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QUESTION 1
Which three options describe the flash memory capabilities of the Exadata X6-2 database and storage servers?
(Choose three.)
A. no flash storage on the database server
B. 4 x 3.2 TB NVMe flash cards on the HC storage server
C. 8 x 3.2 TB NVMe flash cards on the EF storage server
D. 4 x 3.2 TB NVMe flash cards on the database server
E. 8 x 3.2 TB NVMe flash cards on the HC storage server
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 2
A customer has received an email notification about a temperature alert on one of the storage servers on their Exadata
system.
What action can the customer take to further investigate the alert?
A. Log in to the Oracle database and query v$temperature.
B. SSH to the storage server and use the CeIICLI sensor_check command to get information about the storage
server\\’s health.
C. Log in to the ILOM service processor and view the current status of the sensors and indicators on the system.
D. Enter the data center and immediately power off the storage server.
E. Run exachk to find the system component that might be having a problem.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Identify three default ways to connect to Oracle Exadata Cloud Service that is running on Oracle Public Cloud.
A. using the UNIX-based telnet command
B. using SQL *Net from clients that are running on a compute cloud service
C. using SSH for administrative purposes
D. using Oracle Net from on-premise applications
E. using the Remote Desktop client and the RDP protocol
Correct Answer: BCD
Reference: https://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/Architecture_Diagrams/ecs_arch/ ecs_arch.html

QUESTION 4
To patch an Exadata cloud instance, you need to run the exadbcpatchmulti command as root from the compute node.
exadbcpatchmulti uses the exadbcpatch.cfg file to provide information about the location of files related to patching
operations as well as additional parameters related to these operations.
What is the purpose of the sw_bkup_needed=1 parameter that can be set in the exadbcpatch.cfg file?
A. creates a backup of the patch in case of an error in the patching routine
B. performs a backup of each Oracle home directory before a patch is applied
C. forces the software to create a backup of the exadbpatch.cfg file
D. adds a dialog box that prompts for a backup before the patch can be applied
E. creates a backup of the Oracle database data files
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which statement is true about High Availability (HA) in an Exadata environment?
A. When a standby database is in place, DB_BLOCK_CHECKINGis not required and thus is not recommended.
B. The checksums that are performed on the Exadata Storage Server ensure logical consistency of the block content.
C. Stretched RAC is the best alternative for Exadata that combines both HA and DR into one.
D. Due to the different architecture that Exadata has with storage servers when compared to regular Storage Area
Network, DB_LOST_WRITE_PROTECTneed not be set.
E. The Oracle Exadata Storage Server Software HARD checks operate transparently after enabling
DB_BLOCK_CHECKSUMon a database.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Which three mandatory tasks must be performed when configuring the Auto Service Request (ASR) Manager? (Choose
three.)
A. verifying the ASR configuration
B. registering the ASR Manager
C. activating a node on the ASR Manager
D. installing the ASR software on each database server
E. setting up ASR SNMP traps in Enterprise Manager
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
Identify two ways that Smart Flash Cache can be enabled on an Exadata Database Machine. (Choose
two.)
A. It is enabled through OEDA by selecting the Enable FlashCache check box in the hardware configuration section.
B. It can be enabled with the ‘cellcli – I alter flashCache=on’command.
C. It can be enabled manually with the CREATE FLASHCACHEcommand from CellCLI.
D. It can be enabled by default during installation.
E. It can be enabled by using the cellCLI DROP FLASHCACHEcommand.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about the disks that are used in ASM diskgroups on the Exadata platform?
A. HP and HC disks can be mixed to any capacity within the same diskgroup.
B. If High redundancy is selected, grid disks from at least two storage servers must be specified.
C. In an Exadata storage server, 12 DATA grid disks, 12 RECO grid disks, and 12 DBFS_DG grid disks are configured
by default.
D. The redundancy setting can be changed easily if a wrong choice is made between Normal and High.
E. The disks in ASM diskgroups must have similar performance characteristics in addition to having the same size.
Correct Answer: E
Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/exadata/maa-exadata-asm-cloud-3656632.pdf (page 9)

QUESTION 9
The ipmi tool command is most commonly used to perform which two tasks?
A. To configure base networking and bonds within the Exadata server.
B. To power on a chassis from another system in Exadata machine.
C. To show the ILOM SP server event logs in details for a listing of components status on a particular machine.
D. To manage and maintain the Exadata storage servers and related cell commands.
E. To manage cluster components.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
When preparing to install ASR on your customer\\’s Exadata Database Machine, which user account will you use first to
configure the Exadata Database Server?
A. asmadmin
B. oracle
C. asruser
D. celladmin
E. root
F. asradmin
Correct Answer: E
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37710_01/doc.41/e23333/toc.htm#ASXQI103

QUESTION 11
When a customer use Enterprise Manager to monitor and maintain their Exadata machine, which protocol does
enterprise manager uses to send and receive information about component failure event and status.
A. ILOM
B. ICMP
C. RPC
D. IPMI
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
How does Advanced Compression differ from Hybrid Columnar Compression?
A. Advanced Compression is free to use on Exadata Database Machine, whereas Hybrid Columnar Compression must
be purchased.
B. They are the same; Advanced Compression is called Hybrid Columnar Compression on Exadata Database Machine.
C. Hybrid Columnar Compression is good for tables with active updates and deletes, and provides deeper compression
ratios.
D. Advanced Compression is good for tables with active updates and deletes, whereas Hybrid Columnar Compression
is best applied to tables or partitions where data is fairly static.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
What happens in an Exadata Database Machine when the DUPLICATE sub-clause of the INMEMORY attribute is
specified?
A. The DUPLICATE sub-clause enables parallel execution NUMA support.
B. Each In-Memory Compression Unit in the IM column store will have a mirrored copy placed on another node in the
RAC cluster.
C. The command allows the current instance to exceed DRAM limits and expand across memory, flash, and disk.
D. The command creates an in-memory snapshot for write_only access.
E. The In-Memory Compression Unit will have a mirrored copy placed on every other node in the RAC cluster.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/in-memory/learnmore/twp-dbim-exadata2556211.pdf (page 3)

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QUESTION 1
Which is required for a valid profile?
A. at least one level of review
B. at least one question
C. at least one rule
D. at least one currency bucket
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which statement is true regarding the Normal Balance attribute in a profile?
A. It is assigned automatically based on the account type.
B. Preparers cannot save a reconciliation if the balance type is other than expected.
C. When it is selected, reconciliations display a warning if their balance is zero.
D. Reconciliations display a warning if the balance type is other than expected.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/suarc/setup_profile_create_profile_106xc6e8be7c.html


QUESTION 3
Which statement about manual matching in transaction matching is FALSE?
A. You can manually match transactions only if the amounts are within the tolerance.
B. Transactions for which auto-matching rules did not find matches can be manually matched.
C. You must be a power user or service administrator to create manual matches.
D. You can create adjustments to balance a match set.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
The transaction matching period-end reconciliation displays an unexplained difference other than zero. Which two are
possible explanations? (Choose two.)
A. Currency exchanges rates are out of date.
B. Journal adjustments created were not posted.
C. You do not have security access to all the transactions.
D. The data load for transactions was incomplete.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
What results if you load balances using Data Management to a period to which you previously imported pre-mapped
balances?
A. The Data Management data load fails.
B. You are prompted whether to overwrite the pre-mapped balances.
C. The balances loaded through Data Management overwrite the pre-mapped balances.
D. The reconciliation takes the balances loaded through Data Management and the pre-mapped balance load, and
totals them.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/adarc/admin_import_premapped_balances_102xfdf77b0f.html

QUESTION 6
When can you run auto-matching for a transaction matching reconciliation?
A. after you load transactions to the reconciliation data sources
B. after the period end date is reached
C. after the reconciliation meets its start date
D. after the reconciliation status changes to Open With Preparer
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
In the Balance Explanations tab of the Prepaid Expenses reconciliation, you want to include the transactions and
attachments from the prior period in the current period.
Which action should you perform?
A. In the Balance Explanations tab of the current period reconciliation, select `Copy Transactions from Prior
Reconciliation\\’.
B. In the profile for Prepaid Expenses reconciliations, select `Include Prior Period Transactions\\’.
C. In the Reconciliations list, copy the reconciliation from the prior period and paste it into the current period.
D. Export the transactions from the prior period reconciliation and then import them to the current period reconciliation.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
To which do you assign default currencies?
A. currency buckets
B. account ids
C. organizational units
D. formats
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/suarc/setup_profile_currency_create_132xd5cdfe3e.html

QUESTION 9
You are using EPM Automate commands to automate data load to Account Reconciliation.
In which scenario should you use EPM Automate to load the data through Data Management rather than directly into
Account Reconciliation?
A. Your data includes fields with blank values.
B. You are loading data to the Reporting currency bucket.
C. You are loading more than 1000 transactions.
D. You want to import one concatenated field from the source file, rather than two separate fields.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true about importing and exporting match types? (Choose two.)
A. Match types are exported to a .zip folder.
B. Import can update match types with Pending status only.
C. Match types are exported to comma-separated (CSV) files.
D. Import can update match types with Approved status only.
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/suarc/admin_trans_match_setup_create_recon_types_106x68132b777_may_5.html

QUESTION 11
Which two are properties of the organizational unit? (Choose two.)
A. work days
B. calendar
C. language
D. tax jurisdiction
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/suarc/setup_org_units_add_120xd0591c49.html


QUESTION 12
To which do you assign Holiday Rules?
A. profiles
B. calendars
C. organizational units
D. periods
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcile-cloud/suarc/setup_holiday_rules_create_112xd058af2d.html

QUESTION 13
You want to require that preparers answer a question certifying that they followed the company accounting policies in
preparing the reconciliation.
Where do you add the question?
A. to the match type
B. to the profile
C. to the reconciliation
D. to the format
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/account-reconcilecloud/suarc/GUID-52A3F1EF-7D3541F5-A284-861268631470.pdf (5-18)

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QUESTION 1
You are connected using SQL* Plus to a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA privileges and execute
the following sequence statements: What is the result of the last SET CONTAINER statement and why is it so?

1Z0-062 exam questions-q1

A. It succeeds because the PDB_ADMIN user has the required privileges.
B. It fails because common users are unable to use the SET CONTAINER statement.
C. It fails because local users are unable to use the SET CONTAINER statement.
D. If fails because the SET CONTAINER statement cannot be used with PDB$SEED as the target pluggable database
(PDB).
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Your database is configured for ARCHIVELOG mode, and a daily full database backup is taken. RMAN is configured to
perform control file autobackup.
In which three scenarios do you need media recovery? (Choose three.)
A. loss of all the copies of the control file
B. loss of all the inactive online redo log group members
C. loss of a data file that belongs to the active undo tablespace
D. loss of data files that belong to the SYSTEM tablespace
E. logical corruption of data that is caused by a wrong transaction
F. abnormal termination of the database instance
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 3
Your multitenant container database has three pluggable databases (PDBs): PDB1, PDB2, and PDB3.
Which two RMAN commands may be; used to back up only the PDB1 pluggable database? (Choose two.)
A. BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the root container
B. BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the PDB1 container
C. BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the PDB1 container
D. BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the boot container
E. BACKUP PLUGGABLE database PDB1 while connected to PDB2
Correct Answer: AC
To perform operations on a single PDB, you can connect as target either to the root or directly to the PDB.
*
(A) If you connect to the root, you must use the PLUGGABLE DATABASE syntax in your RMAN commands. For
example, to back up a PDB, you use the BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE command.
*
(C)If instead you connect directly to a PDB, you can use the same commands that you would use when connecting to a
non-CDB. For example, to back up a PDB, you would use the BACKUP DATABASE command.

QUESTION 4
You are about to plug a multi-terabyte non-CDB into an existing multitenant container database (CDB) as a pluggable
database (PDB).
The characteristics of the non-CDB are as follows:

Version: Oracle Database 12c Releases 1 64-bit

Character set: WE8ISO8859P15

National character set: AL16UTF16

O/S: Oracle Linux6 64-bit
The characteristics of the CDB are as follows:

Version: Oracle Database 12c Release 1 64-bit

Character set: AL32UTF8

O/S: Oracle Linux 6 64-bit
Which technique should you use to minimize down time while plugging this non-CDB into the CDB?
A. Transportable database
B. Transportable tablespace
C. Data Pump full export / import
D. The DBMS_PDB package
E. RMAN
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A database runs in ARCHIVELOG mode.
Dally full database backups are taken with RMAN which is configured to perform control file autobackup.
The control file and redo log files are multiplexed.
In which two cases is media recovery required? (Choose two.)
A. loss of a data file that belongs to the active undo tablespace
B. physical corruption of data
C. loss of one copy of the control file
D. loss of one member of the active redo log group
E. loss of all members of an inactive redo log group
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 6
SALES is a valid TNS entry referring to: Hostname: HOST01
Port: 1521 Service_name: SALES_SRV You issue this command: $ tnsping SALES Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. It validates that there is a listener on HOST01 port 1521.
B. It validates that SALES is a valid TNSNAMES entry reachable by the configured name resolution method.
C. It validates that SALES_SRV service is active in any database instance on HOST01.
D. It validates that a SALES_SRV database on HOST01 is open.
E. It validates that SALES_SRV service is active in a specific database instance on HOST01.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 7
Examine the command: SQL> CONNECT hr/[email protected]
Which two configurations allow this command to execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. In the tnsnames.ora file, the SERVICE_NAME value of CONNECT_DATA should be explicitly suffixed with the
domain name.
B. The SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter should contain the name orcl in the database host.
C. The orcl TNS alias should be defined such that it is resolvable by a client running on the database host.
D. The orcl TNS alias should be defined in the tnsnames.ora file on both the client and the database host.
E. The TNS_ADMIN environment variable should be set to orcl on the client.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Examine the structure of the sales table, which is stored in a locally managed tablespace with Automatic Segment
Space Management (ASSM) enabled.

1Z0-062 exam questions-q8

 You want to perform online segment shrink to reclaim fragmented free space below the high water mark. What should
you ensure before the start of the operation?
A. Row movement is enabled.
B. Referential integrity constraints for the table are disabled.
C. No queries are running on this table.
D. Extra disk space equivalent to the size of the segment is available in the tablespace.
E. No pending transaction exists on the table.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know which change caused this
performance difference.
Which method or feature should you use?
A. Compare Period ADDM report
B. AWR Compare Period report
C. Active Session History (ASH) report
D. Taking a new snapshot and comparing it with a preserved snapshot
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your database supports an online transaction processing (OLTP) application. The application is undergoing some major
schema changes, such as addition of new indexes and materialized views. You want to check the impact of these
changes on workload performance.
What should you use to achieve this?
A. Database replay
B. SQL Tuning Advisor
C. SQL Access Advisor
D. SQL Performance Analyzer
E. Automatic Workload Repository compare reports
Correct Answer: D
You can use the SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze the SQL performance impact of any type of system change.
Examples of common system changes include: ?Database upgrades ?Configuration changes to the operating system,
hardware, or database ?Database initialization parameter changes ?Schema changes, such as adding new indexes or
materialized views ?Gathering optimizer statistics ?SQL tuning actions, such as creating SQL profiles
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28318/intro.htm#CNCPT961
QUESTION 11
You use a recovery catalog for maintaining your database backups.
You execute the following command:
$rman TARGET / CATALOG rman / [email protected]
RMAN > BACKUP VALIDATE DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Corrupted blocks, if any, are repaired.
B. Checks are performed for physical corruptions.
C. Checks are performed for logical corruptions.
D. Checks are performed to confirm whether all database files exist in correct locations
E. Backup sets containing both data files and archive logs are created.
Correct Answer: BD
B (not C): You can validate that all database files and archived redo logs can be backed up by running a
command as follows:
RMAN> BACKUP VALIDATE DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;
This form of the command would check for physical corruption. To check for logical corruption,
RMAN> BACKUP VALIDATE CHECK LOGICAL DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;
D: You can use the VALIDATE keyword of the BACKUP command to do the following:
Check datafiles for physical and logical corruption
Confirm that all database files exist and are in the correct locations.
Note: You can use the VALIDATE option of the BACKUP command to verify that database files exist and are in the
correct locations (D), and have no physical or logical corruptions that would prevent RMAN from creating backups of
them. When performing a BACKUP…VALIDATE, RMAN reads the files to be backed up in their entirety, as it would
during a real backup. It does not, however, actually produce any backup sets or image copies (Not A, not E).

QUESTION 12
You must upgrade your Oracle 11g to Database to Oracle 12c R2. Which method can you use?
A. Perform a rolling upgrade.
B. Perform a direct upgrade by running the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA).
C. Use Enterprise Manager Express.
D. Use SQL*Developer
E. Use the Database Creation Assistant (DBCA) to upgrade
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://oracle-base.com/articles/12c/upgrading-to-12c


QUESTION 13
You are connected to a pluggable database (PDB) as a common user with DBA privileges.
The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is PDB_MODIFIABLE. You execute the following:
SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET STATISTICS_LEVEL = ALL SID = `*\\’ SCOPE = SPFILE;
Which is true about the result of this command?
A. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever this PDB is re-opened.
B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to ALL whenever any PDB is reopened.
C. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever the multitenant container database (CDB) is restarted.
D. Nothing happens; because there is no SPFILE for each PDB, the statement is ignored.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which statements is incorrect with regards to the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Notifications service?
A. Notification topics may be assigned as the action performed by an OCI Events configuration.
B. OCI Alarms can be configured to publish to a notification topic when triggered.
C. An OCI function may subscribe to a notification topic.
D. A subscription can forward notifications to an HTTPS endpoint.
E. A subscription can integrate with PagerDuty events.
F. It may be used to receive an email each time an OCI Autonomous Database backup is completed.
Correct Answer: F


QUESTION 2
In the sample Kubernetes manifest file below, what annotations should you add to create a private load balancer In
oracle Cloud infrastructure Container Engine for Kubermetes?

1z0-1084-20 exam questions-q2

A. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-private:”true”
B. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-private: “true” service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-subnet1:
“ocid1.subnet.oc1..aaaaa….vdfw”
C. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-internal: “true”
D. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-internal: “true” service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-subnet1:
“ocid1.subnet.oc1..aaaaa….vdfw”
Correct Answer: D
https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/ContEng/Tasks/contengcreatingloadbalancer.htm?
TocPath=Services%7CExample%2 0Network%20Resource%20Configuration%7CUpgrading%20the%
20Version%20of%20Kubernetes%2 0Running%20on%20a%20Master%20Node%7C_____2 Creating Internal Load
Balancers in Public and Private Subnets You can create Oracle Cloud Infrastructure load balancers to control access to services running on a cluster: When you create a \\’custom\\’ cluster, you select an existing VCN that contains the
network resources to be used by the new cluster. If you want to use load balancers to control traffic into the VCN, you
select existing public or private subnets in that VCN to host the load balancers. When you create a \\’quick cluster\\’, the
VCN that\\’s automatically created contains a public regional subnet to host a load balancer. If you want to host load
balancers in private subnets, you can add private subnets to the VCN later.
Alternatively, you can create an internal load balancer service in a cluster to enable other programs running in the same
VCN as the cluster to access services in the cluster. You can host internal load balancers in public subnets and private
subnets. To create an internal load balancer hosted on a public subnet, add the following annotation in the metadata
section of the manifest file: service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-internal: “true” To create an internal load
balancer hosted on a private subnet, add both following annotations in the metadata section of the manifest file:
service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-internal: “true” service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancersubnet1:
“ocid1.subnet.oc1..aaaaaa….vdfw” where ocid1.subnet.oc1..aaaaaa….vdfw is the OCID of the private subnet.

QUESTION 3
You created a pod called “nginx” and its state is set to Pending. Which command can you run to see the reason why the
“nginx” pod is in the pending state?
A. kubect2 logs pod nginx
B. kubect2 describe pod nginx
C. kubect2 get pod nginx
D. Through the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Console
Correct Answer: B
Debugging Pods
The first step in debugging a pod is taking a look at it. Check the current state of the pod and recent events
with the following command:
kubectl describe pods ${POD_NAME}
Look at the state of the containers in the pod. Are they all Running? Have there been recent restarts?
Continue debugging depending on the state of the pods.
My pod stays pending
If a pod is stuck in Pending it means that it can not be scheduled onto a node. Generally this is because
there are insufficient resources of one type or another that prevent scheduling. Look at the output of the kubectl
describe … command above. There should be messages from the scheduler about why it can not schedule your pod.
https://kubernetes.io/docs/tasks/debug-application-cluster/debug-pod-replication-controller/

QUESTION 4
How can you find details of the tolerations field for the sample YAML file below?

1z0-1084-20 exam questions-q4

A. kubectl list pod.spec.tolerations
B. kubectl explain pod.spec.tolerations
C. kubectl describe pod.spec tolerations
D. kubectl get pod.spec.tolerations
Correct Answer: B
kubectl explain to List the fields for supported resources
https://kubernetes.io/docs/reference/generated/kubectl/kubectl-commands#explain

QUESTION 5
You are developing a serverless application with Oracle Functions. You have created a function in compartment named
prod. When you try to invoke your function you get the following error. Error invoking function. status: 502 message:
dhcp options ocid1.dhcpoptions.oc1.phx.aaaaaaaac… does not exist or Oracle Functions is not authorized to use it How
can you resolve this error?
A. Create a policy:Allow function-family to use virtual-network-family in compartment prod
B. Create a policy:Allow any-user to manage function-family and virtual-network-family in compartment prod
C. Create a policy:Allow service FaaS to use virtual-network-family in compartment prod
D. Deleting the function and redeploying it will fix the problem
Correct Answer: C
Invoking a function returns a FunctionInvokeSubnetNotAvailable message and a 502 error (due to a DHCP Options issue)
When you invoke a function that you\\’ve deployed to Oracle Functions, you might see the following error
message:
{“code”:”FunctionInvokeSubnetNotAvailable”,”message”:”dhcp options ocid1.dhcpoptions…….. does not
exist or Oracle Functions is not authorized to use it”}
Fn: Error invoking function. status: 502 message: dhcp options ocid1.dhcpoptions…….. does not exist or
Oracle Functions is not authorized to use it If you see this error:
Double-check that a policy has been created to give Oracle Functions access to network resources.
Service Access to Network Resources
When Oracle Functions users create a function or application, they have to specify a VCN and a subnet in
which to create them. To enable the Oracle Functions service to create the function or application in the
specified VCN and subnet, you must create an identity policy to grant the Oracle Functions service access
to the compartment to which the network resources belong. To create a policy to give the Oracle Functions
service access to network resources:
Log in to the Console as a tenancy administrator.
Create a new policy in the root compartment:
Open the navigation menu. Under Governance and Administration, go to Identity and click Policies. Follow
the instructions in To create a policy, and give the policy a name (for example, functions- service-networkaccess).
Specify a policy statement to give the Oracle Functions service access to the network resources in the
compartment:
Allow service FaaS to use virtual-network-family in compartment For example:
Allow service FaaS to use virtual-network-family in compartment acme-network Click Create.
Double-check that the set of DHCP Options in the VCN specified for the application still exists.
 

QUESTION 6
Your Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE) administrator has created an
OKE cluster with one node pool in a public subnet. You have been asked to provide a log file from one of
the nodes for troubleshooting purpose.
Which step should you take to obtain the log file?
A. ssh into the node using public key.
B. ssh into the nodes using private key.
C. It is impossible since OKE is a managed Kubernetes service.
D. Use the username open and password to login.
Correct Answer: B
Kubernetes cluster is a group of nodes. The nodes are the machines running applications. Each node can be a physical
machine or a virtual machine. The node\\’s capacity (its number of CPUs and amount of memory) is defined when the
node is created. A cluster comprises: – one or more master nodes (for high availability, typically there will be a number
of master nodes) – one or more worker nodes (sometimes known as minions) Connecting to Worker Nodes Using SSH
If you provided a public SSH key when creating the node pool in a cluster, the public key is installed on all worker nodes
in the cluster. On UNIX and UNIX-like platforms (including Solaris and Linux), you can then connect through SSH to the
worker nodes using the ssh utility (an SSH client) to perform administrative tasks. Note the following instructions
assume the UNIX machine you use to connect to the worker node: Has the ssh utility installed. Has access to the SSH
private key file paired with the SSH public key that was specified when the cluster was created. How to connect to
worker nodes using SSH depends on whether you specified public or private subnets for the worker nodes when
defining the node pools in the cluster. Connecting to Worker Nodes in Public Subnets Using SSH Before you can
connect to a worker node in a public subnet using SSH, you must define an ingress rule in the subnet\\’s security list to
allow SSH access. The ingress rule must allow access to port 22 on worker nodes from source 0.0.0.0/0 and any source
port To connect to a worker node in a public subnet through SSH from a UNIX machine using the ssh utility: 1- Find out
the IP address of the worker node to which you want to connect. You can do this in a number of ways: Using kubectl. If
you haven\\’t already done so, follow the steps to set up the cluster\\’s kubeconfig configuration file and (if necessary)
set the KUBECONFIG environment variable to point to the file. Note that you must set up your own kubeconfig file. You
cannot access a cluster using a kubeconfig file that a different user set up. See Setting Up Cluster Access. Then in a
terminal window, enter kubectl get nodes to see the public IP addresses of worker nodes in node pools in the cluster.
Using the Console. In the Console, display the Cluster List page and then select the cluster to which the worker node
belongs. On the Node Pools tab, click the name of the node pool to which the worker node belongs. On the Nodes tab,
you see the public IP address of every worker node in the node pool. Using the REST API. Use the ListNodePools
operation to see the public IP addresses of worker nodes in a node pool. 2- In the terminal window, enter ssh [email protected] to
connect to the worker node, where is the IP address of the worker node that you made a note of earlier. For example,
you might enter ssh [email protected] Note that if the SSH private key is not stored in the file or in the path that the ssh
utility expects (for example, the ssh utility might expect the private key to be stored in ~/.ssh/id_rsa), you must explicitly
specify the private key filename and location in one of two ways: Use the -i option to specify the filename and location of
the private key. For example, ssh -i ~/.ssh/ my_keys/my_host_key_filename [email protected] Add the private key
filename and location to an SSH
configuration file, either the client configuration file (~/.ssh/config) if it exists, or the system-wide client
configuration file (/etc/ssh/ssh_config). For example, you might add the following:
Host 192.0.2.254 IdentityFile ~/.ssh/my_keys/my_host_key_filename
For more about the ssh utility\\’s configuration file, enter man ssh_config Note also that permissions on the
private key file must allow you read/write/execute access, but prevent other users from accessing the file.
For example, to set appropriate permissions, you might enter chmod 600 ~/.ssh/my_keys/
my_host_key_filename. If permissions are not set correctly and the private key file is accessible to other
users, the ssh utility will simply ignore the private key file.

QUESTION 7
What are two of the main reasons you would choose to implement a serverless architecture?
A. No need for integration testing
B. Reduced operational cost
C. Improved In-function state management
D. Automatic horizontal scaling
E. Easier to run long-running operations
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 8
You have deployed a Python application on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Engine for Kubernetes. However,
during testing you found a bug that you rectified and created a new Docker image. You need to make sure that if this
new Image doesn\\’t work then you can roll back to the previous version. Using kubectl, which deployment strategies
should you choose?
A. Rolling Update
B. Canary Deployment
C. Blue/Green Deployment
D. A/B Testing
Correct Answer: C
Canary deployments are a pattern for rolling out releases to a subset of users or servers. The idea is to first deploy the
change to a small subset of servers, test it, and then roll the change out to the rest of the servers. The canary
deployment serves as an early warning indicator with less impact on downtime: if the canary deployment fails, the rest
of the servers aren\\’t impacted. Blue-green deployment is a technique that reduces downtime and risk by running two
identical production environments called Blue and Green. At any time, only one of the environments is live, with the live
environment serving all production traffic. For this example, Blue is currently live and Green is idle. A/B testing is a way
to compare two versions of a single variable, typically by testing a subject\\’s response to variant A against variant B,
and determining which of the two variants is more effective A rolling update offers a way to deploy the new version of
your application gradually across your cluster.

QUESTION 9
You are a consumer of Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Streaming service. Which API should you use to read and
process the stream?
A. ListMessages
B. GetMessages
C. GetObject
D. ReadMessages
Correct Answer: B
https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Streaming/Concepts/streamingoverview.htm Building consumers to
read and process messages from a stream using the GetMessages API.

QUESTION 10
A leading insurance firm is hosting its customer portal in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Container Engine for
Kubernetes with an OCI Autonomous Database. Their support team discovered a lot of SQL injection attempts and
cross-site scripting attacks to the portal, which is starting to affect the production environment. What should they
implement to mitigate this attack?
A. Network Security Lists
B. Network Security Groups
C. Network Security Firewall
D. Web Application Firewall
Correct Answer: D
Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Web Application Firewall (WAF) is a cloud-based, Payment Card Industry (PCI) compliant,
global security service that protects applications from malicious and unwanted internet traffic. WAF can protect any
internet facing endpoint, providing consistent rule enforcement across a customer\\’s applications. WAF provides you
with the ability to create and manage rules for internet threats including Cross- Site Scripting (XSS), SQL Injection and
other OWASP-defined vulnerabilities. Unwanted bots can be mitigated while tactically allowed desirable bots to enter.
Access rules can limit based on geography or the signature of the request.

QUESTION 11
A pod security policy (PSP) is implemented in your Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Engine for the Kubernetes cluster
Which rule can you use to prevent a container from running as root using PSP?
A. NoPrivilege
B. RunOnlyAsUser
C. MustRunAsNonRoot
D. forbiddenRoot
Correct Answer: C
# Require the container to run without root privileges.
rule: \\’MustRunAsNonRoot\\’
Reference: https://kubernetes.io/docs/concepts/policy/pod-security-policy/

QUESTION 12
You are working on a serverless DevSecOps application using Oracle Functions. You have deployed a Python function
that uses the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Python SDK to stop any OC1 Compute instance that does not comply
with your corporate security standards There are 3 non compliant OCI Compute instances. However, when you invoke
this function none of the instances were stopped. How should you troubleshoot this?
A. There is no way to troubleshoot a function running on Oracle Functions.
B. Enable function logging in the OCI console, include some print statements in your function code and use logs to
troubleshoot this.
C. Enable function remote debugging in the OCI console, and use your favorite IDE to inspect the function running on
Oracle Functions.
D. Enable function tracing in the OCI console, and go to OCI Monitoring console to see the function stack trace.
Correct Answer: B
Storing and Viewing Function Logs When a function you\\’ve deployed to Oracle Functions is invoked, you\\’ll typically
want to store the function\\’s logs so that you can review them later. You specify where Oracle Functions stores a
function\\’s logs by setting a logging policy for the application containing the function. You set application logging
policies in the Console. Whenever a function is invoked in this application, its logs are stored according to the logging
policy that you specified. you can view the logs for a function that have been stored in a storage bucket in Oracle Cloud
Infrastructure Object Storage https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/enus/iaas/Content/Functions/Tasks/functionsexportingfunctionlogfiles.htm

QUESTION 13
You have written a Node.js function and deployed it to Oracle Functions. Next, you need to call this
function from a microservice written in Java deployed on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Container
Engine for Kubernetes (OKE).
Which can help you to achieve this?
A. Use the OCI CLI with kubect1 to invoke the function from the microservice.
B. Oracle Functions does not allow a microservice deployed on OKE to invoke a function.
C. OKE does not allow a microservice to invoke a function from Oracle Functions.
D. Use the OCI Java SDK to invoke the function from the microservice.
Correct Answer: D
You can invoke a function that you\\’ve deployed to Oracle Functions in different ways:
Using the Fn Project CLI.
Using the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI.
Using the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure SDKs.
Making a signed HTTP request to the function\\’s invoke endpoint. Every function has an invoke endpoint.

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Welcome to Oracle 1z0-1081-20 practice test online

QUESTION 1
In Data Management, when creating a member mapping for the Sales account, the following script is entered. UD5
refers to a Product custom dimension:
WHEN UD5 LIKE `CAR_%\\’ THEN `AUTO_SALES\\’
Which statement is true?
A. The script will not work since the UD5 member referenced does not start with FCCS_
B. The script will work if the scrips is referenced in the Explicit mapping type with #SQL as the target.
C. The script can be eliminated by using a multi-dim map on the Product dimension that also looks for the account
Sales.
D. The script will not work since Data Management does not support scripting.
E. The script will work if the script is referenced in the In mapping type with #SQL as the target.
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true regarding the Copy Data function?
A. You can copy data for historical rate and amount overrides.
B. You cannot select which Account members to copy.
C. You can select which Consolidation dimension member to copy.
D. When you select the Regular Data option, journals data is included.
Correct Answer: AD
You can copy these types of data:
Regular Data (including journals)
Override Data ?rates and amounts entered on the Override Rates form for historical rate override accounts
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/financial-consolidation-cloud/agfcc/data_copy.html

QUESTION 3
What are two important first steps in initially setting up Task Manager?
A. Set up Users.
B. Define system settings such as Organization units, Holiday rules and Task attachment size.
C. Assign tasks to users.
D. Create a schedule and set it to Open status.
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/financial-consolidation-cloud/agfcc/cm_close_process_overview.html


QUESTION 4
What member of the Currency dimension is associated with the Entity Input member of the Consolidation dimension?
A. Parent Currency
B. Local Currency
C. Base Currency
D. Entity Currency
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.platformspecialists.com/blogs-case-studies/understanding-consolidations-in-fccs


QUESTION 5
Which three combinations of dimensions could be valid for a Financial Consolidation and Close business process?
A. Multi-GAAP, Data Type, Intra-company
B. Data Source, Consolidation, View
C. Period, Year, Entity
D. Currency, Movement, Scenario
E. Value, Entity, Account
Correct Answer: BCD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/enterprise-performance-management-common/erpia/fccs_supported_dimensions_104x1e19a4b9.html

QUESTION 6
How do you enable multiple currencies within a Financial Consolidation and Close business process?
A. In the metadata editor, in the properties tab for the Currency dimension, select Enabled.
B. During application creation, select the Multicurrency option of Yes.
C. Enable a dimension for Currency after application creation via a metadata load.
D. In the metadata editor, enter a currency in the Entity Currency field for each entity.
Correct Answer: C
Enable a dimension for Currency after application creation via a Metadata load.
Reference: https://alexandertechniqueworkshops.com/5dmqxf1u/55aba3-fccs-currency-dimension


QUESTION 7
Which two are required fields when registering a source system in Data Management?
A. Source System Type
B. Cloud Type
C. Drill Through URL
D. Name
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/enterprise-performance-management-common/erpia/registering_filebased_source_systems.html


QUESTION 8
When designing a report in Financial Reporting Studio, which two are insertable report objects?
A. Chart
B. Grid
C. Header
D. Footer
Correct Answer: AB
Report objects include: Grids Text
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/enterprise-performance-management-common/frweb/GUID-3559E92E-0EC6-42F8-BB48-97875171067E.pdf

QUESTION 9
Once metadata is updated and the database refresh has completed successfully, how will the status for all entities be
listed via the default Data Status grid?
A. Impacted
B. Need Translate
C. OK
D. System Changed (SC)
Correct Answer: D
The entity\\’s calculation status must be OK, No Data, or System Change. You cannot lock an entity with Impacted
calculation status.
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/financial-consolidation-cloud/agfcc/
locking_and_unlocking_entities.html


QUESTION 10
A company based in the United Kingdom has their currency set to GBP. The company collects data from a United
States based subsidiary. The subsidiary\\’s functional currency is USD.
Which two items facilitate the reporting of the subsidiary\\’s Common Stock balance at a historical rate in the GBP
reporting currency?
A. Rate data for Common Stock must be loaded or entered in the Override Rates form.
B. Common Stock must have an Exchange Rate Type set to Historical Rate Override.
C. Common Stock must have a Data Storage property set to Never Share.
D. USD must be created as a reporting currency.
E. The subsidiary must have a parent entity with a GBP currency.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 11
Which statement correctly describes what happens to parent entities during consolidation?
A. The changes in the relational database are synced to the underlying Essbase cube.
B. Data from the FCCS_Contribution Consolidation dimension member of the child entities is aggregated and stored in
the FCCS_Entity Consolidation member of the parent entities.
C. For each child entity, the period Opening Balance is subtracted from the period Closing Balance to determine the
current period change value, and the values are aggregated the FCCS_Entity Consolidation member of the parent.
D. Since parent entities are tagged as dynamic calc, the consolidation has no effect on the entity dimension.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What will Financial Consolidation and Close do when aggregating data for a member that is set as an expense type
account to a parent that is set as an income type account?
A. This setting does not affect aggregation to the parent.
B. You cannot load data to this account.
C. Add amounts aggregated to the parent.
D. Subtract amounts aggregated to the parent.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/financial-consolidation-cloud/agfcc/aggregation_consolidation_operator.html


QUESTION 13
A company would like to capture Fixed Asset additions and disposals within the Movement dimension.
Which three tasks are necessary to achieve this goal?
A. Add custom members for Additions and Disposals as children of FCCS_Mvmts_CapitalExpenditures.
B. Build a custom Movement member for Fixed Assets with child members for Additions and Disposals.
C. Load detailed Fixed Asset data to Movement members.
D. Add custom Movement members to the FCCS_CashFlow hierarchy.
E. Create a Roll Forward in the account dimension.
Correct Answer: CDE

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Welcome to Oracle 1Z0-1073-20 practice test online

QUESTION 1
You set up an item organization and an inventory organization as part of your customer\\’s requirement. Your customer
has, by mistake, performed a receipt transaction in the item organization instead of the inventory organization. How wiil
you rectify the error?
A. Perform a correct receipt transaction and receive the item in the correct organization.
B. Perform a return of item and receive the item again in the correct organization.
C. It is not possible to receive item in the item organization.
D. Perform a new receipt in the correct organization and retain the stock in item organization because it does not affect
any other operation.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Your company has multiple inventory organizations where goods are transferred internally. A user has
created a new organization but the new organization is unavailable when creating an interorganization
transfer.
What is the missing setup?
A. The destination organization transfer type is In Transit.
B. Inventory organization data access for users is not set up.
C. Interorganization Parameters are not set up between the organizations.
D. The source and destination organization doesn\\’t belong to the same legal entity.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Your are in the process of analyzing the demand and supply schedules for the item based on high level
reservations.
Identify the reservation document type that would be applicable to both supply as well as demand.
A. Account Alias
B. Movement Request
C. Requisition
D. On Hand
E. Work Order
F. Transfer Order
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 4
On the Supply Lines Overview page, the deviations in supply type chart show a supply line status of
exception.
What action must you take?
A. This indicates that supply line quantities are available but the quality is not up to the mark, so the quality issue must
be resolved.
B. This indicates that supply line quantities are not available, so inventory must be procured.
C. This indicates that supply line quantities are less than required, so additional quantities must be procured to meet the
requirement.
D. This indicates that supply line has an exception in manufacturing goods, so the supply line must be changed.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which attribute value allows usage of common inventory for project specific demand?
A. Allow use of common supplies : No and Hard Pegging Level : Project Group
B. Allow use of common supplies : Null and Hard Pegging Level : Project Group
C. Allow use of common supplies : No and Hard Pegging Level : Project and Task
D. Allow use of common supplies : Null and Hard Pegging Level : None
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
Your organization is planning for a periodic counting of individual items throughout the year. As part of this activity, the
user has loaded items to the cycle count but some of the items are not being considered when count schedules and
count sequences are generated. Which reason explains why the items are not being considered?
A. The Include in Schedule option is not selected to include the item for auto-scheduling.
B. The Cycle Count Enabled flag is not selected for the item.
C. The approval controls are not set up.
D. The Cycle Count Enabled flag is not selected for the inventory organization.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
The Applications Development Framework Desktop Integration (ADFdi) user interface is supported in Oracle Fusion
Receiving, Inventory Management, and Shipping products. Identify four ADFdi user interfaces that are supported.
A. Review Receipts Interface
B. Manage Inventory Transaction Correction in Spreadsheet
C. Review Count Interface Records
D. Manage Lot/Serial Interface
E. Upload ASN or ASBN
F. Manage Shipment Message Interface
Correct Answer: ABDF

QUESTION 8
Your company is an automobile spares manufacturing organization, which follows a discrete process. It has its own
manufacturing and distribution centers located globally. It has these business units: US – USA business unit CAN –
Canadian business unit UK – UK business unit MX – Mexican business unit IND – India business unit SPA – Spain
business unit FRA – France business unit NL – Netherlands business unit GER – Germany business unit These are the
inventory organizations that exist in each business unit: Inventory Org – business unit
GM (Master Org) – US US1 (Child Org) – US US2 (Child Org) – US CA1 (Child Org) – CAN MX1 (Child Org) – MX IN1
(Child Org) – IND SP1 (Child Org) – SPA FR1 (Child Org) – FRA NL1 (Child Org) – NL DE1 (Child Org) – GER
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Items defined in the GM organization can be assigned to US1,US2, NL1, and MX1 inventory organizations.
B. You can define an item in the IN1 inventory organization and assign it to the DE1 inventory organization.
C. Item organizations are also supported to serve as inventory organizations.
D. Operational Attributes can be controlled only at the Master Level.
E. All inventory organizations do not need to be in the same business unit to assign items.
F. Items cannot be assigned to inventory organizations across business units.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
While performing the task “Create Chart of Accounts, Ledger, Legal Entities, and Business Units in Spreadsheet Task”,
you did not provide the functional currency; however, you mentioned that the legal entity country is the United States of
America. What will be the functional currency of the ledger you are defining?
A. It is mandatory to provide functional currency, because ledger cannot be defined without functional currency. The
system will throw an error upon processing.
B. It is mandatory to provide functional currency because ledger cannot be defined without functional currency. The
system will throw an error upon upload of the spreadsheet because all required fields are not populated.
C. The system will pick the first available currency from the List of Values.
D. The system will ask the user to provide functional currency at the time of uploading the spreadsheet if it is not
provided in the first place.
E. The system will automatically pick “USD” as functional currency from the legal entity country.
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 10
You have orders that were due for shipping last week, but as of now they have not been shipped. Which dashboard
should you check at the end of the day to determine which orders have been shipped?
A. Past Due, Completed Today
B. Due Today, Not Completed
C. Past Due, Not Completed
D. Past Due Shipments
E. Orders Completed in Full
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 11
What are the two scenarios that allow you to update the lot control option for an item? (Choose two.)
A. Item has zero on-hand quantity.
B. No open internal order exists for the item.
C. No open sales order exists for the item.
D. Item material status is Active.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
Your customer wants you to restrict the values of Receivables Transaction Type for their three business units. You
created three reference data sets for each business unit. However, the user is still able to see the values in the
Transaction Type list of values which are not defined in the business unit data set.
What is the reason for this behavior?
A. Reference Data Sets cannot be used uniquely across business units. They can only be used at the Legal Entity
level.
B. The user is seeing the values defined in the common set. The values should be removed from the common set.
C. The user has multiple Business Unit Roles and, therefore, is able to see additional values.
D. Receivables Transaction Types are common across business units.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
A customer has one Business Unit, two Legal Entities, and each have eight warehouses (defined as Inventory Orgs).
While trying to set up Cost Organizations for each of these Legal Entities, you were unable to perform the mandatory
step of assigning the Profit Center Business Unit for one set of eight Inventory Organizations; however, you could do it
for the other set. What is the reason for this?
A. The Business Unit is not enabled for Costing.
B. There is no Business Unit associated with the Legal Entity.
C. The Legal Entity Setup is incomplete.
D. There is no Inventory Validation Organization defined.
E. The General Ledger is not associated with Business Unit.
Correct Answer: B

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Welcome to Oracle 1Z0-1071-20 practice test online

QUESTION 1
You want the flow to navigate to the cancel transition immediately after the maximum number of failed
attempts are exceeded in the System.ResolveEntities Components.
Which option must you use?
A. Set cancelPolicy to “immediate”.
B. There is no such option in system.ResolveEntitis
C. Set cancelPolicy to “true” .
D. Set cancelPolicy to “lastEntity” .
Correct Answer: A
https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/digital-assistant/use-chatbot/built-components-propertiestransitions-andusage.html#GUID-259C152F-3F53-4422-B89C-6FA7F01C1762 cancelPolicy Determines
the timing of the cancel transition:
immediate–Immediately after the allotted maxPrompts attempts have been met for an entity in the bag.
lastEntity–When the last entity in the bag has been matched with a value.


QUESTION 2
When testing your skill, you notice that two of its intents consistently rank as the top two, resolving within just a few
points of each other.
Given the unpredictable nature of which intent gets the top score, what would you do to allow the skill user to choose
the correct intent?
A. Change the Confidence Win Margin so that both intents are offered to the user.
B. Change the Confidence Threshold during your testing until the correct intent always wins.
C. For each intent, create an entity of phrases that are distinct to each intent, and add the appropriate entity to the
corresponding intent.
D. Keep adding training data until you get a predictable result every time.
E. Change the Explicit Invocation Threshold to zero to ensure that the correct intent is picked up when the user
mentions the name of the intent.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true the purpose of the compose bag entity item Out of Order Extraction property?
A. It should not be used for String entity items.
B. When set to True, an entity item value can be updated when prompting for a different entity item value.
C. Only set to True, an entity item value can be updated when prompting for a different entity item value.
D. Only when set to true can entity values be specific in any order in the initial user input.
E. When set to True, an entity item cannot be resolve until a dependent entity item is first resolved.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 4
You want your skill to transfer conversations over to Oracle Service Cloud customer service representatives. Which type
of channel do you create to enable the skill to do this?
A. Applications
B. System
C. Agent Integrations
D. Users
Correct Answer: C
https://docs.oracle.com/en/solutions/handoff-skill-to-live-agent/transfer-users-skill-botliveagent1.html#GUID-237F078E-94FF-4A4B-9B70-CA04D619C49F

QUESTION 5
You install Oracle Bost Node SDK from GitHub to develop a new custom component service. Which command, when
issued on a command line or terminal window, creates a new custom component service project in the current
directory?
A. bots-node-sdk service
B. bots-node-sdk service init
C. bots-node-sdknpm install
D. bots-node-sdkinit
Correct Answer: D
Create the Custom Component Package Use the SDK\\’s command line interface (CLI) to create the necessary files and
directory structure. To create the package folder, and the necessary contents, type the following command in a terminal
window: bots-node-sdkinit
https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/digital-assistant/doc/backend-integration1.html

QUESTION 6
When a user interacts with one skill within a digital assistant but then enters input that may be relevant to another skill,
the digital assistant generally presents users a prompt to confirm whether they really want to switch to the other skill,
even if the input is completely irrelevant to the current skill. How can you reduce the frequency with which the user
encounters these confirmation prompts in a digital assistant?
A. In the dialog assistant, reduce the value of the Confidence Win Margin setting.
B. In each skill, reduce the value of the Confidence Win Margin setting.
C. In the digital assistant, reduce the value of the Interrupt Prompt Confidence Threshold setting.
D. In the digital assistant, add more utterances for the unresoivedintent system intent.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
An input component references an entity-type variable from its variable property and does not have the maxPrompts
property set. Which two statements describe valid options to help users deal with validation errors?
A. You can use the alternatePrompt property for user input components to display alternative prompts.
B. You can use the onlnvaliduserlnput property on the System.commonResponse component to conditionally show or
hide UI controls.
C. You can use the system. invaliduserinput?booiean expression to detect a previously failed input validation and
display alternative prompts or additional UI controls.
D. You can use the user input component\\’s textReceived action transition to detect validation errors and to navigate to
a state in the dialog flow.
E. You can use the user input component\\’s cancel action transition to navigate to a different state in the dialog flow,
display a help message to the user, and navigate back into the dialog flow state that previously failed input validation.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 8
Which two components can be used in combination with composite bag entities to auto-generate skill responses and
flows from definitions saved in bag items?
A. System.ResolveEntities
B. System.Text
C. System.MatchEntity
D. System.CommonResponse
E. System.List
Correct Answer: AD
https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/digital-assistant/use-chatbot/entities1.html#GUID-603C4329DBBA-42C9-8783-6C27B45BA6A2

QUESTION 9
What happens after the skill output Welcome to our store\\’s chat bot!\\’\\’ in this dialog flow?

1Z0-1071-20 exam questions-q9

A. The skill displays “Welcome to our store\\’s chat bot!” again.
B. The skill goes to output2, outputs “You can ask me about what products we have in the store”, and then returns
control to the user.
C. The skill returns control to the user. After the user enters text, it goes to the intent state.
D. The skill returns control to the user. After the user enters text, it goes to output2 and outputs “You can ask me about
what products we have in the store.”
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
Intent has been configured with a composite bag entity. Which statement is FALSE?
A. The skill may allow users to update their previous input.
B. The conversation is entirely sequential, where users can only input values in the order determined by the dialog flow
definition.
C. The composite bag entity slots values as they are provided from the user input. It then prompts for other entity item
values.
D. The composite bag entity is typically resolved using a system.ResolveEntities component or a
system.commonResponse component.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Take a look at the output of a system.List component in the screenshot below, and note how one of the items includes a
comma (,).

1Z0-1071-20 exam questions-q11

A. options: [“Yes”,”No, please resend”,”Not sure”]
B. options: “Yes, No\u002C please resend. Not sure”
C. options: Yes, No\u002C please resend, Not sure
D. options: “\\’Yes\\’, \\’No, please resend\\’, \\’Not sure\\'”
E. options: [[Yes]. please resend]. [Not sure]]
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about using the OAuth2 client credential grant type in Oracle Digital Assistant are correct?
A. The OAuth2 client credential grant type does not require a bot user to authenticate and instead uses a shared clientld
and secret.
B. The user must be logged in to an identity service provider using his or her username and password to obtain a client
credential access token
C. You use the Oracle Digital Assistant Authentication Service with the system. 0Auth2client component to obtain a
client credential access token.
D. The client credential grant type requires the system.OAuth2AccountLink component to obtain a token that
propagates a user\\’s identity between distributed systems.
E. The OAuth2 client credential grant type uses the system. Webview built-in component to perform social media login.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 13
You are writing a dialog flow and you are at the end of the conversation. For the final state, you are not sure whether to
use a return transition or use a next transition that goes to the start of the dialog flow. Which statement is true?
A. The next and return transitions are the same and you can use them interchangeably.
B. The return transition goes to the start of the dialog flow and resets all variables, whereas next simply navigates.
C. The next transition automatically clears variables on navigation, whereas return doesn\\’t.
D. The next transition can only be used for forward navigation in the flow.
Correct Answer: D

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Welcome to Oracle 1Z0-1065-20 practice test online

QUESTION 1
While creating a Purchase Order, you observe that the system is defaulting Net 30 as the payment term instead of the
intended payment term Net 15.
Identify two ways to achieve the desired defaulting. (Choose two.)
A. Update Net 15 in procurement options and Net 30 for the supplier site.
B. Set Net 30 for the supplier site and leave the payment term blank in procurement options.
C. Update Net 15 in procurement options and leave the payment term blank for this supplier at all levels.
D. Set Net 15 for the supplier site.
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 2
When configuring the procurement business function document types, which two purchasing documents require change
order templates to be set? (Choose two.)
A. Requests for Information
B. Purchase Orders
C. Requests for Quotation
D. Agreements
E. Auctions
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 3
Your customer requires that any approved requisition needs to be reapproved whenever a buyer updates a catalog
requisition line during requisition processing.
What is the correct setup to fulfill this requirement? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Configure the PO Approval rule in such a way that buyer-modified requisition lines will go for approval again.
B. After requisition modification, a buyer needs to reassign the requisition line to the requisition authority for approval.
C. Configure Requisition Approval rule to include the Approval required for buyer modified lines condition.
D. In the Configure Requisitioning Business Function task, select Approval required for buyer modified lines.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
During the implementation, your customer wants to understand the key features of the two-stage Request For Quotation
(RFQ) available in Oracle Sourcing Cloud.
Which three are features of the two-stage RFQ? (Choose three.)
A. Response Visibility Blind
B. Two stage Evaluation
C. Response Visibility Open
D. Response Visibility is always Sealed
E. Open Auctions
F. Technical and Commercial Evaluation
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 5
To set up Project-Driven Supply Chain (PDSC), you enable the feature in the Manufacturing and Supply Chain Materials
Management offering.
What are two additional tasks that you also need to complete? (Choose two.)
A. Manage Inventory Organizations
B. Manage Project Expenditure Types
C. Manage Default Inventory Organizations
D. Manage Project Organization Classifications
E. Manage Inventory Types
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
In self-service procurement, you want to allow users to add in their home address for the delivery of certain items.
Which feature and task should you select? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Edit Address feature and Configure Purchasing Business Function task
B. Capture One-Time Address feature and Configure Requisitioning Business Function task
C. Update Address feature and Configure Self Service Business Function task
D. Manage Home Address feature and Configure Procurement Business Function task
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
An automobile parts manufacturer has decided to implement only the Cloud Purchasing product from the Oracle
Procurement Cloud pillar. Which setup component will not be required for this implementation? (Choose the best
answer.)
A. Document Styles
B. Procurement Agents
C. Purchasing Line Types
D. Procurement Business Function
E. Negotiation template
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 8
Your customer is using Cloud Supplier Qualification Management and Procurement Sourcing.
What three actions can the category manager take within a negotiation to solicit additional information from suppliers or
internal users? (Choose three.)
A. Copy the Supplier Qualification Area and use it as a requirement section.
B. Copy Supplier Qualification Questions in the negotiation as a requirement.
C. Create reusable Supplier Qualification questions directly in the negotiation.
D. Solicit information in your negotiation that is in addition to negotiation lines.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
Your customer wants to configure six BUs: five Requisitioning BUs and one BU configured as a shared Procurement BU
with only the Procurement function enabled.
How will you define the relationship between the Requisitioning BUs and the Procurement BU? (Choose the best
answer.)
A. The Payables business function must be assigned in addition to the Procurement business function.
B. The Procurement BU must be assigned with the Requisitioning business function in order for it to be a shared
services center.
C. The Procurement BU needs to be configured as a service provider to the Requisitioning BUs.
D. Intercompany transactions need to be defined between the Requisitioning BUs and the Procurement BU.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
Which method should you choose to manage setup data if you have a need to configure and modify the default setup
best practices? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Configure Basic Enterprise Structure
B. Rapid Implementation Task List
C. Manage Offerings and Features
D. Manage Implementation Projects
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Your customer requires that a consignment order should automatically get created whenever a self-service requester
creates a purchase requisition.
Which setup fulfills this requirement? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Enable all the requisition line items to be sourced from the consignment source.
B. Create a consignment agreement with touchless buying options enabled in the Controls tab to automatically generate
orders.
C. Assign all the requisition line to the consignment buyer.
D. Select the “Source from consignment” check box and set “Urgent” to “Yes” during requisition creation through self
service.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
In order to define a shipping method, what three options need to be set? (Choose three.)
A. Service Level
B. Purchasing Profile
C. FOB Lookup Code
D. Contact
E. Mode of Transport
Correct Answer: CDE


QUESTION 13
When defining supplier content map sets, which three values should you select that may be converted to values in the
procurement business unit? (Choose three.)
A. Item
B. Category
C. Catalog
D. Supplier
E. Agreement
F. UOM
Correct Answer: BDF

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Welcome to Oracle 1Z0-908 practice test online

QUESTION 1
You encountered an insufficient privilege error in the middle of a long transaction.
The database administrator is informed and immediately grants the required privilege:
GRANT UPDATE ON world.city TO `user1\\’;
How can you proceed with your transaction with the least interruption?
A. Roll back the transaction and start the transaction again in the same session.
B. Re-execute the failed statement in your transaction.
C. Change the default database and re-execute the failed statement in your transaction.
D. Close the connection, reconnect, and start the transaction again.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Examine this command, which executes successfull mysqlbackup –defaults-file=/backups/server-my.cnf –backupdir=/backups/full copy-back Which statement is true about the copy-back process?
A. The copy-back process is used to overwrite a new backup over an existing backup.
B. It restores files from the data directory to their original MySQL server locations.
C. It restores files from the backup directory to their original MySQL server locations.
D. The copy-back process makes inconsistent backups.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://dev.mysql.com/doc/mysql-enterprise-backup/3.11/en/restore.restore.html

QUESTION 3
Examine this command, which executes successfully:
mysqlpump -–user=root –password > full_backup.sql
Which two databases will be excluded from this dump? (Choose two.)
A. information_schema
B. world
C. employee
D. sys
E. mysql
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://mysqlserverteam.com/introducing-mysqlpump/


QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about using backups of the binary log? (Choose two.)
A. Multiple binary logs can be used to restore data.
B. Multiple binary logs can be applied in parallel for faster data restoration.
C. Binary logs are relatively small, and therefore, excellent for long-term storage and disaster recovery.
D. Binary logs can always be used to unapply unwanted schema changes.
E. They allow for point-in-time recovery of the data.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
A colleague complains about the slow response time on your website. Examine this query and output:

1Z0-908 exam questions-q5

What is the most likely cause for the high number of lock waits?
A. You use the MyISAM storage engine for most common tables.
B. You use the InnoDB storage engine and statements wait while data is inserted.
C. The Innodb Buffer pool is full.
D. Your table accesses wait for the operating system level flush.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://severalnines.com/database-blog/how-fix-lock-wait-timeout-exceeded-error-mysql

QUESTION 6
You are using mysqlcheck for server maintenance.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The mysqlcheck –check –all-databases command takes table write locks while performing a series of checks.
B. The mysqlcheck –optimize –all-databases command reclaims free space from table files.
C. The mysqlcheck –repair –all-databases command can repair an InnoDB corrupted table.
D. The mysqlcheck command can be renamed mysqlrepair so that it repairs tables by default.
E. The mysqlcheck –analyze –all-databases command performs a series of checks to spot eventual table corruptions.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 7
Examine this MySQL client command to connect to a remote database: mysql -h remote.example.org -u root -p
–protocol=TCP –ssl-mode=
Which two –ssl-mode values will ensure that an X.509-compliant certificate will be used to establish the SSL/TLS
connection to MySQL?
A. REQUIRED
B. VERIFY_CA
C. VERIFY_IDENTITY
D. PREFERRED
E. DISABLED
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Examine these commands and output:

1Z0-908 exam questions-q8

Which connection ID is holding the metadata lock?
B. 24
C. 21
D. 25
E. 22
F. 6
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
You have configured GTID-based asynchronous replication with one master and one slave.
A user accidentally updated some data on the slave.
To fix this, you stopped replication and successfully reverted the accidental changes.
Examine the current GTID information: You must fix GTID sets on the slave to avoid replicating unwanted transactions
in case of failover.

1Z0-908 exam questions-q9

Which set of actions would allow the slave to continue replicating without erroneous transactions?
A. RESET MASTER; SET GLOBAL gtid_purged=aaaaaaaa-aaaa-aaaa-aaaa-aaaaaaaaaaaa:1-10167;
B. SET GLOBAL gtid_purged=aaaaaaaa-aaaa-aaaa-aaaa-aaaaaaaaaaaa:1-2312,bbbbbbbb-bbbb-bbbbbbbbbbbbbbbbbbbb:1-9; SET GLOBAL gtid_executed=aaaaaaaa-aaaa-aaaa-aaaa-aaaaaaaaaaaa:110167;
C. RESET SLAVE; SET GLOBAL gtid_purged=aaaaaaaa-aaaa-aaaa-aaaa-aaaaaaaaaaaa:1-3820; SET GLOBAL
gtid_executed=aaaaaaaa-aaaa-aaaa-aaaa–aaaaaaaaaaaa:1-10300;
D. RESET MASTER; SET GLOBAL gtid_purged-aaaaaaaa-aaaa-aaaa-aaaa-aaaaaaaaaaaa:1-2312; SET GLOBAL
gtid_executed=aaaaaaaa-aaaa-aaaa-aaaa-aaaaaaaaaaaa:1-10167;
E. RESET SLAVE; SET GLOBAL gtid_purged=aaaaaaaa-aaaa-aaaa-aaaa-aaaaaaaaaaaa:1-10167;
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
There are five MySQL instances configured with a working group replication.
Examine the output of the group members:

1Z0-908 exam questions-q10

Which two statements are true about network partitioning in the cluster? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster will shut down to preserve data consistency.
B. The cluster has built-in high availability and updates group_replication_ip_whitelist to remove the unreachable
nodes.
C. The group replication will buffer the transactions on the online nodes until the unreachable nodes return online.
 D. There could be both a 2 node and 3 node group replication still running, so shutting down group replication and
diagnosing the issue is recommended.
E. A manual intervention to force group members to be only the working two instances is required.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 11
You wish to protect your MySQL database against SQL injection attacks.
Which method would fail to do this?
A. installing and configuring the Connection Control plugin
B. avoiding concatenation of SQL statements and user-supplied values in an application
C. using stored procedures for any database access D. using PREPARED STATEMENTS
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.ptsecurity.com/ww-en/analytics/knowledge-base/how-to-prevent-sql-injectionattacks/


QUESTION 12
Examine this MySQL Shell command: dba.rebootClusterFromCompleteOutage()
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. It reconfigures InnoDB Cluster if the cluster was stopped.
B. It performs InnoDB Cluster instances rolling restart.
C. It only starts all InnoDB Cluster instances.
D. It is not mandatory that all instances are running and reachable before running the command.
E. It stops and restarts all InnoDB Cluster instances and initializes the metadata.
F. It only stops and restarts all InnoDB Cluster instances.
G. It picks the minimum number of instances necessary to rebuild the quorum and reconfigures InnoDB Cluster.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
Which three statements are true about MySQL replication? (Choose three.)
A. Replication can use only TCP/IP connections.
B. Any instance can have multiple slaves, but it can have only one master.
C. Each instance in a replication topology must have a unique server ID.
D. Binary logs contain only transactions originating from a single MySQL instance.
E. Each slave must have its own MySQL user for replication.
F. Binary logging must be enabled on the master in order to replicate to other instances.
G. A replication user must have the SELECT privilege for all tables that need to be replicated.
Correct Answer: CFG

 

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QUESTION 1
Material is transferred between two subinventories within an organization via transfer order. The setup is complete and
the transfer order is created through the FBDI process. What is the primary interface data that needs to be completed in
the template?
A. CST_I_INCOMING_TXN_COSTS
B. INV_SUBINVENTORY_TRANSFER
C. INV_TRANSACTIONS_INTERFACE
D. INV_SERIAL_NUMBERS_INTERFACE
E. INV_TRANSACTION_LOTS_INTERFACE
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Which statement is false about generating an Internal Material Transfer for expense destination Transfer Order?
A. Cost Management will pick up the delivery transaction directly from Receiving and process the expense accounting
from that transaction.
B. Cost for Lot and serial numbers are tracked at put away time when the items are recorded in a destination inventory
location.
C. Expense destination transfers are expensed upon delivery hitting an expense account instead of an inventory asset
account as would be the case for inventory destination transfers.
D. If the receipt is required, then accounting of the receipt delivery transaction will happen only in Receipt Accounting
because there will not be a delivery transaction in inventory.
E. If the receipt is not required, Cost Accounting will pick up both the issue and receipt activity from the single inventory
transaction “Transfer Order Issue”.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
You have a high value item that you want to audit on an unscheduled basis to deter pilfering. Which method would you
use to do this?
A. Physical Inventory Count
B. ABC Count
C. Automated Cycle Count
D. Blind Inventory Count
E. Manual Cycle Count
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 4
Your customer is setting up serial control. The requirement is that if item A has serial 123, then they do not want item B
to also have serial 123 within the same inventory organization. Which serial control setting must be used to meet this
requirement?
A. Unique within items
B. Unique across Enterprise
C. Unique across organizations
D. Unique within organization
E. Unique within Item and organization
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A customer has one Business Unit, two Legal Entities, and each have eight warehouses (defined as Inventory Orgs).
While trying to set up Cost Organizations for each of these Legal Entities, you were unable to perform the mandatory
step of
assigning the Profit Center Business Unit for one set of eight Inventory Organizations; however, you could do it for the
other set.
What is the reason for this?
A. There is no Inventory Validation Organization defined.
B. There is no Business Unit associated with the Legal Entity.
C. The General Ledger is not associated with Business Unit.
D. The Business Unit is not enabled for Costing.
E. The Legal Entity Setup is incomplete.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Your client wants the purchasers to be able to run the min-max plan for items under their control and then manage the
POs created out of these. Which parameters can they use to be able to do this?
A. From Planner to Planner
B. From Buyer to Buyer
C. From Item to Item
D. Sort by
E. Planning Level
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
What are the four steps for the move request process flow?
A. Run pick slip allocation
B. Create Movement Request
C. Physically move the material
D. Run the Movement Request Pick Slip Report
E. Confirm pick slips
F. Create shipment
Correct Answer: BCDE


QUESTION 8
Reorder quantities for an item subinventory are calculated using Fixed Lot Multiple and Round Order Quantity. Assume
that the reorder quantity is 24 and you specify 10 for the fixed lot multiple and enable rounding the reorder quantity.
What will be the reorder quantity?
A. 30
B. 25
C. 24
D. 20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which action invokes supply chain orchestration and transfer of data to supply chain orchestration interface tables?
A. running Min-Max Planning
B. creating Purchase Order Receipt
C. running a scheduled process called “Create Transactions”
D. creating a new Inventory Organization for execution of supply chain orchestration
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
A supply request has been received in supply chain orchestration. Both organizations belong to the same legal entity
and they do not have a buy-sell relationship between them. Which type of execution document can fulfill the supply
request?
A. Sales Order
B. Purchase Requisitions
C. Purchase Order
D. Transfer Order
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Your organization has lot controlled and nonlot controlled material and stores all defective material in a subinventory
called “Defect”. The organization does not want defective material to be available for reservations or for subsequent
shipping
to customers.
Which option satisfies this requirement?
A. Disallow all inventory transactions for the subinventory “Defect”.
B. Assign the subinventory a material status that disallows reservations and allows subinventory transfers and issues to
scrap.
C. Tag the lot as defective product.
D. Assign the lot a material status that disallows reservations and allows subinventory transfers and issues to scrap.
E. Put a hold on the lot.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
The Applications Development Framework Desktop Integration (ADFdi) user interface is supported in Oracle Fusion
Receiving, Inventory Management, and Shipping products. Identify four ADFdi user interfaces that are supported.
A. Review Receipts Interface
B. Manage Inventory Transaction Correction in Spreadsheet
C. Review Count Interface Records
D. Manage Lot/Serial Interface
E. Upload ASN or ASBN
F. Manage Shipment Message Interface
Correct Answer: ABDF


QUESTION 13
While creating the consignment agreement, you have set the consumption advice frequency to “monthly” and the billing
cycle close date to “31st August 2020”. What will happen when you run the consumption advice process on 31st
August 2020?
A. Consumption advice is created and the next closing date is set to 30th September 2020.
B. Consumption advice is created and the next closing date is set to 7th September 2020.
C. Consumption advice is created and the next closing date is set to 30th October 2020.
D. No consumption advice is created.
Correct Answer: A

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