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Welcome to Oracle 1z0-808 practice test online

QUESTION 1
Given:

1z0-808 exam questions-q1

What is the result?
A. C2C2
B. C1C2
C. C1C1
D. Compilation fails
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Consider
Integer number = Integer.valueOff 808.1″);
Which is true about the above statement?
A. The value of the variable number will be 808.1
B. The value of the variable number will be 808
C. The value of the variable number will be 0.
D. A NumberFormatException will be throw.
E. It will not compile.
Correct Answer: D
The Integer class value of 0 returns an Integer from given string. But we need to pass string which has correct format for
integer otherwise it will throw a NumberFormatException. In this case we have passed string which is not an integer
value (since what we passed is fractional number), so option D is correct.


QUESTION 3
Given this code for the classes MyException and Test:

1z0-808 exam questions-q3

What is the result?
A. A
B. AB
C. A compile time error occurs at line n1.
D. B
E. I
Correct Answer: C

1z0-808 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
Given the fragments:

1z0-808 exam questions-q4

Which line causes a compilation error?
A. Line n1
B. Line n2
C. Line n3
D. Line n4
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Given the code fragments:

1z0-808 exam questions-q5

Which statement is true?
A. After line 11, three objects are eligible for garbage collection.
B. After line 11, two objects are eligible for garbage collection.
C. After line 11, one object is eligible for garbage collection.
D. After line 11, none of the objects are eligible for garbage collection.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Given the following code for a Planet object:

1z0-808 exam questions-q6

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Given the code fragments:

1z0-808 exam questions-q7

What is the result?
A. Super Sub Sub
B. Contract Contract Super
C. Compilation fails at line n1
D. Compilation fails at line n2
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Given the code fragment:

1z0-808 exam questions-q8

Which modification enables the code fragment to print TrueDone?
A. Replace line 5 With String result = “true”; Replace line 7 with case “true”:
B. Replace line 5 with boolean opt = l; Replace line 7 with case 1=
C. At line 9, remove the break statement.
D. Remove the default section.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Given:

1z0-808 exam questions-q9

What is the result?
A. 3 4 5 6
B. 3 4 3 6
C. 5 4 5 6
D. 3 6 4 6
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
Given the code fragment:

1z0-808 exam questions-q10

Which code fragment, inserted at line n1, prints The Top element: 30?

1z0-808 exam questions-q10-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Given the code fragment:

1z0-808 exam questions-q11

What is the result?
A. 3
B. 4
C. -1
D. Compilation fails.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Given:
public class Marklist {
int num;
public static void graceMarks(Marklist obj4) {
obj4.num += 10;
}
public static void main(String[] args) {
MarkList obj1 = new MarkList();
MarkList obj2 = obj1;
MarkList obj1 = null;
obj2.num = 60;
graceMarks(obj2);
}
}
How many objects are created in the memory runtime?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: obj1 and obj3.
when you do e2 = e1 you\\’re copying object references – you\\’re not making a copy of the object – and so the variables
e1 and e2 will both point to the same object.

QUESTION 13
Given:

1z0-808 exam questions-q13

What is the result?
A. 2 4 6 8
B. 2 4 6 8 9
C. 1 3 5 7
D. 1 3 5 7 9
Correct Answer: D

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Welcome to Oracle 1Z0-148 practice test online

QUESTION 1
The result cache is enabled for the database instance.
Examine the following code for a PL/SQL function:
CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION get_hire_date (emp_id NUMBER) RETURN VARCHAR
RESULT_CACHE RELIES_ON (HR.EMPLOYEES)
IS
date_hired DATE;
BEGIN
SELECT hire_date INTO date_hired
FROM HR.EMPLOYEES
WHERE EMPLOYEE_ID = emp_id;
RETURN TO_CHAR(date_hired);
END;
You notice that results for the functions are not used effectively. What do you recommend for better utilization of the
result cache? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Set the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter to FORCE.
B. Increase the value for the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_SIZE parameter.
C. Add a format mask parameter, such as RETURN TO_CHAR(date_hired, fmt) to GET_HIRE_DATE.
D. Change the return type of GET_HIRE_DATE to DATE and have each session invoke the TO_CHAR function.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
The database instance was recently started up. Examine the following parameter settings for the database instance:
NAME TYPE VALUE
………
result_cache_max_result integer 5
result_cache_max_size big integer 0
result_cache_mode string MANUAL
result_cache_remote_expiration integer 0
………
You reset the value for the result_cache_max_size parameter by issuing the following command:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET result_cache_max_size = 1056k SCOPE = BOTH;
System altered.
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. 1056 KB is allocated for the result cache and the result cache is enabled.
B. 1056 KB is allocated for the result cache, but the result cache is disabled.
C. The results for only the queries that have the RESULT_CACHE hint are cached.
D. The results for all the queries except those having the NO_RESULT_CACHE hint are cached.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
View the Exhibit and examine the code in the PL/SQL block.
The PL/SQL block generates an error on execution. What is the reason?

1z0-148 exam questions-q3

A. The DELETE(n) method cannot be used with varrays.
B. The DELETE(n) method cannot be used with nested tables.
C. The NEXT method cannot be used with an associative array with VARCHAR2 key values.
D. The NEXT method cannot be used with a nested table from which an element has been deleted.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which statement describes the purpose of the plshprof command?
A. It produces HTML output from raw profiler output.
B. It produces HTML output from profiler tables in the database.
C. It populates profiler tables in the database from raw profiler output.
D. It produces raw profiler output on the most recently run applications.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Identify two factors that you consider for compiling a PL/SQL program unit for interpreted mode. (Choose two.)
A. a PL/SQL program which needs to be recompiled frequently
B. a PL/SQL program that spends most of the time executing SQL
C. a PL/SQL program, which performs computation-intensive procedural operations and is recompiled rarely
D. a PL/SQL program, which is called frequently with the same parameter values by multiple sessions and is recompiled
rarely
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 6
Examine the structure of the DEPARTMENTS table. Name Null? Type
DEPARTMENT_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(4)
DEPARTMENT_NAME NOT NULL VARCHAR2(30)
LOCATION_ID NUMBER(4)
View the Exhibit and examine the code that you plan to use for creating a package to obtain the details of an employee
using a host variable on the client side.
In SQL*Plus, you plan to use the following commands:
SQL> VARIABLE x REFCURSOR
SQL> EXECUTE emp_data.get_emp(195,:x)
SQL> PRINT x
Which statement is true about the above scenario?

1z0-148 exam questions-q6

A. The package executes successfully and passes the required data to the host variable.
B. The package specification gives an error on compilation because cursor variable types cannot be defined in the
specification.
C. The package specification gives an error on compilation because the cursor variable parameter was specified before
you defined it.
D. The package executes successfully, but does not pass the required data to the host variable because the cursor is
closed before the PRINT statement runs.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
This result cache is enabled for the database instance. Examine this code for a PL/SQL function:

1z0-148 exam questions-q7

Which two actions would ensure that the same result will be consistently returned for any session when the same input
value is passed to the function?
A. Add a parameter, fmt, and change the RETURN statement to: RETURN TO_CHAR (date_hired, fmt);
B. Set the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter to FORCE.
C. Increase the value for the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_SIZE parameter.
D. Change the return type of GET_HIRE_DATE to DATE and have each session invoke the TO_CHAR function.
E. Set the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_RESULT parameter to 0.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
View the Exhibit and examine the settings for the PLSQL_CODE_TYPE parameter.
After sometime, the user recompiles the procedure DISPLAY_SAL_INFO by issuing the following command:
SQL> ALTER PROCEDURE display_sal_info COMPILE;
Which statement would be true in this scenario?

1z0-148 exam questions-q8

A. The procedure would be invalidated.
B. The procedure would remain as NATIVE code type.
C. The procedure would be changed to INTERPRETED code type.
D. The command would produce an error and the procedure must be compiled using the PLSQL_CODE_TYPE attribute
with value INTERPRETED.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Examine these statements:

1z0-148 exam questions-q9

Which two corrections will allow this anonymous block to execute successfully?
A. Add wk# .NEXT; before the 7thline.
B. Add i PLS_INTEGER; before the 3rdline.
C. Add wk#. EXTEND (1); before the 5thline.
D. Change line #2 to wk# tp_test# := tp_test# (tp_rec# ());
E. Replace lines 5 and 6 with wk# (i) := tp_rec# (i, i);
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 10
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table that exists in your schema. Name Null? Type
EMPLOYEE_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(6)
FIRST_NAME VARCHAR2(20)
LAST_NAME NOT NULL VARCHAR2(25)
JOB_ID NOT NULL VARCHAR2(10)
SALARY NUMBER(8,2)
COMMISSION_PCT NUMBER(2,2)
DEPARTMENT_ID NUMBER(4)
You successfully create a GET_MAX procedure to find the maximum salary in the department of a specified employee.
You then code a PL/SQL block to display the maximum salary in the departments of the first five employees in the
EMPLOYEES table.
View the Exhibit. Examine the procedure and the block of PL/SQL code.
What is the outcome of executing the block of PL/SQL code?

1z0-148 exam questions-q10

A. It executes successfully and gives the required output.
B. It gives an error because ROWNUM cannot be used in cursor definitions.
C. It gives an error because usage of the %ROWCOUNT attribute is not valid.
D. It executes successfully, but does not give the required output because the procedure call resets the %ROWCOUNT
value.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Identify three guidelines for the DBMS_ASSERT package. (Choose three.)
A. Prefix all calls to DBMS_ASSERT with the SYS schema name.
B. Embed DBMS_ASSERT verification routines inside the injectable string.
C. Escape single quotes when you use the ENQUOTE_LITERAL procedure.
D. Define and raise exceptions explicitly to handle DBMS_ASSERT exceptions.
E. Prefix all calls to DBMS_ASSERT with a schema name that owns the subprogram that uses the DBMS_ASSERT
package.
Correct Answer: ACD


QUESTION 12
Examine this code:
CREATE PROCEDURE list_products_dynamic(p_product_name VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL) AS
TYPE cv_pordtyp IS REF CUSRSOR;
cv cv_prodtyp;
v_prodname prod_info.name%TYPE;
v_listprice prod_info.price%TYPE;BEGIN
OPEN cv FOR \\’SELECT name, price FROM prod_info WHERE name LIKE “%\\’ ||p_product_name || \\’%\\'”;
LOOP
FETCH cv INFO v_prodname, v_listprice;
EXIT WHEN cv%NOTFOUND;
DBMS_OUTPU.PUT_LINE (\\’Product Info:\\’||v_prodname||\\’,\\’||v_listprice);
END LOOP;
CLOSE cv; END
Which two are valid correlations to the code to avoid or mitigate SQL Injection?
A. CREATE PROCEDURE list_products_dynamic (p_product_name VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL) AS TYPE
cv_pordtyp IS REF CURSOR; cv cv_prodtyp; v_prodname prod_info.name%TYPE; v_listprice prod_info.price%TYPE;
v_bind VARCHAR2 (400); BEGIN v_bind := ‘%’ | | p_product_name | | ‘%’; OPEN cv FOR ‘SELECT name, price
FROM prod_info WHERE name LIKE :b’ USING v_bind; LOOP FETCH cv INTO v_prodname, v_listprice; EXIT WHEN
cv%NOTFOUND; DBMS_OUTPU.PUT_LINE (‘Product Info: ‘ | | v_prodname | | ‘,’ | | v_listprice); END LOOP; CLOSE
cv; END;
B. CREATE PROCEDURE list_products_dynamic (p_product_name VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL) AS v_bind
VARCHAR2 (400); BEGIN v_bind := ‘%’ | | p_prodname | | ‘%’; FOR rec IN (‘SELECT name, price FROM prod_info
WHERE name like ‘ | | v_bind) LOOP DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE (‘Product Info: ’ | | rec.name | | ‘,’ | | rec.price);
END LOOP; END;
C. CREATE PROCEDURE list_products_dynamic (p_product_name VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL) AS TYPE
cv_pordtyp IS REF CURSOR; cv cv_prodtyp; v_prodname prod_info.name%TYPE; v_listprice prod_info.price%TYPE;
v_bind VARCHAR2 (400); BEGIN v_bind := ’’’%’ | | p_product_name | | ‘%’’’; OPEN cv FOR ‘SELECT name, price
FROM prod_info WHERE name LIKE ’ | | v_bind; LOOP FETCH cv INTO v_prodname, v_listprice; EXIT WHEN
cv%NOTFOUND; DBMS_OUTPU.PUT_LINE (‘Product Info: ‘ | | v_prodname | | ‘,’ | | v_listprice); END LOOP; CLOSE
cv; END;
D. CREATE PROCEDURE list_products_dynamic (p_product_name VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL) AS TYPE
cv_pordtyp IS REF CURSOR; cv cv_prodtyp; v_prodname prod_info.name%TYPE; v_listprice prod_info.price%TYPE;
v_bind VARCHAR2 (400); BEGIN v_bind := ‘%’ | | p_product_name | | ‘%’; OPEN cv FOR ‘SELECT name, price
FROM prod_info WHERE name LIKE ’ | | v_bind; LOOP FETCH cv INTO v_prodname, v_listprice; EXIT WHEN
cv%NOTFOUND; DBMS_OUTPU.PUT_LINE (‘Product Info: ‘ | | v_prodname | | ‘,’ | | v_listprice); END LOOP; CLOSE
cv; END;
E. CREATE PROCEDURE list_products_dynamic (p_product_name VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL) AS TYPE
cv_pordtyp IS REF CURSOR; cv cv_prodtyp; v_prodname prod_info.name%TYPE;
v_listprice prod_info.price%TYPE;
v_bind VARCHAR2 (400);
BEGIN
v_bind := DBMS_ASSERT.ENQUOTE_LITERAL (‘%’ | | p_product_name | | ‘%’);
OPEN cv FOR ‘SELECT name, price FROM prod_info WHERE name LIKE ’ | | v_bind;
LOOP
FETCH cv INTO v_prodname, v_listprice;
EXIT WHEN cv%NOTFOUND;
DBMS_OUTPU.PUT_LINE (‘Product Info: ‘ | | v_prodname | | ‘,’ | | v_listprice);
END LOOP;
CLOSE cv;
END;
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
Which two statements are true about the query results stored in the query result cache? (Choose two.)
A. If any of the tables used to build a query is modified by an ongoing transaction in the current session, the query result
is not cached.
B. A query result based on a read-consistent snapshot of data that is older than the latest committed version of the data
is not cached.
C. Adding the RESULT_CACHE hint to inline views enables optimizations between the outer query and the inline view,
and the query result is cached.
D. A query result for a query that has a bind variable is stored in the cache and is reused if the query is equivalent even
when the bind variable has a different value.
Correct Answer: AB

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Welcome to Oracle 1Z0-144 practice test online

QUESTION 1
Examine the following snippet of PL/SQL code:

1z0-144 exam questions-q1

Identify OPEN statements for opening the cursor that fetches the result set consisting of employees with JOB_ID as
`ST_CLERK\\’ and SALARY greater than 3000. (Choose three.)
A. OPEN c1 (NULL, 3000);
B. OPEN c1 (emp_job, 3000);
C. OPEN c1 (3000, emp_salary);
D. OPEN c1 (`ST_CLERK\\’, 3000)
E. OPEN c1 (emp_job, emp_salary);
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 2
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the SALGRADE table.

1z0-144 exam questions-q2

What is the outcome?
A. It is created successfully.
B. It gives an error because the return clause condition is invalid.
C. It gives an error because the usage of the host variables is invalid.
D. It gives an error because the data type of the return clause is invalid.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
ORDER_TOTAL is a column in the ORDERS table with the data type and size as NUMBER (8, 2). Examine the
following code:

1z0-144 exam questions-q3

Which statement is correct about the above code?
A. It gives an error in line 3.
B. It gives an error in line 4.
C. It gives an error in line 6.
D. It executes successfully and displays the output.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about triggers? (Choose two.)
A. All the triggers that are created on a table cannot be disabled simultaneously.
B. Any user who has the alter privilege on a table can create a trigger using that table.
C. Oracle provides a two-phase commit process whether a trigger updates tables in the local database or remote tables
in a distributed database.
D. Triggers become invalid if a dependent object, such as 3 stored subprogram that is invoked from the trigger body is
modified, and have to be manually recompiled before the next invocation.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which statements are true about PL/SQL procedures? (Choose two.)
A. Users with definer\\’s rights who are granted access to a procedure that updates a table must be granted access to
the table itself.
B. Reuse of parsed PL/SQL code that becomes available in the shared SQL area of the server avoids the parsing
overhead of SQL statements at run time.
C. Depending on the number of calls, multiple copies of the procedure are loaded into memory for execution by multiple
users to speed up performance.
D. A PL/SQL procedure executing on the Oracle database can call an external procedure or function that is written in a
different programming language, such as C or Java.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 6
Examine the following code: Which statement is true about the execution of the above code?

1z0-144 exam questions-q6

A. It executes and displays null.
B. It executes and the condition returns true.
C. It executes and control goes to the else statement.
D. It fails because no value is assigned to the v_myage variable.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Examine the following PL/SQL code:

1z0-144 exam questions-q7

The serveroutput is on for the session. Which statement is true about the execution of the code?
A. It displays NULL if no employee with employee_id 123 exists.
B. It produces the ORA-01403: no data found error if no employee with employee_id 123 exists.
C. It displays an error because the SELECT * INTO clause cannot be used to populate the PL/SQL record type.
D. The code executes successfully even if no employee with employee_id 123 exists and displays Record Not Found.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
View Exhibit 1 and examine the structure of the EMP and DEPT tables.

1z0-144 exam questions-q8

View Exhibit 2 and examine the trigger code that is defined on the DEPT table to enforce the UPDATE and DELETE
RESTRICT referential actions on the primary key of the DEPT table.

1z0-144 exam questions-q8-2

What is the outcome on compilation?
A. It compiles and executes successfully.
B. It gives an error on compilation because it is not a row-level trigger.
C. It gives an error on compilation because the EXCEPTION section is used in the trigger.
D. It compiles successfully but gives an error on execution because it is not a row-level trigger.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is the correct definition of the persistent state of a packaged variable?
A. It is a private variable defined in a procedure or function within a package body whose value is consistent within a
user session.
B. It is a public variable in a package specification whose value is consistent within a user session.
C. It is a private variable in a package body whose value is consistent across all current active sessions.
D. It is a public variable in a package specification whose value is always consistent across all current active sessions.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
View the Exhibit to examine the PL/SQL code.

1z0-144 exam questions-q10

SERVEROUTPUT is on for the session.
Which statement is true about the execution of the code?
A. The execution fails because of the misplaced else clause.
B. The execution is successful even if there is no employee with EMPLOYEE_ID 115.
C. The execution fails and throws exceptions if no employee with EMPLOYEE_ID 115 is found.
D. The execution is successful, but it displays an incorrect output if no employee with EMPLOYEE_ID 115 is found.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
Examine the following package specification.
SQL>CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE emp_pkf IS PROCEDURE search_emp (empdet NUMBER); PROCEDURE
search_emp (empdet DATE); PROCEDURE search_emp (empdet NUMBER); RETURN VERCHAR2 PROCEDURE
search_emp (empdet NUMBER); RETURN DATE END emp_pkg /
The package is compiled successfully
Why would it generate an error at run tune?
A. Because function cannot be overload.
B. Because function cannot differ only in return type.
C. Because all the functions and procedures in the package cannot have the same number of parameters with the same
parameter name.
D. Because the search EMP (EMPDET NUMBER) procedure and the SEARCH_DEPT (EMPDET NUMBER) cannot
have identical parameter names and data types.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
View Exhibit 1 and examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table.

1z0-144 exam questions-q12

User SCOTT needs to generate a text report that contains the names of all employees and their salaries.
Examine the following commands issued by the DBA:
SQL>CREATE DIRECTORY my_dir AS \\’/temp/my_files\\’;
SQL>GRANT WRITE ON DIRECTORY my_dir TO scott;
View Exhibit 2 and examine the procedure code.

1z0-144 exam questions-q12-2

You issue the following command:
SQL>EXEC sal_status (\\’MY_DIR\\’, `EMPREPORT.TXT\\’)
What is the outcome?
A. It executes successfully and creates the report.
B. It gives an error because the text file should be opened in append mode.
C. It gives an error because the “no data found” condition is not handled to come out of the loop.
D. It gives an error because user SCOTT should be granted both read and write privileges to the directory alias.
E. It executes but no data is written to the text file because the FFLUSH subprogram is not used to write all the data
buffered in memory to a file.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You execute the following block of code: Which statement is true about the outcome?

1z0-144 exam questions-q13

A. Both output statements show different values.
B. Both output statements show exactly the same values.
C. It gives an error because the nested blocks are not labeled.
D. It gives an error because the V_CUSTOMER variable cannot have different types in the nested blocks.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
You are managing this configuration:
1.
CDB1 is a container database.
2.
PDB1 and PDB2 are two pluggable databases in CDB1.
3.
USER1.EMP is a table in PDB1 and USER2.DEPT is a table in PDB2. CDB1 user SYS executes these commands
after connecting successfully to PDB2:

1z0-083 exam questions-q1

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. The inserts on USER1.EMP remain uncommitted when the session connected to PDB2.
B. The inserts on USER1.EMP were committed when the session inserted a row into USER2.DEPT.
C. The insert on USER2.DEPT fails because of the active transaction in the parent container.
D. The insert on USER2.DEPT is a recursive autonomous transaction by the child session and is committed.
E. The inserts on USER1.EMP were rolled back when the session connected to PDB2.
F. The insert on USER2.DEPT is uncommitted.
G. The inserts on USER1.EMP were committed when the session connected to PDB2.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Which three are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose three.)
A. By default, AWR snapshots are taken every 60 minutes.
B. Its collection level is determined by the value of the STATISTICS_LEVEL database parameter.
C. By default, AWR snapshots are retained for 7 days.
D. The taking of AWR snapshots can be disabled.
E. AWR data is stored in the SYSTEM tablespace.
Correct Answer: ABD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28320/initparams240.htm#REFRN10214

QUESTION 3
Which two are true about Oracle Optimizer Statistics, their use, and their collection? (Choose two.)
A. The number of table rows is considered when evaluating the cost of accessing a table using an index.
B. Index balanced B*Tree height is considered when evaluating the cost of using an index.
C. The Statistics Advisor can help recommend the best way to gather statistics.
D. Statistics collected using DBMS_STATS always yield the best optimizer result.
E. The Statistics Advisor generates actions for all recommendations.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/tgsql/optimizer-statistics-advisor.html#GUIDD81A7708-FDA0-45BB-A6E2-103858B047AE

QUESTION 4
Examine this configuration:
1.
CDB1 is an Oracle Database 12c Release 2 database containing pluggable databases PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2.
2.
PDB$SEED is open READ ONLY
3.
PDB1 is open READ WRITE
4.
PDB2 is MOUNTED.
5.
ORACLE_HOME is /u01/app/oracle/product/18.1.0/dbhome_1.
You execute these commands before upgrading the database to the current release:

1z0-083 exam questions-q4

For which databases will fixup scripts be created?
A. CDB1, PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2
B. PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2 only
C. CDB1 and PDB$SEED only
D. CDB1, PDB1, and PDB2 only
E. CDB1, PDB$SEED, and PDB1 only
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 5
Which two are true about server-generated alerts? (Choose two.)
A. Stateful alerts must be created by a DBA after resolving the problem.
B. Stateless alerts can be purged manually from the alert history.
C. Stateless alerts can be cleared manually.
D. Stateless alerts are automatically cleared.
E. Stateful alerts are purged automatically from the alert history.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://jameshuangsj.wordpress.com/2019/12/01/clears-stateless-alerts-in-oem-by-using-emcli/

QUESTION 6
Examine this configuration:
1.
CDB1 is a container database.
2.
PDB1 and PDB2 are pluggable databases in CDB1.
3.
PDB1 and PDB2 are OPEN in READ WRITE mode.
You execute these commands successfully:

1z0-083 exam questions-q6

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. Uncommitted transactions in PDB1 have been rolled back.
B. PDB1 is closed.
C. Uncommitted transactions in CDB1 and PDB1 have been rolled back.
D. CDB1 is shut down.
E. CDB1 is in MOUNT state
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Which three can be done using Oracle Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) starting from Oracle Database 19c?
(Choose three.)
A. cloning a remote container database in interactive mode
B. cloning a remote pluggable database in silent mode
C. relocating a remote pluggable database in interactive mode
D. relocating a remote container database in silent mode
E. cloning a remote container database in silent mode
F. relocating a remote pluggable database in silent mode
G. relocating a remote container database in interactive mode
Correct Answer: CEF
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/clone-pdbs-using-dbca-silent-mode/index.html?learningpath=trueandappuser=nobodyandappsession=170971049395andcontentid=26693andactivityname=Clone%
20PDBs% 20using%20DBCA%20in%20Silent%20Modeandeventid=6352

QUESTION 8
Which two are true about RMAN backups when using a media manager to write backups to tape when there are only
two tape drives? (Choose two.)
A. SBT tape compression can be used even if no RMAN compression is configured.
B. Any backup set written to the SBT device in this configuration can contain a maximum of two backup pieces.
C. Any backup written to the SBT device in this configuration can contain a maximum of two backup sets.
D. SBT tape compression and RMAN backup compression should be used in parallel.
E. The SBT device should be configured to use PARALLELISM 2 to allow both tape drive to be used simultaneously.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 9
Which two are true about the Oracle dataabse methodology? (Choose two.)
A. The Oracle Database time model should be used to find the database and instance areas most in need of tuning.
B. Tuning activities should stop once the user is satisfied with performance.
C. Tuning activities should stop once agreed service levels for performance have been met.
D. The database instance memory should always be tuned before tuning any file systems.
E. SQL statements should always be tuned before tuning any file systems.
F. The alert log should be used to find the database and instance areas most in need of tuning.
Correct Answer: CF
Reference: https://flylib.com/books/en/4.322.1.9/1/

QUESTION 10
You must transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace from one database to another.
The UNIVERSITY tablespace is currently open read/write.
The source and destination platforms have different endian formats.
Examine this list of actions:
1.
Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read-only on the source system.
2.
Export the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using EXPDP.
3.
Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data fies to the destination platform format using RMAN on the source system.
4.
Copy the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination system.
5.
Copy the Data Pump dump set to the destination system.
6.
Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination platform format using RMAN on the destination
system.
7.
Import the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using IMPDP.
8.
Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read/write on the destination system.
Which is the minimum number of actions required, in the correct order, to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace?
A. 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8
B. 1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 8
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
E. 2, 4, 5, 6, 7
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Examine the command for creating pluggable database PDB2 in container database CDB2.

1z0-083 exam questions-q11

Select three options, any one of which is required for it to execute successfully. (Choose three.)
A. Add the FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause to the statement and set the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter.
B. Add only the CREATE_FILE_DEST clause to the statement.
C. Set only the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter.
D. Set the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter and enable OMF.
E. Enable only OMF.
F. Add the FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause to the statement and enable Oracle Managed Files (OMF)
Correct Answer: BDE


QUESTION 12
A user complains about poor database performance.
You want to verify if the user\\’s session has waited for certain types of I/O activity.
Which view displays all waits waited on by a session at least once?
A. V$SESSION_EVENT
B. V$SESSTAT
C. V$SESSION_WAIT
D. V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS
E. V$SESSION
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E29597_01/server.1111/e16638/instance_tune.htm

QUESTION 13
Examine this configuration:
1.
CDB1 is a container database.
2.
COMMON_USER_PREFIX is C##.
3.
PDB1 is a pluggable database contained in CDB1.
4.
APP1_ROOT is an application container contained in CDB1.
5.
APP1_PDB1 is an application PDB contained in APP1_ROOT.
You execute these commands successfully:

1z0-083 exam questions-q13

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. APP1_USER1 can be created in PDB1.
B. APP1_USER1 can be created in CDB1.
C. APP1_USER1 can have different privileges in each Application PDB contained in APP1_ROOT.
D. C##_APP_USER1 can be created in CDB1.
E. P1_USER1 can be created in CDB1.
F. C##_USER1 will have the same privileges and roles granted in all PDBs in CDB1.
Correct Answer: CF

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QUESTION 1
How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions?
A. It enables HSRP to elect another switch in the group as the active HSRP switch.
B. It ensures fast failover in the case of link failure.
C. It enables data forwarding along known routes following a switchover, white the routing protocol reconverges.
D. It enables HSRP to failover to the standby RP on the same device.
Correct Answer: D

350-401 exam questions-q1

QUESTION 2
What is the role of the RP in PIM sparse mode?
A. The RP responds to the PIM join messes with the source of requested multicast group
B. The RP maintains default aging timeouts for all multicast streams requested by the receivers.
C. The RP acts as a control-plane node and does not receive or forward multicast packets.
D. The RP is the multicast that is the root of the PIM-SM shared multicast distribution tree.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

350-401 exam questions-q3

The WLC administrator sees that the controller to which a roaming client associates has Mobility Role Anchor
configured under Clients > Detail. Which type of roaming is supported?
A. Indirect
B. Layer 3 intercontroller
C. Layer 2 intercontroller
D. Intercontroller
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which LISP device is responsible for publishing EID-to-RLOC mappings for a site?
A. ETR
B. MS
C. ITR
D. MR
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/locator-id-separation-protocollisp/white_paper_c11-652502.html


QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of an RP in PIM?
A. send join messages toward a multicast source SPT
B. ensure the shortest path from the multicast source to the receiver.
C. receive IGMP joins from multicast receivers.
D. secure the communication channel between the multicast sender and receiver.
Correct Answer: D

350-401 exam questions-q5

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

350-401 exam questions-q6

A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR
election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0.
Which configuration set accomplishes this goal?
A. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point
B. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast
C. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out
D. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf priority 1
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf priority 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to this output. What is the logging severity level?
R1#Feb 14 37:15:12:429: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN Line protocol on interface GigabitEthernet0/1. Change state to
up
A. Notification
B. Alert
C. Critical
D. Emergency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
When a wired client connects to an edge switch in an SDA fabric, which component decides whether the client has
access to the network?
A. control-plane node
B. Identity Service Engine
C. RADIUS server
D. edge node
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
Which access controls list allows only TCP traffic with a destination port range of 22-433, excluding port 80?
A. Deny tcp any any eq 80 Permit tco any any gt 21 it 444
B. Permit tcp any any ne 80
C. Permit tco any any range 22 443 Deny tcp any any eq 80
D. Deny tcp any any ne 80 Permit tcp any any range 22 443
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What are two benefit of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in data center environment? (Choose two.)
A. Increased security
B. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements
C. reduced IP and MAC address requirements
D. speedy deployment
E. smaller Layer 2 domain
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two.)
A. core switch
B. vBond controller
C. edge node
D. access switch
E. border node
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion?
A. It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate.
B. It buffers and queue packets above the committed rate.
C. It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery.
D. It drops packets randomly from lower priority queues.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/quality-of-service-qos/qos-policing/19645-policevsshape.html


QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.
Select and Place:

350-401 exam questions-q13

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1072 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1072 exam

QUESTION 1
Your application consists of three Oracle Cloud Infrastructure compute instances running behind a public load balancer.
You have configured the load balancer to perform health checks on these instances, but one of the three instances fails
to pass the configured health check. Which of the following action will the load balancer perform?
A. Stop sending traffic to the instance that failed health check
B. B. Terminate the instance that failed health check
C. C. Stop the instances that failed health check
D. D. Remove the instance that failed the health check from the backend set
Correct Answer: A
health check A test to confirm the availability of backend servers. A health check can be a request or a connection
attempt. Based on a time interval you specify, the load balancer applies the health check policy to continuously monitor
backend servers. If a server fails the health check, the load balancer takes the server temporarily out of rotation. If the
server subsequently passes the health check, the load balancer returns it to the rotation.
You configure your health check policy when you create a backend set. You can configure TCP-level or HTTP-level
health checks for your backend servers.

TCP-level health checks attempt to make a TCP connection with the backend servers and validate the response based
on the connection status.

HTTP-level health checks send requests to the backend servers at a specific URI and validate the response based on
the status code or entity data (body) returned. The service provides application-specific health check capabilities to help
you increase availability and reduce your application maintenance window.


QUESTION 2
You have a working application in the US East region. The app is a 3-tier app with a database backend – you take
regular backups of the database into OCI Object Storage in the US East region. For Business continuity; you are
leveraging OCI Object Storage cross-region copy feature to copy database backups to the US West region. Which of
the following three steps do you need to execute to meet your requirement?
A. Write an IAM policy and authorize the Object Storage service to manage objects on your behalf
B. Specify an existing destination bucket
C. Specify the bucket visibility for both the source and destination buckets
D. D. Provide a destination object name
E. E. Provide an option to choose bulk copying of objects
F. F. Choose an overwrite rule
Correct Answer: ABF
You can copy objects to other buckets in the same region and to buckets in other regions.
You must have the required access to both the source and destination buckets when performing an object copy. You
must also have permissions to manage objects in the source and destination buckets.
Because Object Storage is a regional service, you must authorize the Object Storage service for each region carrying
out copy operations on your behalf. For example, you might authorize the Object Storage service in region US East
(Ashburn) to manage objects on your behalf. Once you authorize the Object Storage service, you can copy an object
stored in a US East (Ashburn) bucket to a bucket in another region.
You can use overwrite rules to control the copying of objects based on their entity tag (ETag) values.
Specify an existing target bucket for the copy request. The copy operation does not automatically create buckets.

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage Service? (Choose two.)
A. It provides higher IOPS than Block Storage.
B. It can be directly attached or detached from a compute instance.
C. Data is stored redundantly only in a single AD.
D. Data is stored redundantly across multiple availability domains (ADs).
E. It provides strong consistency.
Correct Answer: DE
STRONG CONSISTENCYWhen a read request is made, Object Storage always serves the most recent copy of the
data that was written to the system.DURABILITYObject Storage is a regional service. Data is stored redundantly across
multiple storage servers. Object Storage actively monitors data integrity using checksums and automatically detects and
repairs corrupt data. Object Storage actively monitors and ensures data redundancy. If a redundancy loss is detected,
Object Storage automatically creates more data copies. For more details about Object Storage durability, see the Oracle
Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage FAQ.CUSTOM METADATAYou can define your own extensive metadata as key-value pairs for any purpose. For example, you can create descriptive tags for objects, retrieve those tags, and sort
through the data. You can assign custom metadata to objects and buckets using the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI or
SDK. See Software Development Kits and Command Line Interface for details.ENCRYPTIONObject Storage employs
256-bit Advanced Encryption Standard (AES-256) to encrypt object data on the server. Each object is encrypted with its
own key. Data encryption keys are encrypted with a master encryption key that is frequently rotated. Encryption is
enabled by default and cannot be turned off.

QUESTION 4
A customer wants to do development on-premise while leveraging services such as Java Cloud, Mobile Developer
Cloud, and App Builder Services. The customer would also like to scale out the application, stretching from on-premises
to the cloud by using a common API.
Which two Infrastructure options can the customer leverage to do this? (Choose two.)
A. Oracle Cloud at Customer
B. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Classic
C. Oracle Cloud Ravello service
D. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which option lists Virtual Cloud Networks (VCNs) that can be peered?
A. VCN A (172.16.0.0/24) and VCN B (172.16.0.0/28)
B. VCN A (10.0.0.0/16) and VCN B (10.1.0.0/16)
C. VCN A (10.0.2.0/16) and VCN B (10.0.2.0/25)
D. VCN A (10.0.0.0/16) and VCN B (10.0.16.0/24)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are about to upload log file (5 TiB size) to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure object storage and have decided to use
multipart upload capability for a more efficient and resilient upload. Which two statements are true about multipart
upload? (Choose two.)
A. Individual object parts can be as small as 10 MiB or as large as 50 GiB
B. While a multipart upload is still active, you cannot add parts even if the total number of parts is less than 10,000
C. The maximum size for an uploaded object is 10 TiB
D. You do not have to commit the upload after you have uploaded all the object parts
Correct Answer: AC
With multipart upload, you split the object you want to upload into individual parts. Individual parts can be as large as 50
GiB or as small as 10 MiB. (Object Storage waives the minimum part size restriction for the last uploaded part.) Decide
what part number you want to use for each part. Part numbers can range from 1 to 10,000. You do not need to assign
contiguous numbers, but Object Storage constructs the object by ordering part numbers in ascending order.
The maximum size for an uploaded object is 10 TiB
While a multipart upload is still active, you can keep adding parts as long as the total number is less than 10,000.

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about encryption on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)? (Choose two.)
A. By default, object storage and block storage are encrypted at rest.
B. A customer is responsible for data encryption in all services of OCI.
C. By default, DB Systems offers an encrypted database.
D. By default, NVMe drives are encrypted but the block volume service is not.
Correct Answer: AC
References: https://cloud.oracle.com/storage/object-storage/features


QUESTION 8
You have an instance running in a development compartment that needs to make API calls against other OCI services,
but you do not want to configure user credentials or store a configuration file on the instance. How can you meet this
requirement?
A. Create a dynamic group with matching rules to include your instance
B. B. Instances can automatically make calls to other OCI services
C. C. Instances are secure and cannot make calls to other OCI services
D. D. Create a dynamic group with matching rules to include your instance and write a policy for this dynamic group
Correct Answer: D
Dynamic groups allow you to group Oracle Cloud Infrastructure computer instances as “principal” actors (similar to user
groups).
When you create a dynamic group, rather than adding members explicitly to the group, you instead define a set of
matching rules to define the group members. For example, a rule could specify that all instances in a particular
compartment are members of the dynamic group. The members can change dynamically as instances are launched and
terminated in that compartment.
A dynamic group has no permissions until you write at least one policy that gives that dynamic group permission to
either the tenancy or a compartment. When writing the policy, you can specify the dynamic group by using either the
unique name or the dynamic group\\’s OCID. Per the preceding note, even if you specify the dynamic group name in the
policy, IAM internally uses the OCID to determine the dynamic group.

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1072-20 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1072-20 exam

QUESTION 1
Which service is NOT supported by Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI?
A. load balancer
B. compute
C. database
D. block volumes
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/API/Concepts/cliconcepts.htm#services


QUESTION 2
Why are two subnets required to create a public load balancer when additional subnets are often used for back-end
servers? (Choose two.)
A. Routing is simpler when the load balancer is not in the same subnet as the back-end server.
B. Performance is higher when more subnets are used.
C. Additional subnets for back-end servers allow for separate route tables for these servers.
D. Additional subnets for back-end servers allow for separate security lists for these servers.
Correct Answer: BD
References:
http://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/obe/cloud/ocis/load-balancer/load-balancer.html


QUESTION 3
Which two choices are true for Autonomous Data Warehouse (ADW)? (Choose two.)
A. Billing stops only when the ADW is terminated
B. Billing stops for both CPU usage and storage usage when ADW is stopped
C. Billing for computing stops when ADW is stopped
D. Billing for storage continues when ADW is stopped
Correct Answer: CD
When Autonomous Database instance is stopped, CPU billing is halted based on full-hour cycles of usage Billing for storage continues as long as the service instance
exists. and When the Autonomous Database instance is started, the CPU billing is initiated

QUESTION 4
You have the following compartment structure in your tenancy. Root compartment->Training- >Training-subl ->Trainingsub2 You create a policy in the root compartment to allow the default admin for the account (Administrators) to manage
block volumes in compartment Training-sub2.
What policy would you write to meet this requirement?
A. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in the root compartment
B. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in compartment Training-sub1: Training- sub2
C. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in compartment Training: Training-sub 1 : Training-sub2
D. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in compartment Training-sub2
Correct Answer: C
a policy statement must specify the compartment for which access is being granted (or the tenancy). Where you create
the policy determines who can update the policy. If you attach the policy to the compartment or its parent, you can
simply specify the compartment name. If you attach the policy further up the hierarchy, you must specify the path. The
format of the path is each compartment name (or OCID) in the path, separated by a colon::: . . . For example, assume
you have a three-level compartment hierarchy, shown here:

Pass4itsure 1z0-1072-20 exam questions-q4

You want to create a policy to allow NetworkAdmins to manage VCNs in CompartmentC. If you want to attach this policy
to CompartmentC or to its parent, CompartmentB, write this policy statement:
Allow group NewtworkAdmins to manage virtual-network-family in compartment CompartmentC However, if you want to
attach this policy to CompartmentA (so that only administrators of CompartmentA can modify it), write this policy
statement that specifies the path:
Allow group NewtworkAdmins to manage virtual-network-family in compartment CompartmentB:CompartmentC
To attach this policy to the tenancy, write this policy statement that specifies the path from CompartmentA to
CompartmentC:
Allow group NewtworkAdmins to manage virtual-network-family in compartment
CompartmentA:CompartmentB:CompartmentC

 

QUESTION 5
Which five are the required parameters to launch an instance in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure? (Choose five.)
A. subnet
B. Availability Domain
C. Virtual Cloud Network
D. host name
E. instance shape
F. image operating system
G. private IP address
Correct Answer: ABCEF
References: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/Compute/Concepts/computeoverview.htm


QUESTION 6
A company currently uses Microsoft Active Directory as its identity provider. The company recently subscribed to Oracle
Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) to leverage the cloud platform for test and development. As the administrator, you configured
the OCI tenancy to be federated with Microsoft Active Directory. Now you need to give access to developers so that
they can start creating resources in their OCI accounts.
Which step will you perform to make sure you are not duplicating user creation inside of OCI tenancy?
A. Create a group for developers on OCI and map the group to a similar group in Microsoft Active Directory during the
federation process.
B. Create a new user account in OCI for each user, and then create policies to provide access to developers.
C. Create a group for developers on OCI, export all the developers from Microsoft Active Directory, and then import
them into the Identity and Access Management (IAM) group.
D. Create a single user account in OCI, and then create policies to provide access to developers to this single account.
Correct Answer: A
When working with your IdP, your administrator defines groups and assigns each user to one or more groups according
to the type of access the user needs. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure also uses the concept of groups (in conjunction with
IAM policies) to define the type of access a user has. As part of setting up the relationship with the IdP, your
administrator can map each IdP group to a similarly defined IAM group, so that your company can re-use the IdP group
definitions when authorizing user access to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure resources.

QUESTION 7
The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Block Volume service lets you expand the size of the block and boot volumes. Which three
options below can you use to increase the size of your block volumes?
A. Clone an existing volume to a new, larger volume
B. You can only expand block volumes and not boot volumes
C. Expand an existing volume in place with offline resizing
D. Take a backup of your existing volume and restore from the volume back up to a larger volume
E. Expand an existing volume in place with online resizing
Correct Answer: ACD
The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Block Volume service lets you expand the size of block volumes and boot volumes. You
have three options to increase the size of your volumes:
Expand an existing volume in place with offline resizing. See Resizing a Volume Using the Console for the steps to do
this.
Restore from a volume backup to a larger volume. See Restoring a Backup to a New Volume and Restoring a Boot
Volume.
Clone an existing volume to a new, larger volume. See Cloning a Volume and Cloning a Boot Volume.

QUESTION 8
A company currently uses Microsoft Active Directory as its identity provider. The company recently purchased Oracle
Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) to leverage the cloud platform for its test and development operations. As the administrator,
you are now tasked with giving access only to developers so that they can start creating resources in their OCI
accounts. Which step will you perform to achieve this requirement?
A. Create a group for developers on OCI and map the group to a similar group in Microsoft Active Directory during the
federation process.
B. Federate all Microsoft Active Directory groups with OCI to allow users to use their existing credentials.
C. Create a new user account for each user and then create policies to provide access to developers.
D. Create a group for developers on OCI, export all the developers from Microsoft Active Directory, and then import
them into the Identity and Access Management (IAM) group.
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1073 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1073 exam

QUESTION 1
You face a supply request exception due to some reason. You realize that you need to make some changes to the
Manage Supply Request Exceptions page. Which action will you perform?
A. The supply request cannot be updated. The only way is to resolve the error in the source application and resubmit
the request.
B. Update the supply request and submit it. The errors will be resolved automatically.
C. The supply request can be updated using a third-party application only.
D. Update the supply request and make user errors are resolved before resubmitting it.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Your customer is a very large organization spanning across multiple countires. Their legal requirements, Human
Resource Policies, and Functional Currencies for Ledger are different for each country. Your customer wants to
maintain 10
different companies in the system.
Which combination meets this requirement?
A. 10 Enterprises, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger
B. 10 Enterprises, 1 Division, where each division has 10 legal entities and 1 ledger
C. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger D. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions,
where each division has its own ledger with common legal entity across all divisions
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
While negotiating the terms of the consignment agreement, the buyer and the supplier mutually agree to set the aging
onset point as receipt and the aging period as five days. The terms also say that the consumption advice will be
generated daily.
In which three scenarios will the goods be transferred from the supplier\\’s ownership to buyer\\’s ownership?
A. You received the goods today and you transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to owned transaction” task.
B. You received the goods today and after three days you transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to consigned
transaction” task.
C. You received the goods today and for the next one week you do not plan any action on the same.
D. You received the goods today and after six days you decide to transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to consigned transaction” task.
E. You received the goods today and you decide to issue the goods after three days without transferring the ownership.
F. You received the goods today and after four days you return the material to the supplier.
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 4
Identify three statements that are true about reservations in back-to-back processing.
A. Changes to reservation in Oracle Logistics Cloud leads to exceptions, which are displayed in the Supply Chain
Orchestration work area.
B. Reservation supplies that can be reserved are Purchase Orders, Transfer Orders, Work Orders, and On Hand
inventory.
C. Reservations cannot be created for back-to-back On Hand supply orders.
D. Partial fulfillment of reservations is supported.
E. One reservation is created for a demand and supply.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 5
In the Back-to-Back (B2B) Order to Cash flow, ordered items are purchased from a suplier. The Sourcing Rules have
been defined for the item and the buy flow has been initiated. The sales order line is shown as Awaiting Shipping and
the
supply line status is “In Purchasing” with the supply order generated but the purchase requisition not generating.
What is the reason?
A. Supply order is generated with exceptions.
B. The sourcing rule is incorrect.
C. Preparer is not valid.
D. Buy requests originate from Order Management.
E. No Blanket Purchase Agreement (BPA) exists for this supplier-item combination.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Your customer is managing a large sales team divided in two different geographies in the USA. They have the East
Coast sales team and the Central sales team. Both teams are handled by one manager and perform the same function.
Your customer wants to track the expenses of the two teams separately; however, they do not consider them different
as they are handled by one manager only.
How will you fulfill the requirement?
A. Define them as two separate departments and a single cost center.
B. Define them as one department and one cost center.
C. It is not possible to fulfill the requirement.
D. Define them as a single department and two separate cost centers.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
An inventory transaction is imported to the system through an FBDI template. Which transaction state denotes that an
inventory transaction is created in the Oracle Cloud Inventory Management application?
A. Validated
B. Created
C. Deferred
D. New
E. Staged
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A customer has one Business Unit, two Legal Entities, and each have eight warehouses (defined as Inventory Orgs).
While trying to set up Cost Organizations for each of these Legal Entities, you were unable to perform the mandatory
step of
assigning the Profit Center Business Unit for one set of eight Inventory Organizations; however, you could do it for the
other set.
What is the reason for this?
A. There is no Inventory Validation Organization defined.
B. There is no Business Unit associated with the Legal Entity.
C. The General Ledger is not associated with Business Unit.
D. The Business Unit is not enabled for Costing.
E. The Legal Entity Setup is incomplete.
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1080-20 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1080-20 exam

QUESTION 1
In Financials, you want to see asset related expenses such as depreciation, amortization, and insurance. Which
describes the steps you can take to set this up? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Set up the Equipment Expense Reporting Capex data map to map asset related expenses to Financials.
B. On the Configure page for Capital, select the option to map Capital accounts to financial accounts. Then for each
Capital account, select a financial account to map to.
C. On the Configure page for Financials, when enabling features, include a custom dimension to store asset related
information.
D. On the Configure page for Financials, select Asset Accounts to set up the accounts from Capital that map to
Financials.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgeting-cloud/epbca/GUID-71622AFDC1F0-4D40-A36F-85FA8AA305B6.pdf (8-6)

 

QUESTION 2
Which migration category is required to restore dimensional security? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Planning
B. Groups and Memberships
C. Reporting
D. Calculation Manager
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E57185_01/EASOH/ss_sec_mode.html

 

QUESTION 3
In Data Management, what are the steps you need to perform to synchronize the application metadata in the target
application? (Choose the best answer.)
A. In Data Management, navigate to Application Dimensions and click Refresh Dimensions.
B. In Data Management, navigate to Import Format and select your Planning application. Click Refresh Dimensions.
C. In Data Management, navigate to Target Application and select your Planning application. Click Refresh Members.
D. In Data Management, to Target Application and select your Planning application. Click Refresh Metadata.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/enterprise-performance-managementcommon/erpia/erpi_reg_target_app.html


QUESTION 4
What three tasks can you perform in the Data Management Workbench? (Choose three.)
A. Export
B. Validate
C. Maintain Process Tables
D. Import
E. Delete Integration
Correct Answer: ABD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/enterprise-performance-managementcommon/erpia/using_the_data_load_workbench.html

 

QUESTION 5
Which three do you need to enable in order to perform indirect cash flow statement planning? (Choose three.)
A. Expense
B. Cash Flow Statement
C. Income Statement
D. Balance Sheet
E. Revenue
Correct Answer: ABE
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgetingcloud/epbca/fin_enabling_cash_flow_100x49cf9a89.html

 

QUESTION 6
In order to be able to configure Additional Earnings in the Benefits and Taxes wizard, into which dimension do you have
to import members? Choose the best answer.
A. Pay Type
B. Property
C. Component
D. Account
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgetingcloud/epbca/wf_configuring_workforce__106xdb232ea8.html


QUESTION 7
Several users continuously use custom-created formulas in Excel to supplement their Planning form inputs. What is
another design alternative to reduce offline Excel maintenance? Choose the best answer.
A. Cell commentary
B. Reports
C. Ad hoc forms
D. Smart forms
E. Smart push
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E57185_01/SMVUG/ch13s12s02.html

 

QUESTION 8
Which three can be automated with EPMAutomate? (Choose three.)
A. Import user security
B. Run a Business Rule
C. Import a file into the Planning inbox
D. Migrate a backup between test and production
E. Send an email to users
Correct Answer: BCD

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ITIL Certification ITILFND Exam Questions Answers

ITIL ITILFND practice exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all services that
are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A. Service level management
B. Service catalogue management
C. Demand management
D. Service transition
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which is a definition of a risk cause?
A. The impact of a risk on the stage and project tolerance
B. The source of a risk
C. The overall effect of a risk on the Business Case
D. How likely a risk is to occur in a given project situation
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
What is a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve, without the
customer having to manage specific costs and risks?
A. Service management
B. Continual improvement
C. A service
D. An IT asset
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which of the following would commonly be in a contract underpinning an IT service?
(1)
Marketing information
(2)Contract description and scope
(3)Responsibilities and dependencies
A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
None of the above
Correct Answer: C
 

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?
A. To prevent problems and their resultant Incidents
B. To manage problems throughout their lifecycle
C. To restore service to a user
D. To eliminate recurring incidents
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a data centre?
A. Technical management
B. Service desk
C. Application management
D. Facilities management
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
What is the BEST description of the CSI register?
A. It is a record of all authorized changes and their planned implementation dates
B. It is a record of proposed improvement opportunities and the benefits that will be achieved
C. It is a record of new services to be approved by a customer, including proposed implementation dates
D. It is a record of completed improvements and the relevant customer satisfaction metric
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?
A. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI) or IT service
B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT service
C. The unknown cause of one or more incidents that have an impact on an IT service
D. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an incident or problem
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
Which statement BEST describes the value of the service transition stage to the business?
A. It supports the creation of a catalogue of services?
B. It leads to gradual and continual improvement in service quality
C. It ensures the production of more successful service designs
D. It results in higher volumes of successful change
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two elements of financial management for IT services are mandatory?
A. Budgeting and charging
B. Accounting and charging
C. Budgeting and accounting
D. Costing and charging
Correct Answer: C

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Palo Alto Networks Palo Alto Certifications and Accreditations PCNSA ITILFND Exam Questions Answers

Palo Alto Networks Palo Alto Certifications and Accreditations PCNSA practice exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are correct about App-ID content updates? (Choose two.)
A. Updated application content may change how security policy rules are enforced
B. After an application content update, new applications must be manually classified prior to use
C. Existing security policy rules are not affected by application content updates
D. After an application content update, new applications are automatically identified and classified
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 2
Which interface type is part of a Layer 3 zone with a Palo Alto Networks firewall?
A. Management
B. High Availability
C. Aggregate
D. Aggregation
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Which Palo Alto Networks firewall security platform provides network security for mobile endpoints by inspecting traffic
deployed as internet gateways?
A. GlobalProtect
B. AutoFocus
C. Aperture
D. Panorama
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
Match the Palo Alto Networks Security Operating Platform architecture to its description.
Select and Place:

vcekey PCNSA exam questions-q4

QUESTION 5
Which administrator receives a global notification for a new malware that infects hosts. The infection will result in the
infected host attempting to contact and command-and-control (C2) server.
Which security profile components will detect and prevent this threat after the firewall`s signature database has been
updated?
A. antivirus profile applied to outbound security policies
B. data filtering profile applied to inbound security policies
C. data filtering profile applied to outbound security policies
D. vulnerability profile applied to inbound security policies
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
What are two differences between an implicit dependency and an explicit dependency in App-ID? (Choose two.)
A. An implicit dependency does not require the dependent application to be added in the security policy
B. An implicit dependency requires the dependent application to be added in the security policy
C. An explicit dependency does not require the dependent application to be added in the security policy
D. An explicit dependency requires the dependent application to be added in the security policy
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 7
An internal host wants to connect to servers of the internet through using source NAT. Which policy is required to
enable source NAT on the firewall?
A. NAT policy with source zone and destination zone specified
B. post-NAT policy with external source and any destination address
C. NAT policy with no source of destination zone selected
D. pre-NAT policy with external source and any destination address
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which type of security rule will match traffic between the Inside zone and Outside zone, within the Inside zone, and
within the Outside zone?
A. global
B. intrazone
C. interzone
D. universal
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://knowledgebase.paloaltonetworks.com/KCSArticleDetail?id=kA10g000000ClomCAC

QUESTION 9
Which two configuration settings shown are not the default? (Choose two.)

vcekey PCNSA exam questions-q9

A. Enable Security Log
B. Server Log Monitor Frequency (sec)
C. Enable Session
D. Enable Probing
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://docs.paloaltonetworks.com/pan-os/8-0/pan-os-web-interface-help/user-identification/device-useridentification-user-mapping/enable-server-monitoring


QUESTION 10
Which path in PAN-OS 9.0 displays the list of port-based security policy rules?
A. Policies> Security> Rule Usage> No App Specified
B. Policies> Security> Rule Usage> Port only specified
C. Policies> Security> Rule Usage> Port-based Rules
D. Policies> Security> Rule Usage> Unused Apps
Correct Answer: C

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ISC Certification SSCP Exam Questions Answers

ISC SSCP practice exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is less likely to accompany a contingency plan, either within the plan itself or in the form of an
appendix?
A. Contact information for all personnel.
B. Vendor contact information, including offsite storage and alternate site.
C. Equipment and system requirements lists of the hardware, software, firmware and other resources required to
support system operations.
D. The Business Impact Analysis.
Correct Answer: A
Why is this the correct answer? Simply because it is WRONG, you would have contact information for your emergency
personnel within the plan but NOT for ALL of your personnel. Be careful of words such as ALL.
According to NIST\\’s Special publication 800-34, contingency plan appendices provide key details not contained in the
main body of the plan. The appendices should reflect the specific technical, operational, and management contingency
requirements of the given system. Contact information for recovery team personnel (not all personnel) and for vendor
should be included, as well as detailed system requirements to allow for supporting of system operations. The Business
Impact Analysis (BIA) should also be included as an appendix for reference should the plan be activated.
Reference(s) used for this question:
SWANSON, Marianne, and al., National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), NIST Special Publication
800-34, Contingency Planning Guide for Information Technology Systems


QUESTION 2
In a stateful inspection firewall, data packets are captured by an inspection engine that is operating at the:
A. Network or Transport Layer.
B. Application Layer.
C. Inspection Layer.
D. Data Link Layer.
Correct Answer: A
Most stateful packet inspection firewalls work at the network or transport layers. For the TCP/IP protcol, this allows the
firewall to make decisions both on IP addresses, protocols and TCP/UDP port numbers
Application layer is incorrect. This is too high in the OSI stack for this type of firewall.
Inspection layer is incorrect. There is no such layer in the OSI stack.
“Data link layer” is incorrect. This is too low in the OSI stack for this type of firewall.
References:
CBK, p. 466
AIO3, pp. 485 – 486


QUESTION 3
A momentary high voltage is a:
A. spike
B. blackout
C. surge
D. fault
Correct Answer: A
Too much voltage for a short period of time is a spike.
Too much voltage for a long period of time is a surge.
Not enough voltage for a short period of time is a sag or dip
Not enough voltage for a long period of time is brownout
A short power interruption is a fault
A long power interruption is a blackout
You MUST know all of the power issues above for the purpose of the exam.
From: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, 3rd. Edition McGraw- Hill/Osborne, 2005, page 368.


QUESTION 4
What protocol is used on the Local Area Network (LAN) to obtain an IP address from it\\’s known MAC address?
A. Reverse address resolution protocol (RARP)
B. Address resolution protocol (ARP)
C. Data link layer
D. Network address translation (NAT)
Correct Answer: A
The reverse address resolution protocol (RARP) sends out a packet including a MAC address and a request to be
informed of the IP address that should be assigned to that MAC.
Diskless workstations do not have a full operating system but have just enough code to know how to boot up and
broadcast for an IP address, and they may have a pointer to the server that holds the operating system. The diskless
workstation knows its hardware address, so it broadcasts this information so that a listening server can assign it the
correct IP address.
As with ARP, Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) frames go to all systems on the subnet, but only the RARP
server responds. Once the RARP server receives this request, it looks in its table to see which IP address matches the
broadcast hardware address. The server then sends a message that contains its IP address back to the requesting
computer. The system now has an IP address and can function on the network.
The Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) was created after RARP to enhance the functionality that RARP provides for diskless
workstations. The diskless workstation can receive its IP address, the name server address for future name resolutions,
and the default gateway address from the BOOTP server. BOOTP usually provides more functionality to diskless
workstations than does RARP.
The evolution of this protocol has unfolded as follows: RARP evolved into BOOTP, which evolved into DHCP.
The following are incorrect answers:
NAT is a tool that is used for masking true IP addresses by employing internal addresses. ARP does the opposite of
RARP, it finds the MAC address that maps with an existing IP address.
Data Link layer The Data Link layer is not a protocol; it is represented at layer 2 of the OSI model. In the TCP/IP model,
the Data Link and Physical layers are combined into the Network Access layer, which is sometimes called the Link
layer
or the Network Interface layer. Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition, Telecommunications and Network Security,
Page 584-585 and also 598. For Kindle users see Kindle Locations 12348-12357. McGraw-Hill.
and
KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security,
John Wiley and Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 87).
 

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is an IP address that is private (i.e. reserved for internal networks, and not a valid address to use
on the Internet)?
A. 172.12.42.5
B. 172.140.42.5
C. 172.31.42.5
D. 172.15.42.5
Correct Answer: C
This is a valid Class B reserved address. For Class B networks, the reserved addresses are 172.16.0.0 –
172.31.255.255.
The private IP address ranges are defined within RFC 1918:
RFC 1918 private ip address range
 

 

vcekey SSCP exam questions-q5

The following answers are incorrect:
172.12.42.5 Is incorrect because it is not a Class B reserved address.
172.140.42.5 Is incorrect because it is not a Class B reserved address.
172.15.42.5 Is incorrect because it is not a Class B reserved address.


QUESTION 6
What enables users to validate each other\\’s certificate when they are certified under different certification hierarchies?
A. Cross-certification
B. Multiple certificates
C. Redundant certification authorities
D. Root certification authorities
Correct Answer: A
Cross-certification is the act or process by which two CAs each certifiy a public key of the other, issuing a public-key
certificate to that other CA, enabling users that are certified under different certification hierarchies to validate each
other\\’s certificate.
Source: SHIREY, Robert W., RFC2828: Internet Security Glossary, may 2000.


QUESTION 7
Risk analysis is MOST useful when applied during which phase of the system development process?
A. Project initiation and Planning
B. Functional Requirements definition
C. System Design Specification
D. Development and Implementation
Correct Answer: A
In most projects the conditions for failure are established at the beginning of the project. Thus risk management should
be established at the commencement of the project with a risk assessment during project initiation.
As it is clearly stated in the ISC2 book: Security should be included at the first phase of development and throughout all
of the phases of the system development life cycle. This is a key concept to understand for the purpose for the exam.
The most useful time is to undertake it at project initiation, although it is often valuable to update the current risk analysis
at later stages.
Attempting to retrofit security after the SDLC is completed would cost a lot more money and might be impossible in
some cases. Look at the family of browsers we use today, for the past 8 years they always claim that it is the most
secure
version that has been released and within days vulnerabilities will be found.
Risks should be monitored throughout the SDLC of the project and reassessed when appropriate.
The phases of the SDLC can very from one source to another one. It could be as simple as Concept, Design, and
Implementation. It could also be expanded to include more phases such as this list proposed within the ISC2 Official
Study
book:
Project Initiation and Planning
Functional Requirements Definition
System Design Specification
Development and Implementation
Documentations and Common Program Controls
Testing and Evaluation Control, certification and accreditation (CandA)
Transition to production (Implementation)
And there are two phases that will extend beyond the SDLC, they are:
Operation and Maintenance Support (OandM)
Revisions and System Replacement (Disposal)
Source: Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual,
chapter 6: Business Application System Development, Acquisition, Implementation and Maintenance (page 291).
and The Official ISC2 Guide to the CISSP CBK , Second Edition, Page 182-185

QUESTION 8
Which of the following questions is less likely to help in assessing physical and environmental protection?
A. Are entry codes changed periodically?
B. Are appropriate fire suppression and prevention devices installed and working?
C. Are there processes to ensure that unauthorized individuals cannot read, copy, alter, or steal printed or electronic
information?
D. Is physical access to data transmission lines controlled?
Correct Answer: C
Physical security and environmental security are part of operational controls, and are measures taken to protect
systems, buildings, and related supporting infrastructures against threats associated with their physical environment. All
the questions above are useful in assessing physical and environmental protection except for the one regarding
processes that ensuring that unauthorized individuals cannot access information, which is more a production control.
Source: SWANSON, Marianne, NIST Special Publication 800-26, Security Self-Assessment Guide for Information
Technology Systems, November 2001 (Pages A-21 to A-24).


QUESTION 9
External consistency ensures that the data stored in the database is:
A. in-consistent with the real world.
B. remains consistant when sent from one system to another.
C. consistent with the logical world.
D. consistent with the real world.
Correct Answer: D
External consistency ensures that the data stored in the database is consistent with the real world.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, page 33.


QUESTION 10
Which of the following was developed by the National Computer Security Center (NCSC) for the US Department of
Defense ?
A. TCSEC
B. ITSEC
C. DIACAP
D. NIACAP
Correct Answer: A
The Answer: TCSEC; The TCSEC, frequently referred to as the Orange Book, is the centerpiece of the DoD Rainbow
Series publications.
Initially issued by the National Computer Security Center (NCSC) an arm of the National Security Agency in 1983 and
then updated in 1985, TCSEC was replaced with the development of the Common Criteria international standard
originally
published in 2005.
References:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security,
pages 197-199.
Wikepedia
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/TCSEC

 

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QUESTION 1
Which two conditions must a user meet to provision a new device using the Self-Provisioning feature? (Choose two.)
A. The user must have a primary extension.
B. At least two DNs must be assigned to the user device.
C. The user must be part of “Standard CCM Super User”.
D. The user must have the appropriate universal device template linked to the user profile.
E. The user must have at least user device profile assigned.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 2
A user forwards a corporate number to an international number. What are two methods to prevent this forwarded call?
(Choose two.)
A. Set the Call Classification to OnNet for the international route pattern.
B. Block international dial patterns in the SIP trunk CSS.
C. Configure a Forced Authorization Code on the international route pattern.
D. Set Call Forward All CSS to restrict international dial patterns.
E. Check Route Next Hop By Calling Party Number on the international route pattern.
Correct Answer: BC
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/manual/cmeadm/cmetrans.html


QUESTION 3
When a remote office location is set up with limited bandwidth resources, which codec carries the most voice calls?
A. G.711
B. G.722
C. G.723
D. G.729
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab10/collab10/media.html

QUESTION 4
How are E.164 called-party numbers normalized on a globalized call-routing environment in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager?
A. Normalization is achieved by stripping or translating the called numbers to internally used directory numbers.
B. Normalization is achieved by setting up calling search spaces and partitions at the SIP trunks for PSTN connection.
C. Call ingress must be normalized before the call being routed.
D. Normalization is not required.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
An engineer encounters third-party devices that do not support Cisco Discovery Protocol. What must be configured on
the network to allow device discovery?
A. LACP
B. TFTP
C. LLDP
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
A Cisco Unity Connection Administrator must set a voice mailbox so that it can be accessed from a secondary device.
Which configuration on the voice mailbox makes this change?
A. Attempt Forward routing rule
B. Alternate Extensions
C. Alternate Names
D. Mobile User
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An engineer must extend the corporate phone system to mobile users connecting through the internet with their own
devices. One requirement is to keep that as simple as possible for end users. Which infrastructure element achieves these goals?
A. Cisco Express Mobility
B. Cisco Expressway-C and Expressway-E
C. Cisco Unified Border Element
D. Cisco Unified Instant Messaging and Presence
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
How does Cisco Unified Communications Manager perform a digit analysis on-hook versus off-hook for an outbound
call from a Cisco IP phone that is registered to Cisco Unified CM?
A. On-hook, Unified CM performs a digit-by-digit analysis, off-hook, Unified GM considers all digits were dialed and does
not wait for additional digits.
B. On-hook, Unified CM considers all digits were dialed and does not wait for additional digits, off-hook, Unified CM
performs a digit-by-digit analysis.
C. On-hook, by pressing the digits and entering “#” to process the call, Unified CM performs a digit-by-digit analysis; offhook. Unified CM analyzes all digits as a string.
D. On-hook, no digit analysis is performed, off-hook. Unified CM requires the “#* to start the digit analysis.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
An incoming off-net call to a user fails. An engineer notices that the off-net call is G.711, but the phone accepts only
G.729. Which media resource on a Cisco Unified Border Element and Cisco Unified Communications Manager must the
engineer configure to manage the codec negotiation?
A. transcoder
B. CFB
C. MOH
D. MTP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence backups is true?
A. Backups should be scheduled during off-peak hours to avoid system performance issues.
B. Backups are saved as .tar files and encrypted using the web administrator account.
C. Backups are saved as unencrypted .tar files.
D. Backups are not needed for subscriber Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence
servers.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/11_5_1_SU1/Administration/cucm_b_ad
ministration-guide-1151su1/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1_chapter_01010.html#CUCM_TK_S7FC26D5_00

QUESTION 11
Which settings are needed to configure the SIP route pattern in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. pattern usage, IPv6 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list
B. pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, IPv6 pattern, and description
C. pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list
D. SIP trunk/Route list, description, and IPv4 pattern
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmcfg/CUCM_BK_C95ABA82
_00_admin-guide-100/CUCM_BK_C95ABA82_00_admin-guide-100_chapter_0100111.pdf

QUESTION 12
An engineer must configure an MGCP gateway and register it to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which
prerequisite must be met before applying the gateway commands to enable MGCP?
A. The MGCP gateway and the Cisco Unified CM must be able to communicate aver ports 5060 and 5061.
B. Cisco Unified CM and the MGCP gateway must utilize the SIP OPTIONS ping feature to monitor status.
C. The MGCP gateway must have voice service VoIP configured.
D. The MGCP gateway and the Cisco Unified CM must be able to communicate over ports 2427, 2428, and 2727.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/voice/cminterop/configuration/guide/12_4t/vc_12_4t_book/vc_ucm_mgcp_gw.html

QUESTION 13
An administrator recently upgraded a Cisco Webex DX80 through its web interface but discovered the next morning that
the unit has received to its previous version. What must the administrator do to prevent this from happening again?
A. Assign a phone security profile with secure SIP.
B. Set the prepare cluster for rollback to pre-8-0 enterprise parameter to true.
C. Confirm the phone load name in the phone configuration.
D. Assign a universal device template to the phone.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which output from the show isis interface command helps an engineer troubleshoot an IS-IS adjacency problem on a
Cisco IOS-XR platform?
A. metric
B. priority
C. circuit type
D. hello interval
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Referring to the topology diagram show in the exhibit, which three statements are correct regarding the BGP routing
updates? (Choose three.)

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q2

A. The EBGP routing updates received by R1 from R5 will be propagated to the R2, R4, and R7 routers
B. The EBGP routing updates received by R3 from R6 will be propagated to the R2 and R4 routers
C. The EBGP routing updates received by R1 from R5 will be propagated to the R2 and R4 routers
D. The IBGP routing updates received by R3 from R2 will be propagated to the R6 router
E. The IBGP routing updates received by R2 from R1 will be propagated to the R3 router
F. The IBGP routing updates received by R1 from R4 will be propagated to the R5, R7, and R2 routers
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 3

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Refer to the exhibit. CE1 is the gateway router into the provider network via PE1. A network operator must inject a
default route into OSPF area 0. All devices inside area 0 must be able to reach PE1. Which configuration achieves this
goal?

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q3-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/47868-ospfdb9.html

QUESTION 4
Which two characteristics unique to SSM when compared to ASM are true? (Choose two.)
A. It uses SPT switchover
B. It uses (*,G) exclusively
C. It uses IGMPv3
D. It uses RP
E. It uses (S,G) exclusively
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
A network engineer is troubleshooting OSPF multiarea. Which Cisco IOS XR feature should the engineer use in order to
streamline OSPF issue?
A. hierarchical CLI
B. DR support for topology management
C. routing process enabled by default on all interfaces
D. show ip ospf topology command
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/xr12000/software/xr12k_r4-0/routing/configuration/guide/rc40xr12k_chapter4.html#con_1059437

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Compare different features between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3. Drag and drop the descriptions of OSPF from the left onto
the correct OSPF versions on the right.
Select and Place:

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Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q6-2

QUESTION 7

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Refer to the exhibit. P1 and PE3 Cisco IOS XR routers are directly connected and have this configuration applied. The
BGP session is not coming up. Assume that there is no IP reachability problem and both routers can open tcp port 179
to each other.
Which action fixes the issue?
A. Change HMAC-MD5 to HMAC-SHA1-20
B. Configure the send and accept lifetime under key 1
C. Change HMAC-MD5 to MD5
D. Change HMAC-MD5 to HMAC-SHA1-12
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q8

Which three statements are correct regarding the Cisco IOS-XR configuration? (Choose three.)
A. This router, acting as the RP mapping agent, will send RP announcement messages to the 224.0.1.40 group
B. This router, acting as the RP mapping agent, will send RP discovery messages to the 224.0.1.39 group
C. This router is the RP mapping agent only for the 224.11.11.11 and 224.99.99.99 multicast groups
D. This router is a candidate PIM-SM RP for the 224.99.99.99 multicast group
E. This router is a candidate PIM-BIDIR RP for the 224.11.11.11 multicast group
F. IGMPv3 is enabled on all interfaces
G. Other routers will recognize this router as the RP for all multicast groups with this router loopback 0 IP address
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 9
Which protocol can be used to secure multicast in a group multicast solution where group key management is needed
for secure key exchange?
A. DOI
B. ISAKMP
C. GDOI
D. IPsec
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

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Refer to the exhibit. After troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency issue, routers 1, 2, and 3 have formed OSPF neighbor
relationships. Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. Router 2 receives a Type 5 LSAs from router 1 for its connected subnets
B. Router 2 uses router 3 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24
C. Router 2 uses router 1 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24
D. Router 2 receives a Type 7 LSAs from router 3 for its connected subnets
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You have configured routing policies on a Cisco IOS XR device with routing policy language.
Which two statements about the routing policies are true? (Choose two.)
A. The routing policies affect BGP-related routes only.
B. If you make edits to an existing routing policy without pasting the full policy into the CLI, the previous policy is
overwritten.
C. You can change an existing routing policy by editing individual statements.
D. The routing policies are implemented in a sequential manner.
E. The routing policies are implemented using route maps.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. Which LSA type is indicated by this router output?

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q12

A. type 3 LSA
B. type 4 LSA
C. type 1 LSA
D. type 2 LSA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

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Refer to the exhibit. After you applied these configurations to routers R1 and R2, the two devices could not form a
neighbor relationship. Which reason for the problem is the most likely?
A. The two routers cannot authenticate with one another.
B. The two routers have the same area ID.
C. The two routers have the same network ID.
D. The two routers have different IS-types.
Correct Answer: C

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Exam MB-240: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Field Service measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: configure field service applications; manage work orders; schedule and dispatch work orders; manage field service mobility; manage inventory and purchasing; and manage assets and agreements.

  • Configure field service applications (20-25%)
  • Manage work orders (15-20%)
  • Schedule and dispatch work orders (20-25%)
  • Manage field service mobility (10-15%)
  • Manage inventory and purchasing (10-15%)
  • Manage assets and agreements (10-15%)

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MB-240 Free Exam Questions & Answers | practice

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator.
You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to automatically
generate work orders based on agreements, and send invoices on a recurring basis by customer.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes. 1) Create Agreement 2) Define Booking Setup 3) Create
Invoice Setup 4) Set Auto Generate Invoice = Yes 5) Populate Generate Agreement Invoices X Days in Advance
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator.
You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to accurately capture the
cost of work order bookings.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes:
1) Create Resource Pay Types for regular, holiday, overtime, travel, and breaks.
2) Assign an Hourly Markup percentage to each Resource Pay Type.
3) Assign Resource Pay Types to the applicable Pay Type.
4) Create Business Closures.
5) Create Bookable Resources with Hourly Rates.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
The company has hired a new manager to set up and configure Field Service to automatically schedule work orders to
the most appropriate resource scheduling.
The manager is unable to optimize requirements and bookings related to work orders.
Which three settings are required? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Assign the Field Service-Administrator security role to the RSO user.
B. Add the RSO dispatcher role to a dispatcher.
C. Enable Resource Scheduling Optimization.
D. Set Connect to Maps as Yes.
E. Add RSO to the profile Field Service-Administrator.
Correct Answer: CDE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/rso-configuration

QUESTION 4
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile (FSM) customizer.
Technicians report that they are not seeing their Bookings in the FSM app.
You need to investigate why they cannot see their bookings.
What are three actions you must take to perform your investigation? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Check Drip Scheduling setting on the Bookable Resource.
B. Check sync filter on Bookable Resource Booking View.
C. Check if sync filter on Bookable Resource entity is too restrictive for offline mode.
D. Check that FSM app is synching to server.
E. Check if sync filter on Bookable Resource Booking entity is too restrictive for offline mode.
Correct Answer: ACE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/mobile-faq-bookings-notshowing

QUESTION 5
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile customizer.
Your mobile technicians indicate that when in offline mode, they do not have access to the same data set that is
available online. Offline mode contains less account and work order data, and users cannot see warehouses.
You need to determine which updates to make within the mobile project so that technicians can see the appropriate
information.
Which three actions should you choose? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Update Synchronization setting to Always Full Sync.
B. Update entity Sync Filter.
C. Update View filters.
D. Update the Max Sync Records setting.
E. Update the entity Mode to Online and Offline.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6
You are onsite, working on a customer\\’s factory floor. You need to return tomorrow and replace a belt on the conveyor.
You look at the inventory in Warehouse 1, and there are 10 in stock. You pull the belt from stock and create an
inventory transfer record.
What are the two correct steps to complete the transfer? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Select the source warehouse, then select the destination warehouse.
B. Enter the quantity to transfer, then click transfer.
C. Enter the part number from the drop down, then click to transfer.
D. Select the From warehouse location, then select the To warehouse location.
Correct Answer: AB
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/create-inventorytransfer

QUESTION 7
Your company processes a large number of work orders each day. The company wants to ensure the high priority work orders are dealt with immediately.
You need to configure the schedule board so that bookings are easily visible to the dispatchers.
How can you configure Dynamics Field Services to increase booking visibility?
A. Configure a work order type for high priority issues, to help categorize high priority work order records.
B. Configure an Incident type for high priority incidents on work order records.
C. Configure the status color for a booking status record, to identify high priority work order records.
D. Configure a priority record to allow you to identify high priority work order records.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Administrator.
You have a requirement to make a custom attribute “Contract Status” required and to not allow invalid data to be
entered in the attribute.
What are three ways that you can make an attribute required on a form within the Dynamics 365 for Field Service
Mobile App and ensure invalid data cannot be entered? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Create an OnSave rule, and display a message to the user if the specific field does not meet the required conditions.
B. Create an OnChange rule, and set a simple validation for a field to check whether the field contains data.
C. Create an Option Set with all possible options for the attribute.
D. Create an OnChange rule to highlight a field when it does not contain correct field data.
E. Create an OnSave rule to check any field\\’s data, but without highlighting the field when the condition is not met.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 9
You work for a recycling company that provides customers with large compactor units to collect their recyclable
materials. The compactor units are comprised of two separate components: a container to collect the recyclable
materials and a
separate component that compacts the recyclable materials to make them easier to transport.
These containers are expensive, and the components tend to break down frequently, requiring ongoing maintenance
and repairs.
You need to easily track the containers that your company has at each client location and maintain a service history for
each of the sub-components.
A. Configure the customer asset records hierarchically, and maintain service history at the sub-component level.
B. Configure the customer inventory records individually, in order to maintain the service history at the parent
component level.
C. Configure the customer inventory records in a hierarchy, and maintain service history at the sub-component level.
D. Configure the customer asset records hierarchically, and maintain service history at the service account level.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/configure-set-upcustomer-assets

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator.
You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to accurately capture the
cost of work order bookings.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes:
1) Create Resource Pay Types for regular, holiday, overtime, travel, and breaks.
2) Assign an Hourly Markup percentage to each Resource Pay Type.
3) Assign Resource Pay Types to the applicable Pay Type.
4) Create the Holiday Schedule.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Administrator.
You need to add two compressor sub-components to one of the refrigerator customer assets, in the environment and
set up the sub-components for the customer asset.
What must you do to properly set up the assets?
A. Add the compressor sub-components as sub-assets on the refrigerator customer asset record.
B. Click View Hierarchy on the refrigerator customer asset record.
C. Set the Master Asset on the sub-components to the refrigerator Customer Asset record.
D. Add the compressor sub-components as customer asset records.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Administrator and work for a manufacturing firm. You are receiving support
requests that field engineers are unable to see a custom area entitled “Parts Requests” within the Dynamics 365 Field
Service Mobile App.
You need to troubleshoot the Dynamics 365 for Field Service mobile app to ensure that the field engineers are able to
view the customizations created.
What are the three steps you can take to troubleshoot the issue reported? Each correct answer presents a complete
solution.
A. Ensure that the Dynamics Mobile solution with the appropriate customizations has been published.
B. Synchronize the Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile App.
C. Ensure that a security role has been assigned to the project.
D. Verify that the impacted field engineers are enabled to use this project.
E. Ensure that the Woodford project with the appropriate customizations has been published.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 13
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service administrator for a construction company.
You need to schedule a work order for a group of resources that will work together for a set number of days, week, or
months.
How should you achieve the goal without scheduling the same requirements multiple times manually by using the
schedule board (or with the schedule assistant)?
A. Use Facility Scheduling
B. Use Multi-Resource Scheduling
C. Use Resource Crew Scheduling
D. Use Universal Resource Scheduling
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/multi-resourcescheduling-requirement-groups

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