeting(); myG.sayHi();
C. Hello myH = new Hello(); Hello.Greeting myG = myH.new Hello.Greeting(); myG.sayHi();
D. Hello myH = new Hello(); Greeting myG = new Greeting(); myG.sayHi ();
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Given:

1z0-819 exam questions-q6

This code results in a compilation error.
Which code should be inserted on line 1 for a successful compilation?
A. Consumer consumer = msg -> { return System.out.print(msg); };
B. Consumer consumer = var arg -> {System.out.print(arg);};
C. Consumer consumer = (String args) -> System.out.print(args);
D. Consumer consumer = System.out::print;
Correct Answer: D

1z0-819 exam questions-q6-2

 

QUESTION 7
Given:

1z0-819 exam questions-q7

Examine these requirements:
Eliminate code duplication.
Keep constant the number of methods other classes may implement from this interface.
Which method can be added to meet these requirements?

1z0-819 exam questions-q7-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Which two statements are correct about modules in Java? (Choose two.)
A. java.base exports all of the Java platforms core packages.
B. module-info.java can be placed in any folder inside module-path.
C. A module must be declared in module-info.java file.
D. module-info.java cannot be empty.
E. By default, modules can access each other as long as they run in the same folder.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: http://tutorials.jenkov.com/java/modules.html

 

QUESTION 9
Given the formula to calculate a monthly mortgage payment:

1z0-819 exam questions-q9

A. m = p * (r * Math.pow(1 + r, n) / (Math.pow(1 + r, n) – 1));
B. m = p * ((r * Math.pow(1 + r, n) / (Math.pow(1 + r, n)) – 1));
C. m = p * r * Math.pow(1 + r, n) / Math.pow(1 + r, n) – 1;
D. m = p * (r * Math.pow(1 + r, n) / Math.pow(1 + r, n) – 1);
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
Given: and omitting the throws FooException clause results in a compilation error. Which statement is true about
FooException?

1z0-819 exam questions-q10

A. FooException is a subclass of RuntimeError.
B. FooException is unchecked.
C. The body of foo can only throw FooException.
D. The body of foo can throw FooException or one of its subclasses.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://stackoverflow.com/questions/47871728/throwing-a-parent-class-exception-force-tothrow-its-subclass-exception-event-t

 

QUESTION 11
Given: What is the output?

1z0-819 exam questions-q11

A. 300
B. Exception
C. 200
D. 100
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about the modular JDK? (Choose two.)
A. The foundational APIs of the Java SE Platform are found in the java.base module.
B. An application must be structured as modules in order to run on the modular JDK.
C. It is possible but undesirable to configure modules\\’ exports from the command line.
D. APIs are deprecated more aggressively because the JDK has been modularized.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 13
Given:

1z0-819 exam questions-q13

Which two independent changes will make the Main class compile? (Choose two.)
A. Move the entire Student class declaration to a separate Java file, Student.java.
B. Change line 2 to public Student(String classname).
C. Change line 1 to public class Student {.
D. Change line 3 to Student student = new Student(“Biology”);.
E. Change line 1 to static class Student {.
Correct Answer: BD

1z0-819 exam questions-q13-2

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QUESTION 1
Given the code fragment:
1z0-811 exam questions-q1

Which code fragment can be inserted at line n1 to enable the code to compile?
A. new int num[];
B. int[] num;
C. int[10] num;
D. int num[10];
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Given: What is the result?

1z0-811 exam questions-q2

 A. 20
B. 32
C. A compilation error occurs.
D. 21
Correct Answer: A

1z0-811 exam questions-q2-2

 

QUESTION 3

1z0-811 exam questions-q3

What is the result?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 9
D. 10
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Given the code fragment:

1z0-811 exam questions-q4

 What is the result?
A. false false false false
B. true false false false
C. true true true true
D. true true true false
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5

1z0-811 exam questions-q5

Identify two class variables.
A. private static int numberOfSquares = 20;
B. public static int counter = 0;
C. private Measure cm;
D. public int size = 10;
E. int scale = 35;
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.tutorialspoint.com/What-are-class-variables-instance-variables-and-local-variables-in-Java

 

QUESTION 6

1z0-811 exam questions-q6

What is the result?
A. Unknown issues. Invalid divisor.
B. Unknown issues.
C. Invalid divisor.
D. A compilation error occurs.
Correct Answer: D

1z0-811 exam questions-q6-2

 

QUESTION 7

1z0-811 exam questions-q7

Identify two valid data types for the operands of the addition (+) operator?
A. string
B. boolean
C. numeric
D. array
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://www.iitk.ac.in/esc101/05Aug/tutorial/java/nutsandbolts/arithmetic.html

 

QUESTION 8
Given the code fragment:

1z0-811 exam questions-q8

Which code fragment, when inserted at line n1, enables the code to print Java Programming:1?
A. System.out.println(name + “:” + count);
B. System.out.println(c.name + “:” + count);
C. System.out.println(c.name + “:” + Course.count);
D. System.out.println(Course.name + “:” + c.count);
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Given the code fragment:

1z0-811 exam questions-q9

What is the result?
A. A compilation error occurs at line n1.
B. Jack
C. The program prints either Jack or Queen.
D. Queen
Correct Answer: A

1z0-811 exam questions-q9-2

QUESTION 10
Identify two features of Java.
A. architecture dependent
B. platform independent
C. single threaded
D. robust
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.javatpoint.com/features-of-java

 

QUESTION 11

1z0-811 exam questions-q11

What is the result?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. Nothing is printed.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
Given:

1z0-811 exam questions-q12

 What is the result?
A. [null:-]
B. [ : ]
C. [null:null]
D. [:null]
Correct Answer: A

1z0-811 exam questions-q12-2

 

QUESTION 13
Given:

1z0-811 exam questions-q13

At which line does a compilation error occur?
A. line 5
B. line 2
C. line 3
D. line 7
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which three options describe the flash memory capabilities of the Exadata X6-2 database and storage servers?
(Choose three.)
A. no flash storage on the database server
B. 4 x 3.2 TB NVMe flash cards on the HC storage server
C. 8 x 3.2 TB NVMe flash cards on the EF storage server
D. 4 x 3.2 TB NVMe flash cards on the database server
E. 8 x 3.2 TB NVMe flash cards on the HC storage server
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 2
A customer has received an email notification about a temperature alert on one of the storage servers on their Exadata
system.
What action can the customer take to further investigate the alert?
A. Log in to the Oracle database and query v$temperature.
B. SSH to the storage server and use the CeIICLI sensor_check command to get information about the storage
server\\’s health.
C. Log in to the ILOM service processor and view the current status of the sensors and indicators on the system.
D. Enter the data center and immediately power off the storage server.
E. Run exachk to find the system component that might be having a problem.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Identify three default ways to connect to Oracle Exadata Cloud Service that is running on Oracle Public Cloud.
A. using the UNIX-based telnet command
B. using SQL *Net from clients that are running on a compute cloud service
C. using SSH for administrative purposes
D. using Oracle Net from on-premise applications
E. using the Remote Desktop client and the RDP protocol
Correct Answer: BCD
Reference: https://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/Architecture_Diagrams/ecs_arch/ ecs_arch.html

QUESTION 4
To patch an Exadata cloud instance, you need to run the exadbcpatchmulti command as root from the compute node.
exadbcpatchmulti uses the exadbcpatch.cfg file to provide information about the location of files related to patching
operations as well as additional parameters related to these operations.
What is the purpose of the sw_bkup_needed=1 parameter that can be set in the exadbcpatch.cfg file?
A. creates a backup of the patch in case of an error in the patching routine
B. performs a backup of each Oracle home directory before a patch is applied
C. forces the software to create a backup of the exadbpatch.cfg file
D. adds a dialog box that prompts for a backup before the patch can be applied
E. creates a backup of the Oracle database data files
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which statement is true about High Availability (HA) in an Exadata environment?
A. When a standby database is in place, DB_BLOCK_CHECKINGis not required and thus is not recommended.
B. The checksums that are performed on the Exadata Storage Server ensure logical consistency of the block content.
C. Stretched RAC is the best alternative for Exadata that combines both HA and DR into one.
D. Due to the different architecture that Exadata has with storage servers when compared to regular Storage Area
Network, DB_LOST_WRITE_PROTECTneed not be set.
E. The Oracle Exadata Storage Server Software HARD checks operate transparently after enabling
DB_BLOCK_CHECKSUMon a database.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Which three mandatory tasks must be performed when configuring the Auto Service Request (ASR) Manager? (Choose
three.)
A. verifying the ASR configuration
B. registering the ASR Manager
C. activating a node on the ASR Manager
D. installing the ASR software on each database server
E. setting up ASR SNMP traps in Enterprise Manager
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
Identify two ways that Smart Flash Cache can be enabled on an Exadata Database Machine. (Choose
two.)
A. It is enabled through OEDA by selecting the Enable FlashCache check box in the hardware configuration section.
B. It can be enabled with the ‘cellcli – I alter flashCache=on’command.
C. It can be enabled manually with the CREATE FLASHCACHEcommand from CellCLI.
D. It can be enabled by default during installation.
E. It can be enabled by using the cellCLI DROP FLASHCACHEcommand.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about the disks that are used in ASM diskgroups on the Exadata platform?
A. HP and HC disks can be mixed to any capacity within the same diskgroup.
B. If High redundancy is selected, grid disks from at least two storage servers must be specified.
C. In an Exadata storage server, 12 DATA grid disks, 12 RECO grid disks, and 12 DBFS_DG grid disks are configured
by default.
D. The redundancy setting can be changed easily if a wrong choice is made between Normal and High.
E. The disks in ASM diskgroups must have similar performance characteristics in addition to having the same size.
Correct Answer: E
Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/exadata/maa-exadata-asm-cloud-3656632.pdf (page 9)

QUESTION 9
The ipmi tool command is most commonly used to perform which two tasks?
A. To configure base networking and bonds within the Exadata server.
B. To power on a chassis from another system in Exadata machine.
C. To show the ILOM SP server event logs in details for a listing of components status on a particular machine.
D. To manage and maintain the Exadata storage servers and related cell commands.
E. To manage cluster components.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
When preparing to install ASR on your customer\\’s Exadata Database Machine, which user account will you use first to
configure the Exadata Database Server?
A. asmadmin
B. oracle
C. asruser
D. celladmin
E. root
F. asradmin
Correct Answer: E
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37710_01/doc.41/e23333/toc.htm#ASXQI103

QUESTION 11
When a customer use Enterprise Manager to monitor and maintain their Exadata machine, which protocol does
enterprise manager uses to send and receive information about component failure event and status.
A. ILOM
B. ICMP
C. RPC
D. IPMI
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
How does Advanced Compression differ from Hybrid Columnar Compression?
A. Advanced Compression is free to use on Exadata Database Machine, whereas Hybrid Columnar Compression must
be purchased.
B. They are the same; Advanced Compression is called Hybrid Columnar Compression on Exadata Database Machine.
C. Hybrid Columnar Compression is good for tables with active updates and deletes, and provides deeper compression
ratios.
D. Advanced Compression is good for tables with active updates and deletes, whereas Hybrid Columnar Compression
is best applied to tables or partitions where data is fairly static.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
What happens in an Exadata Database Machine when the DUPLICATE sub-clause of the INMEMORY attribute is
specified?
A. The DUPLICATE sub-clause enables parallel execution NUMA support.
B. Each In-Memory Compression Unit in the IM column store will have a mirrored copy placed on another node in the
RAC cluster.
C. The command allows the current instance to exceed DRAM limits and expand across memory, flash, and disk.
D. The command creates an in-memory snapshot for write_only access.
E. The In-Memory Compression Unit will have a mirrored copy placed on every other node in the RAC cluster.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/in-memory/learnmore/twp-dbim-exadata2556211.pdf (page 3)

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QUESTION 1
Which is required for a valid profile?
A. at least one level of review
B. at least one question
C. at least one rule
D. at least one currency bucket
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which statement is true regarding the Normal Balance attribute in a profile?
A. It is assigned automatically based on the account type.
B. Preparers cannot save a reconciliation if the balance type is other than expected.
C. When it is selected, reconciliations display a warning if their balance is zero.
D. Reconciliations display a warning if the balance type is other than expected.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/suarc/setup_profile_create_profile_106xc6e8be7c.html


QUESTION 3
Which statement about manual matching in transaction matching is FALSE?
A. You can manually match transactions only if the amounts are within the tolerance.
B. Transactions for which auto-matching rules did not find matches can be manually matched.
C. You must be a power user or service administrator to create manual matches.
D. You can create adjustments to balance a match set.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
The transaction matching period-end reconciliation displays an unexplained difference other than zero. Which two are
possible explanations? (Choose two.)
A. Currency exchanges rates are out of date.
B. Journal adjustments created were not posted.
C. You do not have security access to all the transactions.
D. The data load for transactions was incomplete.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
What results if you load balances using Data Management to a period to which you previously imported pre-mapped
balances?
A. The Data Management data load fails.
B. You are prompted whether to overwrite the pre-mapped balances.
C. The balances loaded through Data Management overwrite the pre-mapped balances.
D. The reconciliation takes the balances loaded through Data Management and the pre-mapped balance load, and
totals them.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/adarc/admin_import_premapped_balances_102xfdf77b0f.html

QUESTION 6
When can you run auto-matching for a transaction matching reconciliation?
A. after you load transactions to the reconciliation data sources
B. after the period end date is reached
C. after the reconciliation meets its start date
D. after the reconciliation status changes to Open With Preparer
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
In the Balance Explanations tab of the Prepaid Expenses reconciliation, you want to include the transactions and
attachments from the prior period in the current period.
Which action should you perform?
A. In the Balance Explanations tab of the current period reconciliation, select `Copy Transactions from Prior
Reconciliation\\’.
B. In the profile for Prepaid Expenses reconciliations, select `Include Prior Period Transactions\\’.
C. In the Reconciliations list, copy the reconciliation from the prior period and paste it into the current period.
D. Export the transactions from the prior period reconciliation and then import them to the current period reconciliation.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
To which do you assign default currencies?
A. currency buckets
B. account ids
C. organizational units
D. formats
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/suarc/setup_profile_currency_create_132xd5cdfe3e.html

QUESTION 9
You are using EPM Automate commands to automate data load to Account Reconciliation.
In which scenario should you use EPM Automate to load the data through Data Management rather than directly into
Account Reconciliation?
A. Your data includes fields with blank values.
B. You are loading data to the Reporting currency bucket.
C. You are loading more than 1000 transactions.
D. You want to import one concatenated field from the source file, rather than two separate fields.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true about importing and exporting match types? (Choose two.)
A. Match types are exported to a .zip folder.
B. Import can update match types with Pending status only.
C. Match types are exported to comma-separated (CSV) files.
D. Import can update match types with Approved status only.
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/suarc/admin_trans_match_setup_create_recon_types_106x68132b777_may_5.html

QUESTION 11
Which two are properties of the organizational unit? (Choose two.)
A. work days
B. calendar
C. language
D. tax jurisdiction
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/suarc/setup_org_units_add_120xd0591c49.html


QUESTION 12
To which do you assign Holiday Rules?
A. profiles
B. calendars
C. organizational units
D. periods
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/suarc/setup_holiday_rules_create_112xd058af2d.html

QUESTION 13
You want to require that preparers answer a question certifying that they followed the company accounting policies in
preparing the reconciliation.
Where do you add the question?
A. to the match type
B. to the profile
C. to the reconciliation
D. to the format
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcilecloud/suarc/GUID-52A3F1EF-7D3541F5-A284-861268631470.pdf (5-18)

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