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Welcome to Oracle 1z0-808 practice test online

QUESTION 1
Given:

1z0-808 exam questions-q1

What is the result?
A. C2C2
B. C1C2
C. C1C1
D. Compilation fails
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Consider
Integer number = Integer.valueOff 808.1″);
Which is true about the above statement?
A. The value of the variable number will be 808.1
B. The value of the variable number will be 808
C. The value of the variable number will be 0.
D. A NumberFormatException will be throw.
E. It will not compile.
Correct Answer: D
The Integer class value of 0 returns an Integer from given string. But we need to pass string which has correct format for
integer otherwise it will throw a NumberFormatException. In this case we have passed string which is not an integer
value (since what we passed is fractional number), so option D is correct.


QUESTION 3
Given this code for the classes MyException and Test:

1z0-808 exam questions-q3

What is the result?
A. A
B. AB
C. A compile time error occurs at line n1.
D. B
E. I
Correct Answer: C

1z0-808 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
Given the fragments:

1z0-808 exam questions-q4

Which line causes a compilation error?
A. Line n1
B. Line n2
C. Line n3
D. Line n4
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Given the code fragments:

1z0-808 exam questions-q5

Which statement is true?
A. After line 11, three objects are eligible for garbage collection.
B. After line 11, two objects are eligible for garbage collection.
C. After line 11, one object is eligible for garbage collection.
D. After line 11, none of the objects are eligible for garbage collection.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Given the following code for a Planet object:

1z0-808 exam questions-q6

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Given the code fragments:

1z0-808 exam questions-q7

What is the result?
A. Super Sub Sub
B. Contract Contract Super
C. Compilation fails at line n1
D. Compilation fails at line n2
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Given the code fragment:

1z0-808 exam questions-q8

Which modification enables the code fragment to print TrueDone?
A. Replace line 5 With String result = “true”; Replace line 7 with case “true”:
B. Replace line 5 with boolean opt = l; Replace line 7 with case 1=
C. At line 9, remove the break statement.
D. Remove the default section.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Given:

1z0-808 exam questions-q9

What is the result?
A. 3 4 5 6
B. 3 4 3 6
C. 5 4 5 6
D. 3 6 4 6
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
Given the code fragment:

1z0-808 exam questions-q10

Which code fragment, inserted at line n1, prints The Top element: 30?

1z0-808 exam questions-q10-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Given the code fragment:

1z0-808 exam questions-q11

What is the result?
A. 3
B. 4
C. -1
D. Compilation fails.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Given:
public class Marklist {
int num;
public static void graceMarks(Marklist obj4) {
obj4.num += 10;
}
public static void main(String[] args) {
MarkList obj1 = new MarkList();
MarkList obj2 = obj1;
MarkList obj1 = null;
obj2.num = 60;
graceMarks(obj2);
}
}
How many objects are created in the memory runtime?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: obj1 and obj3.
when you do e2 = e1 you\\’re copying object references – you\\’re not making a copy of the object – and so the variables
e1 and e2 will both point to the same object.

QUESTION 13
Given:

1z0-808 exam questions-q13

What is the result?
A. 2 4 6 8
B. 2 4 6 8 9
C. 1 3 5 7
D. 1 3 5 7 9
Correct Answer: D

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Welcome to Oracle 1Z0-148 practice test online

QUESTION 1
The result cache is enabled for the database instance.
Examine the following code for a PL/SQL function:
CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION get_hire_date (emp_id NUMBER) RETURN VARCHAR
RESULT_CACHE RELIES_ON (HR.EMPLOYEES)
IS
date_hired DATE;
BEGIN
SELECT hire_date INTO date_hired
FROM HR.EMPLOYEES
WHERE EMPLOYEE_ID = emp_id;
RETURN TO_CHAR(date_hired);
END;
You notice that results for the functions are not used effectively. What do you recommend for better utilization of the
result cache? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Set the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter to FORCE.
B. Increase the value for the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_SIZE parameter.
C. Add a format mask parameter, such as RETURN TO_CHAR(date_hired, fmt) to GET_HIRE_DATE.
D. Change the return type of GET_HIRE_DATE to DATE and have each session invoke the TO_CHAR function.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
The database instance was recently started up. Examine the following parameter settings for the database instance:
NAME TYPE VALUE
………
result_cache_max_result integer 5
result_cache_max_size big integer 0
result_cache_mode string MANUAL
result_cache_remote_expiration integer 0
………
You reset the value for the result_cache_max_size parameter by issuing the following command:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET result_cache_max_size = 1056k SCOPE = BOTH;
System altered.
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. 1056 KB is allocated for the result cache and the result cache is enabled.
B. 1056 KB is allocated for the result cache, but the result cache is disabled.
C. The results for only the queries that have the RESULT_CACHE hint are cached.
D. The results for all the queries except those having the NO_RESULT_CACHE hint are cached.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
View the Exhibit and examine the code in the PL/SQL block.
The PL/SQL block generates an error on execution. What is the reason?

1z0-148 exam questions-q3

A. The DELETE(n) method cannot be used with varrays.
B. The DELETE(n) method cannot be used with nested tables.
C. The NEXT method cannot be used with an associative array with VARCHAR2 key values.
D. The NEXT method cannot be used with a nested table from which an element has been deleted.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which statement describes the purpose of the plshprof command?
A. It produces HTML output from raw profiler output.
B. It produces HTML output from profiler tables in the database.
C. It populates profiler tables in the database from raw profiler output.
D. It produces raw profiler output on the most recently run applications.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Identify two factors that you consider for compiling a PL/SQL program unit for interpreted mode. (Choose two.)
A. a PL/SQL program which needs to be recompiled frequently
B. a PL/SQL program that spends most of the time executing SQL
C. a PL/SQL program, which performs computation-intensive procedural operations and is recompiled rarely
D. a PL/SQL program, which is called frequently with the same parameter values by multiple sessions and is recompiled
rarely
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 6
Examine the structure of the DEPARTMENTS table. Name Null? Type
DEPARTMENT_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(4)
DEPARTMENT_NAME NOT NULL VARCHAR2(30)
LOCATION_ID NUMBER(4)
View the Exhibit and examine the code that you plan to use for creating a package to obtain the details of an employee
using a host variable on the client side.
In SQL*Plus, you plan to use the following commands:
SQL> VARIABLE x REFCURSOR
SQL> EXECUTE emp_data.get_emp(195,:x)
SQL> PRINT x
Which statement is true about the above scenario?

1z0-148 exam questions-q6

A. The package executes successfully and passes the required data to the host variable.
B. The package specification gives an error on compilation because cursor variable types cannot be defined in the
specification.
C. The package specification gives an error on compilation because the cursor variable parameter was specified before
you defined it.
D. The package executes successfully, but does not pass the required data to the host variable because the cursor is
closed before the PRINT statement runs.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
This result cache is enabled for the database instance. Examine this code for a PL/SQL function:

1z0-148 exam questions-q7

Which two actions would ensure that the same result will be consistently returned for any session when the same input
value is passed to the function?
A. Add a parameter, fmt, and change the RETURN statement to: RETURN TO_CHAR (date_hired, fmt);
B. Set the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter to FORCE.
C. Increase the value for the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_SIZE parameter.
D. Change the return type of GET_HIRE_DATE to DATE and have each session invoke the TO_CHAR function.
E. Set the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_RESULT parameter to 0.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
View the Exhibit and examine the settings for the PLSQL_CODE_TYPE parameter.
After sometime, the user recompiles the procedure DISPLAY_SAL_INFO by issuing the following command:
SQL> ALTER PROCEDURE display_sal_info COMPILE;
Which statement would be true in this scenario?

1z0-148 exam questions-q8

A. The procedure would be invalidated.
B. The procedure would remain as NATIVE code type.
C. The procedure would be changed to INTERPRETED code type.
D. The command would produce an error and the procedure must be compiled using the PLSQL_CODE_TYPE attribute
with value INTERPRETED.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Examine these statements:

1z0-148 exam questions-q9

Which two corrections will allow this anonymous block to execute successfully?
A. Add wk# .NEXT; before the 7thline.
B. Add i PLS_INTEGER; before the 3rdline.
C. Add wk#. EXTEND (1); before the 5thline.
D. Change line #2 to wk# tp_test# := tp_test# (tp_rec# ());
E. Replace lines 5 and 6 with wk# (i) := tp_rec# (i, i);
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 10
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table that exists in your schema. Name Null? Type
EMPLOYEE_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(6)
FIRST_NAME VARCHAR2(20)
LAST_NAME NOT NULL VARCHAR2(25)
JOB_ID NOT NULL VARCHAR2(10)
SALARY NUMBER(8,2)
COMMISSION_PCT NUMBER(2,2)
DEPARTMENT_ID NUMBER(4)
You successfully create a GET_MAX procedure to find the maximum salary in the department of a specified employee.
You then code a PL/SQL block to display the maximum salary in the departments of the first five employees in the
EMPLOYEES table.
View the Exhibit. Examine the procedure and the block of PL/SQL code.
What is the outcome of executing the block of PL/SQL code?

1z0-148 exam questions-q10

A. It executes successfully and gives the required output.
B. It gives an error because ROWNUM cannot be used in cursor definitions.
C. It gives an error because usage of the %ROWCOUNT attribute is not valid.
D. It executes successfully, but does not give the required output because the procedure call resets the %ROWCOUNT
value.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Identify three guidelines for the DBMS_ASSERT package. (Choose three.)
A. Prefix all calls to DBMS_ASSERT with the SYS schema name.
B. Embed DBMS_ASSERT verification routines inside the injectable string.
C. Escape single quotes when you use the ENQUOTE_LITERAL procedure.
D. Define and raise exceptions explicitly to handle DBMS_ASSERT exceptions.
E. Prefix all calls to DBMS_ASSERT with a schema name that owns the subprogram that uses the DBMS_ASSERT
package.
Correct Answer: ACD


QUESTION 12
Examine this code:
CREATE PROCEDURE list_products_dynamic(p_product_name VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL) AS
TYPE cv_pordtyp IS REF CUSRSOR;
cv cv_prodtyp;
v_prodname prod_info.name%TYPE;
v_listprice prod_info.price%TYPE;BEGIN
OPEN cv FOR \\’SELECT name, price FROM prod_info WHERE name LIKE “%\\’ ||p_product_name || \\’%\\'”;
LOOP
FETCH cv INFO v_prodname, v_listprice;
EXIT WHEN cv%NOTFOUND;
DBMS_OUTPU.PUT_LINE (\\’Product Info:\\’||v_prodname||\\’,\\’||v_listprice);
END LOOP;
CLOSE cv; END
Which two are valid correlations to the code to avoid or mitigate SQL Injection?
A. CREATE PROCEDURE list_products_dynamic (p_product_name VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL) AS TYPE
cv_pordtyp IS REF CURSOR; cv cv_prodtyp; v_prodname prod_info.name%TYPE; v_listprice prod_info.price%TYPE;
v_bind VARCHAR2 (400); BEGIN v_bind := ‘%’ | | p_product_name | | ‘%’; OPEN cv FOR ‘SELECT name, price
FROM prod_info WHERE name LIKE :b’ USING v_bind; LOOP FETCH cv INTO v_prodname, v_listprice; EXIT WHEN
cv%NOTFOUND; DBMS_OUTPU.PUT_LINE (‘Product Info: ‘ | | v_prodname | | ‘,’ | | v_listprice); END LOOP; CLOSE
cv; END;
B. CREATE PROCEDURE list_products_dynamic (p_product_name VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL) AS v_bind
VARCHAR2 (400); BEGIN v_bind := ‘%’ | | p_prodname | | ‘%’; FOR rec IN (‘SELECT name, price FROM prod_info
WHERE name like ‘ | | v_bind) LOOP DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE (‘Product Info: ’ | | rec.name | | ‘,’ | | rec.price);
END LOOP; END;
C. CREATE PROCEDURE list_products_dynamic (p_product_name VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL) AS TYPE
cv_pordtyp IS REF CURSOR; cv cv_prodtyp; v_prodname prod_info.name%TYPE; v_listprice prod_info.price%TYPE;
v_bind VARCHAR2 (400); BEGIN v_bind := ’’’%’ | | p_product_name | | ‘%’’’; OPEN cv FOR ‘SELECT name, price
FROM prod_info WHERE name LIKE ’ | | v_bind; LOOP FETCH cv INTO v_prodname, v_listprice; EXIT WHEN
cv%NOTFOUND; DBMS_OUTPU.PUT_LINE (‘Product Info: ‘ | | v_prodname | | ‘,’ | | v_listprice); END LOOP; CLOSE
cv; END;
D. CREATE PROCEDURE list_products_dynamic (p_product_name VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL) AS TYPE
cv_pordtyp IS REF CURSOR; cv cv_prodtyp; v_prodname prod_info.name%TYPE; v_listprice prod_info.price%TYPE;
v_bind VARCHAR2 (400); BEGIN v_bind := ‘%’ | | p_product_name | | ‘%’; OPEN cv FOR ‘SELECT name, price
FROM prod_info WHERE name LIKE ’ | | v_bind; LOOP FETCH cv INTO v_prodname, v_listprice; EXIT WHEN
cv%NOTFOUND; DBMS_OUTPU.PUT_LINE (‘Product Info: ‘ | | v_prodname | | ‘,’ | | v_listprice); END LOOP; CLOSE
cv; END;
E. CREATE PROCEDURE list_products_dynamic (p_product_name VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL) AS TYPE
cv_pordtyp IS REF CURSOR; cv cv_prodtyp; v_prodname prod_info.name%TYPE;
v_listprice prod_info.price%TYPE;
v_bind VARCHAR2 (400);
BEGIN
v_bind := DBMS_ASSERT.ENQUOTE_LITERAL (‘%’ | | p_product_name | | ‘%’);
OPEN cv FOR ‘SELECT name, price FROM prod_info WHERE name LIKE ’ | | v_bind;
LOOP
FETCH cv INTO v_prodname, v_listprice;
EXIT WHEN cv%NOTFOUND;
DBMS_OUTPU.PUT_LINE (‘Product Info: ‘ | | v_prodname | | ‘,’ | | v_listprice);
END LOOP;
CLOSE cv;
END;
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
Which two statements are true about the query results stored in the query result cache? (Choose two.)
A. If any of the tables used to build a query is modified by an ongoing transaction in the current session, the query result
is not cached.
B. A query result based on a read-consistent snapshot of data that is older than the latest committed version of the data
is not cached.
C. Adding the RESULT_CACHE hint to inline views enables optimizations between the outer query and the inline view,
and the query result is cached.
D. A query result for a query that has a bind variable is stored in the cache and is reused if the query is equivalent even
when the bind variable has a different value.
Correct Answer: AB

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Welcome to Oracle 1Z0-144 practice test online

QUESTION 1
Examine the following snippet of PL/SQL code:

1z0-144 exam questions-q1

Identify OPEN statements for opening the cursor that fetches the result set consisting of employees with JOB_ID as
`ST_CLERK\\’ and SALARY greater than 3000. (Choose three.)
A. OPEN c1 (NULL, 3000);
B. OPEN c1 (emp_job, 3000);
C. OPEN c1 (3000, emp_salary);
D. OPEN c1 (`ST_CLERK\\’, 3000)
E. OPEN c1 (emp_job, emp_salary);
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 2
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the SALGRADE table.

1z0-144 exam questions-q2

What is the outcome?
A. It is created successfully.
B. It gives an error because the return clause condition is invalid.
C. It gives an error because the usage of the host variables is invalid.
D. It gives an error because the data type of the return clause is invalid.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
ORDER_TOTAL is a column in the ORDERS table with the data type and size as NUMBER (8, 2). Examine the
following code:

1z0-144 exam questions-q3

Which statement is correct about the above code?
A. It gives an error in line 3.
B. It gives an error in line 4.
C. It gives an error in line 6.
D. It executes successfully and displays the output.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about triggers? (Choose two.)
A. All the triggers that are created on a table cannot be disabled simultaneously.
B. Any user who has the alter privilege on a table can create a trigger using that table.
C. Oracle provides a two-phase commit process whether a trigger updates tables in the local database or remote tables
in a distributed database.
D. Triggers become invalid if a dependent object, such as 3 stored subprogram that is invoked from the trigger body is
modified, and have to be manually recompiled before the next invocation.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which statements are true about PL/SQL procedures? (Choose two.)
A. Users with definer\\’s rights who are granted access to a procedure that updates a table must be granted access to
the table itself.
B. Reuse of parsed PL/SQL code that becomes available in the shared SQL area of the server avoids the parsing
overhead of SQL statements at run time.
C. Depending on the number of calls, multiple copies of the procedure are loaded into memory for execution by multiple
users to speed up performance.
D. A PL/SQL procedure executing on the Oracle database can call an external procedure or function that is written in a
different programming language, such as C or Java.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 6
Examine the following code: Which statement is true about the execution of the above code?

1z0-144 exam questions-q6

A. It executes and displays null.
B. It executes and the condition returns true.
C. It executes and control goes to the else statement.
D. It fails because no value is assigned to the v_myage variable.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Examine the following PL/SQL code:

1z0-144 exam questions-q7

The serveroutput is on for the session. Which statement is true about the execution of the code?
A. It displays NULL if no employee with employee_id 123 exists.
B. It produces the ORA-01403: no data found error if no employee with employee_id 123 exists.
C. It displays an error because the SELECT * INTO clause cannot be used to populate the PL/SQL record type.
D. The code executes successfully even if no employee with employee_id 123 exists and displays Record Not Found.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
View Exhibit 1 and examine the structure of the EMP and DEPT tables.

1z0-144 exam questions-q8

View Exhibit 2 and examine the trigger code that is defined on the DEPT table to enforce the UPDATE and DELETE
RESTRICT referential actions on the primary key of the DEPT table.

1z0-144 exam questions-q8-2

What is the outcome on compilation?
A. It compiles and executes successfully.
B. It gives an error on compilation because it is not a row-level trigger.
C. It gives an error on compilation because the EXCEPTION section is used in the trigger.
D. It compiles successfully but gives an error on execution because it is not a row-level trigger.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is the correct definition of the persistent state of a packaged variable?
A. It is a private variable defined in a procedure or function within a package body whose value is consistent within a
user session.
B. It is a public variable in a package specification whose value is consistent within a user session.
C. It is a private variable in a package body whose value is consistent across all current active sessions.
D. It is a public variable in a package specification whose value is always consistent across all current active sessions.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
View the Exhibit to examine the PL/SQL code.

1z0-144 exam questions-q10

SERVEROUTPUT is on for the session.
Which statement is true about the execution of the code?
A. The execution fails because of the misplaced else clause.
B. The execution is successful even if there is no employee with EMPLOYEE_ID 115.
C. The execution fails and throws exceptions if no employee with EMPLOYEE_ID 115 is found.
D. The execution is successful, but it displays an incorrect output if no employee with EMPLOYEE_ID 115 is found.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
Examine the following package specification.
SQL>CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE emp_pkf IS PROCEDURE search_emp (empdet NUMBER); PROCEDURE
search_emp (empdet DATE); PROCEDURE search_emp (empdet NUMBER); RETURN VERCHAR2 PROCEDURE
search_emp (empdet NUMBER); RETURN DATE END emp_pkg /
The package is compiled successfully
Why would it generate an error at run tune?
A. Because function cannot be overload.
B. Because function cannot differ only in return type.
C. Because all the functions and procedures in the package cannot have the same number of parameters with the same
parameter name.
D. Because the search EMP (EMPDET NUMBER) procedure and the SEARCH_DEPT (EMPDET NUMBER) cannot
have identical parameter names and data types.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
View Exhibit 1 and examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table.

1z0-144 exam questions-q12

User SCOTT needs to generate a text report that contains the names of all employees and their salaries.
Examine the following commands issued by the DBA:
SQL>CREATE DIRECTORY my_dir AS \\’/temp/my_files\\’;
SQL>GRANT WRITE ON DIRECTORY my_dir TO scott;
View Exhibit 2 and examine the procedure code.

1z0-144 exam questions-q12-2

You issue the following command:
SQL>EXEC sal_status (\\’MY_DIR\\’, `EMPREPORT.TXT\\’)
What is the outcome?
A. It executes successfully and creates the report.
B. It gives an error because the text file should be opened in append mode.
C. It gives an error because the “no data found” condition is not handled to come out of the loop.
D. It gives an error because user SCOTT should be granted both read and write privileges to the directory alias.
E. It executes but no data is written to the text file because the FFLUSH subprogram is not used to write all the data
buffered in memory to a file.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You execute the following block of code: Which statement is true about the outcome?

1z0-144 exam questions-q13

A. Both output statements show different values.
B. Both output statements show exactly the same values.
C. It gives an error because the nested blocks are not labeled.
D. It gives an error because the V_CUSTOMER variable cannot have different types in the nested blocks.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
You are managing this configuration:
1.
CDB1 is a container database.
2.
PDB1 and PDB2 are two pluggable databases in CDB1.
3.
USER1.EMP is a table in PDB1 and USER2.DEPT is a table in PDB2. CDB1 user SYS executes these commands
after connecting successfully to PDB2:

1z0-083 exam questions-q1

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. The inserts on USER1.EMP remain uncommitted when the session connected to PDB2.
B. The inserts on USER1.EMP were committed when the session inserted a row into USER2.DEPT.
C. The insert on USER2.DEPT fails because of the active transaction in the parent container.
D. The insert on USER2.DEPT is a recursive autonomous transaction by the child session and is committed.
E. The inserts on USER1.EMP were rolled back when the session connected to PDB2.
F. The insert on USER2.DEPT is uncommitted.
G. The inserts on USER1.EMP were committed when the session connected to PDB2.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Which three are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose three.)
A. By default, AWR snapshots are taken every 60 minutes.
B. Its collection level is determined by the value of the STATISTICS_LEVEL database parameter.
C. By default, AWR snapshots are retained for 7 days.
D. The taking of AWR snapshots can be disabled.
E. AWR data is stored in the SYSTEM tablespace.
Correct Answer: ABD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28320/initparams240.htm#REFRN10214

QUESTION 3
Which two are true about Oracle Optimizer Statistics, their use, and their collection? (Choose two.)
A. The number of table rows is considered when evaluating the cost of accessing a table using an index.
B. Index balanced B*Tree height is considered when evaluating the cost of using an index.
C. The Statistics Advisor can help recommend the best way to gather statistics.
D. Statistics collected using DBMS_STATS always yield the best optimizer result.
E. The Statistics Advisor generates actions for all recommendations.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/tgsql/optimizer-statistics-advisor.html#GUIDD81A7708-FDA0-45BB-A6E2-103858B047AE

QUESTION 4
Examine this configuration:
1.
CDB1 is an Oracle Database 12c Release 2 database containing pluggable databases PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2.
2.
PDB$SEED is open READ ONLY
3.
PDB1 is open READ WRITE
4.
PDB2 is MOUNTED.
5.
ORACLE_HOME is /u01/app/oracle/product/18.1.0/dbhome_1.
You execute these commands before upgrading the database to the current release:

1z0-083 exam questions-q4

For which databases will fixup scripts be created?
A. CDB1, PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2
B. PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2 only
C. CDB1 and PDB$SEED only
D. CDB1, PDB1, and PDB2 only
E. CDB1, PDB$SEED, and PDB1 only
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 5
Which two are true about server-generated alerts? (Choose two.)
A. Stateful alerts must be created by a DBA after resolving the problem.
B. Stateless alerts can be purged manually from the alert history.
C. Stateless alerts can be cleared manually.
D. Stateless alerts are automatically cleared.
E. Stateful alerts are purged automatically from the alert history.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://jameshuangsj.wordpress.com/2019/12/01/clears-stateless-alerts-in-oem-by-using-emcli/

QUESTION 6
Examine this configuration:
1.
CDB1 is a container database.
2.
PDB1 and PDB2 are pluggable databases in CDB1.
3.
PDB1 and PDB2 are OPEN in READ WRITE mode.
You execute these commands successfully:

1z0-083 exam questions-q6

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. Uncommitted transactions in PDB1 have been rolled back.
B. PDB1 is closed.
C. Uncommitted transactions in CDB1 and PDB1 have been rolled back.
D. CDB1 is shut down.
E. CDB1 is in MOUNT state
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Which three can be done using Oracle Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) starting from Oracle Database 19c?
(Choose three.)
A. cloning a remote container database in interactive mode
B. cloning a remote pluggable database in silent mode
C. relocating a remote pluggable database in interactive mode
D. relocating a remote container database in silent mode
E. cloning a remote container database in silent mode
F. relocating a remote pluggable database in silent mode
G. relocating a remote container database in interactive mode
Correct Answer: CEF
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/clone-pdbs-using-dbca-silent-mode/index.html?learningpath=trueandappuser=nobodyandappsession=170971049395andcontentid=26693andactivityname=Clone%
20PDBs% 20using%20DBCA%20in%20Silent%20Modeandeventid=6352

QUESTION 8
Which two are true about RMAN backups when using a media manager to write backups to tape when there are only
two tape drives? (Choose two.)
A. SBT tape compression can be used even if no RMAN compression is configured.
B. Any backup set written to the SBT device in this configuration can contain a maximum of two backup pieces.
C. Any backup written to the SBT device in this configuration can contain a maximum of two backup sets.
D. SBT tape compression and RMAN backup compression should be used in parallel.
E. The SBT device should be configured to use PARALLELISM 2 to allow both tape drive to be used simultaneously.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 9
Which two are true about the Oracle dataabse methodology? (Choose two.)
A. The Oracle Database time model should be used to find the database and instance areas most in need of tuning.
B. Tuning activities should stop once the user is satisfied with performance.
C. Tuning activities should stop once agreed service levels for performance have been met.
D. The database instance memory should always be tuned before tuning any file systems.
E. SQL statements should always be tuned before tuning any file systems.
F. The alert log should be used to find the database and instance areas most in need of tuning.
Correct Answer: CF
Reference: https://flylib.com/books/en/4.322.1.9/1/

QUESTION 10
You must transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace from one database to another.
The UNIVERSITY tablespace is currently open read/write.
The source and destination platforms have different endian formats.
Examine this list of actions:
1.
Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read-only on the source system.
2.
Export the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using EXPDP.
3.
Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data fies to the destination platform format using RMAN on the source system.
4.
Copy the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination system.
5.
Copy the Data Pump dump set to the destination system.
6.
Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination platform format using RMAN on the destination
system.
7.
Import the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using IMPDP.
8.
Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read/write on the destination system.
Which is the minimum number of actions required, in the correct order, to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace?
A. 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8
B. 1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 8
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
E. 2, 4, 5, 6, 7
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Examine the command for creating pluggable database PDB2 in container database CDB2.

1z0-083 exam questions-q11

Select three options, any one of which is required for it to execute successfully. (Choose three.)
A. Add the FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause to the statement and set the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter.
B. Add only the CREATE_FILE_DEST clause to the statement.
C. Set only the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter.
D. Set the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter and enable OMF.
E. Enable only OMF.
F. Add the FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause to the statement and enable Oracle Managed Files (OMF)
Correct Answer: BDE


QUESTION 12
A user complains about poor database performance.
You want to verify if the user\\’s session has waited for certain types of I/O activity.
Which view displays all waits waited on by a session at least once?
A. V$SESSION_EVENT
B. V$SESSTAT
C. V$SESSION_WAIT
D. V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS
E. V$SESSION
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E29597_01/server.1111/e16638/instance_tune.htm

QUESTION 13
Examine this configuration:
1.
CDB1 is a container database.
2.
COMMON_USER_PREFIX is C##.
3.
PDB1 is a pluggable database contained in CDB1.
4.
APP1_ROOT is an application container contained in CDB1.
5.
APP1_PDB1 is an application PDB contained in APP1_ROOT.
You execute these commands successfully:

1z0-083 exam questions-q13

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. APP1_USER1 can be created in PDB1.
B. APP1_USER1 can be created in CDB1.
C. APP1_USER1 can have different privileges in each Application PDB contained in APP1_ROOT.
D. C##_APP_USER1 can be created in CDB1.
E. P1_USER1 can be created in CDB1.
F. C##_USER1 will have the same privileges and roles granted in all PDBs in CDB1.
Correct Answer: CF

to sum up:

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1072 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1072 exam

QUESTION 1
Your application consists of three Oracle Cloud Infrastructure compute instances running behind a public load balancer.
You have configured the load balancer to perform health checks on these instances, but one of the three instances fails
to pass the configured health check. Which of the following action will the load balancer perform?
A. Stop sending traffic to the instance that failed health check
B. B. Terminate the instance that failed health check
C. C. Stop the instances that failed health check
D. D. Remove the instance that failed the health check from the backend set
Correct Answer: A
health check A test to confirm the availability of backend servers. A health check can be a request or a connection
attempt. Based on a time interval you specify, the load balancer applies the health check policy to continuously monitor
backend servers. If a server fails the health check, the load balancer takes the server temporarily out of rotation. If the
server subsequently passes the health check, the load balancer returns it to the rotation.
You configure your health check policy when you create a backend set. You can configure TCP-level or HTTP-level
health checks for your backend servers.

TCP-level health checks attempt to make a TCP connection with the backend servers and validate the response based
on the connection status.

HTTP-level health checks send requests to the backend servers at a specific URI and validate the response based on
the status code or entity data (body) returned. The service provides application-specific health check capabilities to help
you increase availability and reduce your application maintenance window.


QUESTION 2
You have a working application in the US East region. The app is a 3-tier app with a database backend – you take
regular backups of the database into OCI Object Storage in the US East region. For Business continuity; you are
leveraging OCI Object Storage cross-region copy feature to copy database backups to the US West region. Which of
the following three steps do you need to execute to meet your requirement?
A. Write an IAM policy and authorize the Object Storage service to manage objects on your behalf
B. Specify an existing destination bucket
C. Specify the bucket visibility for both the source and destination buckets
D. D. Provide a destination object name
E. E. Provide an option to choose bulk copying of objects
F. F. Choose an overwrite rule
Correct Answer: ABF
You can copy objects to other buckets in the same region and to buckets in other regions.
You must have the required access to both the source and destination buckets when performing an object copy. You
must also have permissions to manage objects in the source and destination buckets.
Because Object Storage is a regional service, you must authorize the Object Storage service for each region carrying
out copy operations on your behalf. For example, you might authorize the Object Storage service in region US East
(Ashburn) to manage objects on your behalf. Once you authorize the Object Storage service, you can copy an object
stored in a US East (Ashburn) bucket to a bucket in another region.
You can use overwrite rules to control the copying of objects based on their entity tag (ETag) values.
Specify an existing target bucket for the copy request. The copy operation does not automatically create buckets.

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage Service? (Choose two.)
A. It provides higher IOPS than Block Storage.
B. It can be directly attached or detached from a compute instance.
C. Data is stored redundantly only in a single AD.
D. Data is stored redundantly across multiple availability domains (ADs).
E. It provides strong consistency.
Correct Answer: DE
STRONG CONSISTENCYWhen a read request is made, Object Storage always serves the most recent copy of the
data that was written to the system.DURABILITYObject Storage is a regional service. Data is stored redundantly across
multiple storage servers. Object Storage actively monitors data integrity using checksums and automatically detects and
repairs corrupt data. Object Storage actively monitors and ensures data redundancy. If a redundancy loss is detected,
Object Storage automatically creates more data copies. For more details about Object Storage durability, see the Oracle
Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage FAQ.CUSTOM METADATAYou can define your own extensive metadata as key-value pairs for any purpose. For example, you can create descriptive tags for objects, retrieve those tags, and sort
through the data. You can assign custom metadata to objects and buckets using the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI or
SDK. See Software Development Kits and Command Line Interface for details.ENCRYPTIONObject Storage employs
256-bit Advanced Encryption Standard (AES-256) to encrypt object data on the server. Each object is encrypted with its
own key. Data encryption keys are encrypted with a master encryption key that is frequently rotated. Encryption is
enabled by default and cannot be turned off.

QUESTION 4
A customer wants to do development on-premise while leveraging services such as Java Cloud, Mobile Developer
Cloud, and App Builder Services. The customer would also like to scale out the application, stretching from on-premises
to the cloud by using a common API.
Which two Infrastructure options can the customer leverage to do this? (Choose two.)
A. Oracle Cloud at Customer
B. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Classic
C. Oracle Cloud Ravello service
D. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which option lists Virtual Cloud Networks (VCNs) that can be peered?
A. VCN A (172.16.0.0/24) and VCN B (172.16.0.0/28)
B. VCN A (10.0.0.0/16) and VCN B (10.1.0.0/16)
C. VCN A (10.0.2.0/16) and VCN B (10.0.2.0/25)
D. VCN A (10.0.0.0/16) and VCN B (10.0.16.0/24)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are about to upload log file (5 TiB size) to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure object storage and have decided to use
multipart upload capability for a more efficient and resilient upload. Which two statements are true about multipart
upload? (Choose two.)
A. Individual object parts can be as small as 10 MiB or as large as 50 GiB
B. While a multipart upload is still active, you cannot add parts even if the total number of parts is less than 10,000
C. The maximum size for an uploaded object is 10 TiB
D. You do not have to commit the upload after you have uploaded all the object parts
Correct Answer: AC
With multipart upload, you split the object you want to upload into individual parts. Individual parts can be as large as 50
GiB or as small as 10 MiB. (Object Storage waives the minimum part size restriction for the last uploaded part.) Decide
what part number you want to use for each part. Part numbers can range from 1 to 10,000. You do not need to assign
contiguous numbers, but Object Storage constructs the object by ordering part numbers in ascending order.
The maximum size for an uploaded object is 10 TiB
While a multipart upload is still active, you can keep adding parts as long as the total number is less than 10,000.

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about encryption on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)? (Choose two.)
A. By default, object storage and block storage are encrypted at rest.
B. A customer is responsible for data encryption in all services of OCI.
C. By default, DB Systems offers an encrypted database.
D. By default, NVMe drives are encrypted but the block volume service is not.
Correct Answer: AC
References: https://cloud.oracle.com/storage/object-storage/features


QUESTION 8
You have an instance running in a development compartment that needs to make API calls against other OCI services,
but you do not want to configure user credentials or store a configuration file on the instance. How can you meet this
requirement?
A. Create a dynamic group with matching rules to include your instance
B. B. Instances can automatically make calls to other OCI services
C. C. Instances are secure and cannot make calls to other OCI services
D. D. Create a dynamic group with matching rules to include your instance and write a policy for this dynamic group
Correct Answer: D
Dynamic groups allow you to group Oracle Cloud Infrastructure computer instances as “principal” actors (similar to user
groups).
When you create a dynamic group, rather than adding members explicitly to the group, you instead define a set of
matching rules to define the group members. For example, a rule could specify that all instances in a particular
compartment are members of the dynamic group. The members can change dynamically as instances are launched and
terminated in that compartment.
A dynamic group has no permissions until you write at least one policy that gives that dynamic group permission to
either the tenancy or a compartment. When writing the policy, you can specify the dynamic group by using either the
unique name or the dynamic group\\’s OCID. Per the preceding note, even if you specify the dynamic group name in the
policy, IAM internally uses the OCID to determine the dynamic group.

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1072-20 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1072-20 exam

QUESTION 1
Which service is NOT supported by Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI?
A. load balancer
B. compute
C. database
D. block volumes
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/API/Concepts/cliconcepts.htm#services


QUESTION 2
Why are two subnets required to create a public load balancer when additional subnets are often used for back-end
servers? (Choose two.)
A. Routing is simpler when the load balancer is not in the same subnet as the back-end server.
B. Performance is higher when more subnets are used.
C. Additional subnets for back-end servers allow for separate route tables for these servers.
D. Additional subnets for back-end servers allow for separate security lists for these servers.
Correct Answer: BD
References:
http://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/obe/cloud/ocis/load-balancer/load-balancer.html


QUESTION 3
Which two choices are true for Autonomous Data Warehouse (ADW)? (Choose two.)
A. Billing stops only when the ADW is terminated
B. Billing stops for both CPU usage and storage usage when ADW is stopped
C. Billing for computing stops when ADW is stopped
D. Billing for storage continues when ADW is stopped
Correct Answer: CD
When Autonomous Database instance is stopped, CPU billing is halted based on full-hour cycles of usage Billing for storage continues as long as the service instance
exists. and When the Autonomous Database instance is started, the CPU billing is initiated

QUESTION 4
You have the following compartment structure in your tenancy. Root compartment->Training- >Training-subl ->Trainingsub2 You create a policy in the root compartment to allow the default admin for the account (Administrators) to manage
block volumes in compartment Training-sub2.
What policy would you write to meet this requirement?
A. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in the root compartment
B. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in compartment Training-sub1: Training- sub2
C. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in compartment Training: Training-sub 1 : Training-sub2
D. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in compartment Training-sub2
Correct Answer: C
a policy statement must specify the compartment for which access is being granted (or the tenancy). Where you create
the policy determines who can update the policy. If you attach the policy to the compartment or its parent, you can
simply specify the compartment name. If you attach the policy further up the hierarchy, you must specify the path. The
format of the path is each compartment name (or OCID) in the path, separated by a colon::: . . . For example, assume
you have a three-level compartment hierarchy, shown here:

Pass4itsure 1z0-1072-20 exam questions-q4

You want to create a policy to allow NetworkAdmins to manage VCNs in CompartmentC. If you want to attach this policy
to CompartmentC or to its parent, CompartmentB, write this policy statement:
Allow group NewtworkAdmins to manage virtual-network-family in compartment CompartmentC However, if you want to
attach this policy to CompartmentA (so that only administrators of CompartmentA can modify it), write this policy
statement that specifies the path:
Allow group NewtworkAdmins to manage virtual-network-family in compartment CompartmentB:CompartmentC
To attach this policy to the tenancy, write this policy statement that specifies the path from CompartmentA to
CompartmentC:
Allow group NewtworkAdmins to manage virtual-network-family in compartment
CompartmentA:CompartmentB:CompartmentC

 

QUESTION 5
Which five are the required parameters to launch an instance in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure? (Choose five.)
A. subnet
B. Availability Domain
C. Virtual Cloud Network
D. host name
E. instance shape
F. image operating system
G. private IP address
Correct Answer: ABCEF
References: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/Compute/Concepts/computeoverview.htm


QUESTION 6
A company currently uses Microsoft Active Directory as its identity provider. The company recently subscribed to Oracle
Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) to leverage the cloud platform for test and development. As the administrator, you configured
the OCI tenancy to be federated with Microsoft Active Directory. Now you need to give access to developers so that
they can start creating resources in their OCI accounts.
Which step will you perform to make sure you are not duplicating user creation inside of OCI tenancy?
A. Create a group for developers on OCI and map the group to a similar group in Microsoft Active Directory during the
federation process.
B. Create a new user account in OCI for each user, and then create policies to provide access to developers.
C. Create a group for developers on OCI, export all the developers from Microsoft Active Directory, and then import
them into the Identity and Access Management (IAM) group.
D. Create a single user account in OCI, and then create policies to provide access to developers to this single account.
Correct Answer: A
When working with your IdP, your administrator defines groups and assigns each user to one or more groups according
to the type of access the user needs. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure also uses the concept of groups (in conjunction with
IAM policies) to define the type of access a user has. As part of setting up the relationship with the IdP, your
administrator can map each IdP group to a similarly defined IAM group, so that your company can re-use the IdP group
definitions when authorizing user access to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure resources.

QUESTION 7
The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Block Volume service lets you expand the size of the block and boot volumes. Which three
options below can you use to increase the size of your block volumes?
A. Clone an existing volume to a new, larger volume
B. You can only expand block volumes and not boot volumes
C. Expand an existing volume in place with offline resizing
D. Take a backup of your existing volume and restore from the volume back up to a larger volume
E. Expand an existing volume in place with online resizing
Correct Answer: ACD
The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Block Volume service lets you expand the size of block volumes and boot volumes. You
have three options to increase the size of your volumes:
Expand an existing volume in place with offline resizing. See Resizing a Volume Using the Console for the steps to do
this.
Restore from a volume backup to a larger volume. See Restoring a Backup to a New Volume and Restoring a Boot
Volume.
Clone an existing volume to a new, larger volume. See Cloning a Volume and Cloning a Boot Volume.

QUESTION 8
A company currently uses Microsoft Active Directory as its identity provider. The company recently purchased Oracle
Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) to leverage the cloud platform for its test and development operations. As the administrator,
you are now tasked with giving access only to developers so that they can start creating resources in their OCI
accounts. Which step will you perform to achieve this requirement?
A. Create a group for developers on OCI and map the group to a similar group in Microsoft Active Directory during the
federation process.
B. Federate all Microsoft Active Directory groups with OCI to allow users to use their existing credentials.
C. Create a new user account for each user and then create policies to provide access to developers.
D. Create a group for developers on OCI, export all the developers from Microsoft Active Directory, and then import
them into the Identity and Access Management (IAM) group.
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1073 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1073 exam

QUESTION 1
You face a supply request exception due to some reason. You realize that you need to make some changes to the
Manage Supply Request Exceptions page. Which action will you perform?
A. The supply request cannot be updated. The only way is to resolve the error in the source application and resubmit
the request.
B. Update the supply request and submit it. The errors will be resolved automatically.
C. The supply request can be updated using a third-party application only.
D. Update the supply request and make user errors are resolved before resubmitting it.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Your customer is a very large organization spanning across multiple countires. Their legal requirements, Human
Resource Policies, and Functional Currencies for Ledger are different for each country. Your customer wants to
maintain 10
different companies in the system.
Which combination meets this requirement?
A. 10 Enterprises, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger
B. 10 Enterprises, 1 Division, where each division has 10 legal entities and 1 ledger
C. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger D. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions,
where each division has its own ledger with common legal entity across all divisions
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
While negotiating the terms of the consignment agreement, the buyer and the supplier mutually agree to set the aging
onset point as receipt and the aging period as five days. The terms also say that the consumption advice will be
generated daily.
In which three scenarios will the goods be transferred from the supplier\\’s ownership to buyer\\’s ownership?
A. You received the goods today and you transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to owned transaction” task.
B. You received the goods today and after three days you transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to consigned
transaction” task.
C. You received the goods today and for the next one week you do not plan any action on the same.
D. You received the goods today and after six days you decide to transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to consigned transaction” task.
E. You received the goods today and you decide to issue the goods after three days without transferring the ownership.
F. You received the goods today and after four days you return the material to the supplier.
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 4
Identify three statements that are true about reservations in back-to-back processing.
A. Changes to reservation in Oracle Logistics Cloud leads to exceptions, which are displayed in the Supply Chain
Orchestration work area.
B. Reservation supplies that can be reserved are Purchase Orders, Transfer Orders, Work Orders, and On Hand
inventory.
C. Reservations cannot be created for back-to-back On Hand supply orders.
D. Partial fulfillment of reservations is supported.
E. One reservation is created for a demand and supply.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 5
In the Back-to-Back (B2B) Order to Cash flow, ordered items are purchased from a suplier. The Sourcing Rules have
been defined for the item and the buy flow has been initiated. The sales order line is shown as Awaiting Shipping and
the
supply line status is “In Purchasing” with the supply order generated but the purchase requisition not generating.
What is the reason?
A. Supply order is generated with exceptions.
B. The sourcing rule is incorrect.
C. Preparer is not valid.
D. Buy requests originate from Order Management.
E. No Blanket Purchase Agreement (BPA) exists for this supplier-item combination.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Your customer is managing a large sales team divided in two different geographies in the USA. They have the East
Coast sales team and the Central sales team. Both teams are handled by one manager and perform the same function.
Your customer wants to track the expenses of the two teams separately; however, they do not consider them different
as they are handled by one manager only.
How will you fulfill the requirement?
A. Define them as two separate departments and a single cost center.
B. Define them as one department and one cost center.
C. It is not possible to fulfill the requirement.
D. Define them as a single department and two separate cost centers.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
An inventory transaction is imported to the system through an FBDI template. Which transaction state denotes that an
inventory transaction is created in the Oracle Cloud Inventory Management application?
A. Validated
B. Created
C. Deferred
D. New
E. Staged
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A customer has one Business Unit, two Legal Entities, and each have eight warehouses (defined as Inventory Orgs).
While trying to set up Cost Organizations for each of these Legal Entities, you were unable to perform the mandatory
step of
assigning the Profit Center Business Unit for one set of eight Inventory Organizations; however, you could do it for the
other set.
What is the reason for this?
A. There is no Inventory Validation Organization defined.
B. There is no Business Unit associated with the Legal Entity.
C. The General Ledger is not associated with Business Unit.
D. The Business Unit is not enabled for Costing.
E. The Legal Entity Setup is incomplete.
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1080-20 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1080-20 exam

QUESTION 1
In Financials, you want to see asset related expenses such as depreciation, amortization, and insurance. Which
describes the steps you can take to set this up? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Set up the Equipment Expense Reporting Capex data map to map asset related expenses to Financials.
B. On the Configure page for Capital, select the option to map Capital accounts to financial accounts. Then for each
Capital account, select a financial account to map to.
C. On the Configure page for Financials, when enabling features, include a custom dimension to store asset related
information.
D. On the Configure page for Financials, select Asset Accounts to set up the accounts from Capital that map to
Financials.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgeting-cloud/epbca/GUID-71622AFDC1F0-4D40-A36F-85FA8AA305B6.pdf (8-6)

 

QUESTION 2
Which migration category is required to restore dimensional security? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Planning
B. Groups and Memberships
C. Reporting
D. Calculation Manager
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E57185_01/EASOH/ss_sec_mode.html

 

QUESTION 3
In Data Management, what are the steps you need to perform to synchronize the application metadata in the target
application? (Choose the best answer.)
A. In Data Management, navigate to Application Dimensions and click Refresh Dimensions.
B. In Data Management, navigate to Import Format and select your Planning application. Click Refresh Dimensions.
C. In Data Management, navigate to Target Application and select your Planning application. Click Refresh Members.
D. In Data Management, to Target Application and select your Planning application. Click Refresh Metadata.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/enterprise-performance-managementcommon/erpia/erpi_reg_target_app.html


QUESTION 4
What three tasks can you perform in the Data Management Workbench? (Choose three.)
A. Export
B. Validate
C. Maintain Process Tables
D. Import
E. Delete Integration
Correct Answer: ABD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/enterprise-performance-managementcommon/erpia/using_the_data_load_workbench.html

 

QUESTION 5
Which three do you need to enable in order to perform indirect cash flow statement planning? (Choose three.)
A. Expense
B. Cash Flow Statement
C. Income Statement
D. Balance Sheet
E. Revenue
Correct Answer: ABE
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgetingcloud/epbca/fin_enabling_cash_flow_100x49cf9a89.html

 

QUESTION 6
In order to be able to configure Additional Earnings in the Benefits and Taxes wizard, into which dimension do you have
to import members? Choose the best answer.
A. Pay Type
B. Property
C. Component
D. Account
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgetingcloud/epbca/wf_configuring_workforce__106xdb232ea8.html


QUESTION 7
Several users continuously use custom-created formulas in Excel to supplement their Planning form inputs. What is
another design alternative to reduce offline Excel maintenance? Choose the best answer.
A. Cell commentary
B. Reports
C. Ad hoc forms
D. Smart forms
E. Smart push
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E57185_01/SMVUG/ch13s12s02.html

 

QUESTION 8
Which three can be automated with EPMAutomate? (Choose three.)
A. Import user security
B. Run a Business Rule
C. Import a file into the Planning inbox
D. Migrate a backup between test and production
E. Send an email to users
Correct Answer: BCD

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