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QUESTION 1

You want to perform Internal Material Transfer across Business Units and want to capture internal margin as part of
revenue for the selling Business Unit.
Which mandatory task would you perform for this requirement?

A. Configure Oracle Fusion Global Order Promising
B. Manage Consumption Rules
C. Manage Supply Execution Documentation Creation Rules
D. Manage Supply Chain Financial Orchestration Transfer Pricing Rules
E. Manage Supply Order Defaulting and Enrichment Rules
Correct Answer: D


Sourcing tools enable you to manually create internal material transfer requisition lines in Self Service Procurement and
create supply requests from the Manage Item Quantity page. These sourcing tools provide a default source organization
and allow access to source organization rankings and are available to promise quantities.

Oracle Fusion Supply Chain Orchestration works with Oracle Fusion Global Order Promising and Oracle Fusion Inventory Management to identify the source organization rankings based on pre-established rules.

QUESTION 2

A tax authority requires that you calculate tax only on the selling price of an item that you are selling, and not on the
shipping charge.
How will you achieve this?

A. by moving the “Compute Tax” step before the “Create Net Price Charge Component” step in the Pricing algorithm
B. by moving the “Compute Tax” step before the “Create Shipping Charges” step in the Pricing algorithm
C. by creating a sub-algorithm and an expression builder
D. by using nested action and Groovy scripts
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

Identify three ongoing maintenance tasks that a user is required to execute from the Order Management Work Area
after the Order Management Implementation is completed. (Choose three.)

A. Manage Fulfillment Line Exceptions
B. Manage Order in Errors
C. Manage Order Orchestration Messages
D. Manage Source Systems
E. Manage Orchestration Statuses
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4

Which statement is true about the definition of source systems in Functional Setup manager?

A. All order capture and fulfillment systems are defined as Spoke systems.
B. The Oracle Fusion order capture and fulfillment system are defined as Fusion.
C. All external order capture systems are defined as Spoke systems and the Fusion fulfillment system is defined as
Fusion.
D. All external order capture systems are defined as Spoke systems and external fulfillment systems are defined as
purchased.
Correct Answer: A

You can specify whether the source system is a spoke system, such as a legacy system, or a purchased system, such
as data from a third-party provider. Type can be only Spoke\\' orPurchased\’. There is no type called `Fusion\’.

QUESTION 5

A global Power Systems manufacturer sells Uninterrupted Power Supply (UPS) products through its online portal. To
gain a competitive advantage, the manufacturer wants to enhance the ability of buyers to select the desired configuration of
the high-end UPS models through guided selling options on its online selling portal.

The company\’s product development team has finalized the enhancements, and needs your help to get them implemented on their online selling portal that is supported by Oracle Cloud Configurator.
What four actions would you take in Oracle Cloud Configurator to enhance a buyer\’s experience? (Choose four.)

A. You can allow buyers to raise requests if an expected product functionality is not offered.
B. You can create enhancements to the model structure that supplements the imported configurable structure of a
model item.
C. You can create rules that will guide users in creating a valid model.
D. You can create user interfaces that will be dynamically presented to users based on the options chosen in the
Configurator model.
E. You can test the behavior of the configured model anytime when you are editing it.
F. You can enable a checkout option for a model when a valid configuration is finalized.
G. You can display product reviews of customers who have purchased the same configuration earlier.
Correct Answer: BDFG

QUESTION 6

Identify the sequence of Oracle Management Cloud components involved while processing a sales order.

A. Order Entry, Orchestration, Task Layer Services, External Interface Layer
B. External Source Systems, Internal Systems, Orchestration, Task Layer Services, External Interface Layer
C. External Source Systems, Order Entry, Orchestration, Task Layer Services, External Interface Layer
D. External Source Systems, Order Entry, Orchestration, External Interface Layer, Task Layer Services
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

Your customer is concerned about not having access to schedule orders and checks availability when the Global Order
The promising server is down. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Affected orders can be rescheduled based on supply chain availability search after server recovery.
B. Global Order Promising continues promising orders based on supply chain availability search until the server or
backup server can be restarted.
C. Global Order Promising cannot continue promising orders, but the server or backup server is usually restarted
quickly.
D. Affected orders cannot be rescheduled based on supply chain availability search after server recovery.
E. Global Order Promising continues promising orders based on lead-time availability until the server or backup server
can be restarted.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8

Which two statements describe Net Change Collection? (Choose two.)

A. Data for the selected entities is replaced in the planning data repository.
B. It completely refreshes the planning data repository.
C. Data for the selected entities is deleted from the planning data repository.
D. It collects only changed data to the planning data repository.
E. It collects data only incrementally to the planning data repository.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 9

Which Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence subject area should you use to build an online custom port that shows
the number of orchestration orders for a selected orchestration process status?

A. Distributed Order Orchestration?Order Lines Real-Time
B. Distributed Order Orchestration?Fulfillment Lines Real-Time
C. Distributed Order Orchestration?Process Instances Real-Time
D. Distributed Order Orchestration?Process Instances
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Your company wants to notify the external system when there is a high possibility that an order is going to be delayed.
Which four steps are required to invoke the external system connector to notify that an order is going to be delayed?
(Choose four.)

A. Set up the Jeopardy threshold for the orchestration process task.
B. Set up the lead time for the orchestration steps in the orchestration process definition.
C. Register the web service connector.
D. Create a routing rule for the orchestration process task.
E. Enable a business event trigger point for Jeopardy and associate the connector.
F. Set up the Use Defined Lead time in the Available To Promise Rule.
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 11

Your company is in the business of selling kitchen appliances.
Which three entities can you include while defining pricing rules that control how Oracle Pricing Cloud calculates the
price for each time? (Choose three.)

A. Shipping change lists
B. Discount List
C. Pricing Profile
D. Pricing Strategy
E. Cost List
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 12

In which fulfillment process does a specific sales order demand trigger a supply creation, and a firm link is established
between the sales order and the supply?

A. Consignment order
B. Internal Transfer
C. Configure to order
D. Back-to-back
E. Drop Ship
Correct Answer: D

The back-to-back fulfillment process is one in which specific sales order demand triggers supply creation, and a link is
established between the sales order and the supply.

QUESTION 13

You are importing sales order data from a source system. You want to delete the imported sales orders from interface
tables to save storage space. How would you do this?

A. Delete the orders from Oracle Content Server.
B. Run the ESS job “Delete Orders from Interface Tables.”
C. You must request the system administrator to delete orders from interface tables.
D. Delete the orders from the Order Management work area.
E. You cannot delete orders from interface tables.
F. Run the ESS job Purge Interface Tables.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1 #

Which predefined report should you use from Oracle Business Intelligence Publisher to manage the balance of accrued
supplier liabilities for a business unit?

A. Accrual Supplier Liability Report
B. Accrual Reconciliation Report
C. Accrual Clearing Report
D. Uninvoiced Receipt Accrual Report
E. Receipt Accounting Real Time Report
Correct Answer: B

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel12/scmcs_gs/FAPMA/FAPMA2269725.htm#FAPMA2269725

QUESTION 2 #

Select two ways to define the standard cost for an item from the Cost Accounting work area.

A. Manage the Item Cost task.
B. Import standard costs from receipt layers.
C. Manage the Standard Cost task.
D. Create Standard Cost in a spreadsheet.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3 #

Which three predefined areas can you review on the Overview page of Cost Accounting? (Choose three.)

A. Purchase Variance Summary
B. Journal Entries
C. Item CostIdentify two reference types used to tie a receipt trade operation to an expense invoice for landing
D. Cost Processing
E. Work Order Costs
F. Inventory Valuation
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 4 #

Which three cost planning tasks can be performed in the Cost Accounting work area?

A. Review Work Order Costs
B. Review Item Costs
C. Analyzing and Comparing Costs
D. Estimating Standard Costs for Assemblies
E. Manage Resource Rates
F. Manage Cost Accounting Periods
Correct Answer: ADE

https://fusionhelp.oracle.com/fscmUI/topic/TopicId_P_C97AC111350F0D3EE040D30A68814D11

QUESTION 5 #

You can track costs at what granularity level in Cost Accounting for the actual costing method?

A. Subinventory, Make, Lot, Serial
B. Grade, Serial, Group, Lot
C. Sub inventory. Lot, Serial, Grade
D. Grade, Subinventory, Locator, Serial
E. Subinventory, Lot, Serial, Locator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6 #

If the accounting method does not have an assigned chart of accounts (COA), which option is valid?

A. The accounting method must have a mapping set to convert the accounts.
B. Accounting rules cannot override the accounting method.
C. The accounting method can be assigned to any ledger.
D. Any secondary ledger that uses the method cannot have a COA.
E. The accounting method may only be used by ledgers without a COA.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7 #

You are explaining the characteristics of a “profit in inventory” cost element to a client. Which three statements describe
true characteristics of this cost element?

A. It is only used when you do not need to maintain an arm\\’s length relationship.
B. It can help you understand true margins and value-added by internal business units through the internal supply
chain.
C. It can help you with consolidated financial reporting.
D. It is a special type of cost element that helps you keep track of internal markups when inventory is transferred
between inventory organizations that are in different business units.
E. It is a special type of cost element that helps you keep track of internal markups when inventory is transferred
between inventory organizations that are in the same business unit.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 8 #

You are trying to import the purchase order information into Receipt Accounting in the Schedule Process work are

A. Why can\\’t you see this process?
B. Purchase order information is automatically sent to Receipt Accounting using a real-time method
C. This process can only be scheduled and run from the Receipt Accounting work area
D. You do not have the role to import purchase order information into Receipt Accounting.
E. All purchase order information is included in the Transfer-Transactions from Receiving to Costing process. There is
no separate process.
F. Purchase order information should not be imported into Receipt Accounting.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9 #

You have just finished modifying an accounting method. What is the final step to complete the accounting method
configuration?

A. Activate its journal entry rule set assignments.
B. Transfer costs to Cost Management.
C. Create Accounting.
D. Transfer transactions from Receiving to Costing.
E. Execute the Preprocessor.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10 #

You have configured the application as follows:
Expense items are set to accrue at receipt.
Receipt Close tolerance is set to 75 percent.
Purchasing Line types are set to a 2-way match.

When you create a purchase order, the Accrue on Receipt check box is automatically selected when a line
is added. Which two configurations changes will ensure the Accrue on Receipt check box is not selected by default?

A. Change expense items to accrue at period end.
B. Change the Purchasing Line types to a 4-way match.
C. Change inventory items to accrue at period end.
D. Change the Purchasing Line types to a 3-way match.
E. Change the Receipt Close tolerance so it is 100 percent.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11 #

Identify two reference types used to tie a receipt trade operation to an expense invoice for landing.

A. Internal requisition number
B. Shipment number
C. Expense invoice number
D. Bill of Lading E. Receipt number
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12 #

Your client wants to view Landed Cost Variance. Which pair of search options are available to view Landed Cost
Variance?

A. Business Unit and Cost Organization
B. Inventory Organization and Legal Entity
C. Business Unit and Legal Entity
D. Business Unit and Inventory Organization
E. Legal Entity and Cost Organization
F. Inventory Organization and Cost Organization
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13 #

Your client needs to import the relevant transactions and tax determinants for their expense items into the Receipt
Accounting. What is the correct sequence of processes to accomplish this?

A. Transfer Transactions from Receiving to Costing, Transfer Costs to Cost Management
B. Transfer Transactions from Receiving to Costing, Transfer-Transactions from Inventory to Costing
C. Transfer Costs to Cost Management, Transfer-Transactions from Receiving to Costing
D. Transfer Transactions from Inventory to Costing, Transfer Costs to Cost Management
E. Transfer Transactions from Receiving to Costing, Transfer-Transactions from Inventory to Costing
F. Transfer Costs to Cost Management, Transfer-Transactions from Inventory to Costing
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

You are using Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) console to set up an alarm on a budget to track your OCI spending.
Which two are valid targets for creating a budget in OCI? (Choose two.)

A. Select group as the type of target for your budget.
B. Select Tenancy as the type of target for your budget.
C. Select user as the type of target for your budget.
D. Select Cost-Tracking Tags as the type of target for your budget.
E. Select Compartment as the type of target for your budget.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2

You have a Linux compute instance located in a public subnet in a VCN which hosts a web application. The security list
attached to subnet containing the compute instance has the following stateful ingress rule.

Which step will resolve the issue? (Choose the best answer.)

A. In the route table, add a rule for your default traffic to be routed to NAT gateway.
B. In the security list, add an ingress rule for port 80 (http).
C. In the security list, remove the ssh rule.
D. In the route table, add a rule for your default traffic to be routed to service gateway.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3

You have been asked to review a network design for Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) by a major client. The client\\’s IT
team needs to provision two Virtual Cloud Networks (VCNs) for a major application. The application uses a large
number of virtual machine instances. Additionally, in the future, a VCN peering will be required to allow connectivity
between the VCNs.
Which of the following are valid IP ranges to consider? (Choose the best answer.)

A. 10.0.0.0/30 and 192.168.0.0/30
B. 10.0.0.0/8 and 11.0.0.0/8
C. 10.0.8.0/21 and 10.0.16.0/22
D. 10.0.0.0/16 and 10.0.64.0/24
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://blogs.oracle.com/developers/setting-up-a-virtual-cloud-network-vcn-in-oracle-cloudinfrastructure

QUESTION 4

You have been asked to investigate a potential security risk on your company\\’s Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)
tenancy. You decide to start by looking through the audit logs for suspicious activity.
How can you retrieve the audit logs using the OCI Command Line Interface (CLI)? (Choose the best answer.)

A. oci audit event list –-end-time $end-time –-compartment-id $compartment-id
B. oci audit event list –-start-time $start-time –-compartment-id $compartment-id
C. oci audit event list –-start-time $start-time –-end-time $end-time –-compartment-id $compartment-id
D. oci audit event list –-start-time $start-time –-end-time $end–time –-tenancy-id $tenancy–id
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

You have created the following JSON file to specify a lifecycle policy for one of your object storage buckets:

How will this policy affect the objects that are stored in the bucket? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Objects with the prefix “LOGS” will be retained for 120 days and then deleted permanently.
B. Objects containing the name prefix LOGS will be automatically migrated from standard Storage to Archive storage 30
days after the creation date. The object will be deleted 120 days after creation.
C. The objects with prefix “LOGS” will be deleted 30 days after creation date.
D. Objects containing the name prefix LOGS will be automatically migrated from standard Storage to Archive storage 30
days after the creation date. The object will be migrated back to standard Storage 120 days after creation.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

You run a large global application with 90% of customers based in the US and Canada. You want to be able to test a
new feature and allow a small percentage of users to access the new version of your application.
What Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Traffic Management steering policy should you utilize? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Load Balancer
B. IP Prefix steering
C. ASN steering
D. Geolocation steering
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/TrafficManagement/Tasks/trafficmanagement.htm

QUESTION 7

You have a group pf developers who launch multiple VM.Standard2.2 compute instances every day into the
compartment Dev. As a result, your OCI tenancy quickly hit the service limit for this shape. Other groups can no longer
create new instances using VM.Standard2.2 shape.

Because of this, your company has issued a new mandate that the Dev compartment must include a quota to allow for
use of only 20 VM.Standard2.2 shapes per Availability Domain. Your solution should not affect any other compartment
in the tenancy.
Which quota statement should be used to implement this new requirement? (Choose the best answer.)

A. set compute quota vm-standard2–2count to 10 in compartment dev where request.region = usphoenix–1
B. set compute quota vm-standard2–2–count to 20 in compartment dev
C. zero compute quotas in tenancy set compute quota vm–standard2–2–count to 20 in compartment dev
D. zero compute quotas in tenancy set compute quota vm–standard2–2–count to 20 in tenancy dev
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

Your application is using an Object Storage bucket named app-data in the namespace vision, to store both persistent
and temporary data. Every week all the temporary data should be deleted to limit the storage consumption.
Currently you need to navigate to the Object Storage page using the web console, select the appropriate bucket to view
all the objects and delete the temporary ones.

To simplify the task you have configured the application to save all the temporary data with /temp prefix. You have also
decided to use the Command Line Interface (CLI) to perform this operation.
What is the command you should use to speed up the data cleanup? (Choose the best answer.)

A. oci os object delete –ns vision –bn app–data ––prefix /temp
B. oci os object bulk-delete –ns vision –bn app–data ––prefix /temp ––force
C. oci objectstorage bulk–delete –ns vision –bn app–data ––prefix /temp ––force
D. oci os object delete app-data in vision where prefix = /temp
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

You have been monitoring your company\’s applications running in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) and notice that
the application is using OCI Traffic Management service. This service uses a traffic steering policy to distribute the DNS
traffic based on subnet addresses in a rule set.
Which steering policy is in use in this particular case? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Load Balancing policy
B. Geolocation steering
C. ASN steering policy
D. IP Prefix steering
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://k21academy.com/1z0-997/traffic-management-in-oci/

QUESTION 10

You created an Oracle Linux compute instance through the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) management console
then immediately realize you forgot to add an SSH key file. You notice that OCI compute service provides instance
console connections that supports adding SSH keys for a running instance. Hence, you created the console connection
for your Linux server and activated it using the connection string provided. However, now you get prompted for a
username and password to login.

What option should you recommend to add the SSH key to your running instance, while minimizing the administrative
overhead? (Choose the best answer.)

A. You need to configure the boot loader to use ttyS0 as a console terminal on the VM.
B. You need to terminate the running instance and recreate it by providing the SSH key file.
C. You need to reboot the instance from the console, boot into the bash shell in maintenance mode, and add SSH keys
for the opc user.
D. You need to modify the serial console connection string to include the identity file flag, –i to specify the SSH key to
use.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Compute/References/serialconsole.htm

QUESTION 11

You launched a Linux compute instance to host the new version of your company website via Apache Httpd server on
HTTPS (port 443). The instance is created in a public subnet along with other instances. The default security list
associated to the subnet is:

You want to allow access to the company website from public internet without exposing websites eventually hosted on
the other instances in the public subnet.
Which action would you take to accomplish the task? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Create a network security group, add a stateful rule to allow ingress access on port 443 and associate it to the public
subnet that hosts the company website.
B. In default security list, add a stateful rule to allow ingress access on port 443.
C. Create a new security list with a stateful rule to allow ingress access on port 443 and associate it to the public
subnet.
D. Create a network security group, add a stateful rule to allow ingress access on port 443 and associate it to the
instance that hosts the company website.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

You have set an alarm to be generated when the CPU usage of a specified instance is greater than 10%. In the alarm
behavior view below you notice that the critical condition happened around 23:30. You were expecting a notification
after 1 minute, however, the alarm firing state did not begin until 23:33.

What should you change to fix it? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Change the alarm\’s metric interval to 1.
B. Change the alarm condition to be grater than 3%.
C. Change the notification topic that you previously associated with the alarm.
D. Change the alarm\’s trigger delay minutes value to 1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

You have a 750 MIB file in an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Object Storage bucket. You want to download the file in
multiple parts to speed up the download using the OCI CLI. You also want to configure each part size to be 128 MIB.
Which is the correct OCI CLI command for this operation? (Choose the best answer.)

A. oci os object get –ns my–namespace –bn my–bucket ––name my–large–object ––multipart–download– threshold 750
––parallel–download–count 128
B. oci os object download –ns my–namespace –bn my–bucket ––name my–large–object ––multipart–
download–threshold 750 ––parallel–download–count 128
C. oci os object download –ns my–namespace –bn my–bucket ––name my–large–object ––resume–put
––multipart–download–threshold 500 ––part–size 128
D. oci os object get –ns my–namespace –bn my–bucket ––name my–large–object ––multipart–download– threshold 500
––part–size 128
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/API/SDKDocs/cliusing.htm

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QUESTION 1 #

You are a demand planner and you want to generate forecasts for all laptop and desktop products in the US business
unit. You are using standard enterprise and product hierarchy. You have created a demand plan and now you must
define the planned scope. Identify three valid steps. (Choose three.)

A. For plan parameters, select forecasting calendar as Gregorian and time level as a week.
B. For forecasting items, select hierarchy as product, level as category level 1, and laptop and desktop categories as
level members.
C. For plan parameters, select forecasting calendar as Gregorian and time level as a month.
D. For plan organizations, select hierarchy as an enterprise, level as a country, and the US as a level member.
E. For forecasting items, select hierarchy as product, level as product, and all laptop and desktop products as level
members.
F. For plan organizations, select hierarchy as an enterprise, level as a business unit, and US and level member.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2 #

Your Procurement Department is getting ready to set up Approved Supplier Lists that will be needed for Supply
Planning. They ask you for what you need on the ASLs for planning usage. Which three options are key for planning?
(Choose three.)

A. Make sure to include Maximum Order Quantities.
B. Make sure to include Minimum Order Quantities.
C. Make sure to include Fixed Lot Multipliers.
D. Make sure to include Fixed Order Quantities.
E. Make sure they are at a Global level.
F. Make sure all Local-level ASLs include an Organization.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 3 #

A sales order containing a back-to-back item has been created. However, when you ran the supply plan in Planning
Central, the supply for the sales order was not released. Why was the supply not released?

A. The supply plan should have been run in Supply Chain Orchestration, not Planning Central.
B. Planning Central cannot create back-to-back supply, so the supply cannot be released.
C. Only Global Order Promising and Supply Chain Orchestration can be used to release and create new supplies for
back-to-back orders.
D. The supply must first be created in Global Order Promising and then it can be released from Planning Central.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4 #

A supply plan has just been run that contains a configured item. You notice that the sourcing rules of the base model
were used instead of sourcing rules for the configured item. Why did this happen?

A. No sourcing rules have been defined for the configured item.
B. The sourcing rules of the base model overrode the sourcing rules of the configured item.
C. It is not possible to create sourcing rules for the configured item; all configured items always use the same sourcing
rules as the base model.
D. The sourcing rules of the base model had a priority of 1, while the sourcing rules of the configured item had a priority
of 2.
E. No planning percentages were defined at the operation level within the work definition.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5 #

Which two statements are true regarding Planning Business Flows? (Choose two.)

A. Inventory Planning cannot run in the Planning Business Flows.
B. You can analyze and adjust data at any stage of the process.
C. In automated plans, all release rules must be automatic.
D. Demand and Supply Planning have to be run in separate business flows.
E. Planners can set up automatic release rules or release orders manually as part of the plan execution.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6 #

Your client manufactures consumer electronics and has all facilities live on Oracle Cloud. Their latest product has a very
complicated manufacturing process and therefore can only be made at one facility (Organization ABC). However, it is
ordered all over the world.
How should the Sourcing Rule be set up to accomplish this?

A. A global sourcing rule for 50% make at ABC and 50% buy from ABC
B. A local sourcing rule for 100% make at ABC; a global sourcing rule for 100% transfer from ABC
C. A local sourcing rule for 100% make at ABC; a global sourcing rule for 100% buy from ABC
D. A local sourcing rule for 100% buy from ABC; a global sourcing rule for 100% transfer from ABC
E. A global sourcing rule for 100% make at ABC; a local sourcing rule for 100% transfer from ABC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7 #

You are defining material planners for your organization. However, when you go to Manage Material Planners, your
organization does not appear in the list of values. Why?

A. The organization was not enabled for collection under Manage Planning Source Systems.
B. The organization must be enabled in Manage Planning Parameters.
C. The organization is an Item Organization.
D. The organization must be enabled in Manage Planning Profile Options.
E. You do not have data access to the organization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8 #

Which option outlines changes you can make to a simulation plan when evaluating demand and supply?

A. Change item specification values, change item lead times, create mass changes for items
B. Add demands, cancel demands, reschedule demands, add supply, cancel supply, reschedule supplies
C. Change item specification values, change item lead times, change item-organization specification values
D. Add demands, cancel demands, reschedule demands, add new planned orders, reschedule supplies
E. Change item specification values, change item lead times, create mass changes for items all at once, change item organization specification values
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9 #

Which four types of supplies can be reserved for a sales order in the inventory? (Choose four.)

A. Work orders
B. On-hand inventory
C. Purchase requisitions
D. Purchase orders
E. Transfer orders
F. Planned Orders
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 10 #

You want to be able to filter your data by the planner code attribute on the item. Where can you go to do this?

A. Configure Planning Analytics > Levels and Attributes tab
B. The process “Add Levels and Attributes” must be run to associate new attributes.
C. The process “Associate Measure Catalog Attributes” must be run to associate new attributes.
D. Enable planner code on the Planning Analytics page.
E. Configure Planning Analytics > Measure Catalog
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11#

Which is the proper fulfillment strategy to plan for supply using the appropriate lead times required for processing
the material at a third party, based on the manufacturing work definition?

A. outside processing operations
B. expense destination transfers
C. contract manufacturing
D. back-to-back orders
E. drop shipments
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12 #

Your current shipments forecast for Jan 2018 is 1000 and the demand planner determines that the forecast should be Describe how the demand planner can override shipments forecast. Also, what happens to the final shipments
forecast measure when the demand plan is run again and the shipments forecast value changes to 1250?

A. Open a table with the Adjusted Shipments Forecast measure and enter 1500. The Final Shipments Forecast
measure will change to 1500 and the value will persist during subsequent demand plan runs.

B. Open a table with the Shipments Forecast measure and override it to 1500. The Final Shipments Forecast measure
will change to 1500 and the value will persist during subsequent demand plan runs.

C. Open a table with the Shipments Forecast measure and override it to 1500. The Final Shipments Forecast measure
will change to 1500. During the subsequent demand plan run, the Final Shipments Forecast value will change to 1250.

D. Open a table with the Adjusted Shipments Forecast measure and enter 1500. The Final Shipments Forecast
measure will change to 1500. During the subsequent demand plan run, the Final Shipments Forecast value will change
to 1250.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13 #

A customer has created a supply plan based on current requirements. Due to changes in the third-party forecast, the plan
must be rerun with these recent updates. However, while this new information became available, existing supplies like onhand inventory and work order completions have also been updated.
Which data refresh option should be used to reflect all these changes in the plan?

A. Do not refresh with current data
B. Refresh with quick refresh option
C. Refresh with forecast data
D. Refresh with selected current data
E. Refresh with current data
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 1 #

Which three options define Enterprise Structures Configurator (ESC)? (Choose three.)

A. It is an interview-based tool that guides through the process of setting up a basic enterprise structure.
B. The tool creates a structure of divisions, legal entities, business units, and reference data sets.
C. The tool creates a structure of divisions that may then be manipulated by the administrator.
D. After defining the enterprise structure and the job/position structures, the administrator can review them, make any
necessary changes, and then load/rollback the final configuration.
E. The tool creates a structure of divisions, legal entities, business units, and departments.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2 #

Your organization needs to be able to select the action of Legal Employer Transfer on the employment record to move a
a worker from one legal employer to another.
What configuration will you need to do to make this possible?

A. Create a new action type of Legal Employer Transfer, and then create a new action of Legal Employer Transfer and
associate it with the new action type.
B. Modify the delivered action of Transfer and associate it with the action type of Global Transfer.
C. Create a new action called Legal Employer Transfer and associate it with the action type of Global Transfer.
D. Create a new action called Legal Employer Transfer and associate it with the action type of Legal Entity Transfer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3 #

Which values on the Enterprise HCM Information task can you override on the Manage Legal Employer information
task?

A. workday information, person number generation method, employment model, position synchronization configuration,
worker number generation
B. workday information, user account generation, employment model, position synchronization configuration, worker
number generation
C. workday information, person number generation method, employment model, position synchronization configuration,
worker number generation
D. workday information, employment model, position synchronization configuration, worker number generation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4 #

An HR administrator is unable to enter the details of an intern due to the unavailability of the right choice of values. The HR
the administrator is unaware that the worker type “Intern” has not been set up in the application.
Select four valid system person types (which are part of the person model) that the HR administrator should be aware
of. (Choose four.)

A. Contract Worker
B. Person of Interest
C. Contingent Worker
D. Employee
E. Non-Worker
F. Pending Worker
Correct Answer: CDEF

QUESTION 5 #

As an implementation consultant, you have been assigned the task of configuring Person Name Format within
Workforce Information.
Which two configurations can be done through this task? (Choose two.)

A. the name fields that appear in the Person Details section when you are hiring an employee
B. the appearance of a worker\\’s name when it appears in search results
C. what name fields are required when completing the Person Details section when hiring or updating a worker\\’s
person details
D. the way a worker\\’s name appears on top of employee-level pages
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6 #

An enterprise operates in a country where contract information is required for employees. What type of employment
a model can the enterprise use?

A. multiple assignments with contracts
B. single assignment with contracts
C. multiple assignments
D. single assignment
E. contract assignment
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7 #

The Promote transaction was configured using Page Composer to require the location field. Another change was made
to the transaction using the Transaction Design Studio that indicated the location filed must be hidden when a manager
uses Promote transaction.
How does the system determine how the user interface will render?

A. Transaction Design Studio configurations always override Page Composer configurations.
B. If modifications were made in both tools and the changes conflict, the last change created in either tool will be
applied.
C. Page Composer configurations always override Transaction Design Studio configurations.
D. When a user tries to use the Promote transaction. the page will be an error when loading.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8 #

A client\\’s organization employs disabled individuals. All these individuals are registered with an external organization
that supports them. The client wants to capture the registration details and some legislative information about
their disabilities. As an implementation consultant, how would you configure the system to capture this information?

A. Define disability organizations in the system and, while creating personal records, enter any other descriptive or
legislative information about disability.
B. Define a tax reporting unit for the group of employees with disabilities.
C. Define Reporting Establishment for the group of employees with disabilities and capture the required information.
D. Because the organization supporting disabled employees is an external organization, information about
this cannot be captured in the system.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9 #

As an implementation consultant, you have configured a rule for the Promote transaction that for workers who are being
promoted in the Healthcare US Business Unit, the Position field displays and is required to submit the transaction.
Now that you have created the rule, how do you test it?

A. Publish the sandbox, log in as a user that is in the Healthcare US Business Unit, navigate to the Promote transaction,
and select a worker who is also in the Healthcare US Business Unit. As you go through the transaction, you will see the
Position field display and there will be an asterisk next to the field indicating it is required.

B. Publish the sandbox, log in as a user that has access to the Promote transaction, navigate to the Promote
transaction, and select any worker. As you go through the transaction, you will see the Position field display and there
will be an asterisk next to the field indicating it is required.

C. While in a sandbox, you can test your rules by exiting Transaction Design Studio and navigating to the page you just
configured. You select a worker in the Healthcare US Business Unit and will see the Position field display and with an
asterisk next to the field indicating it is required.

D. Publish the sandbox, log in as a user that is in the Healthcare US Business Unit, navigate to the Promote transaction,
and select any worker. As you go through the transaction, you will see the Position field display and there will be an
asterisk next to the field indicating it is required.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10 #

As an implementation consultant, you realize during the Requirement Gathering phase of your project that some Actions
are not required.
How will make these Actions unavailable for the end-user?

A. Hide Actions.
B. Enter Auction End Date.
C. Delete Actions.
D. Educate users not to use such Actions.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11 #

A multinational construction company, headquartered in London, has operations in five countries. It has its major
operations in the US and UK and small offices in Saudi Arabia, UAE, and India. The company employs 3,000 people in
the UK and US and 500 people in the remaining locations. The entire workforce in India falls under the Contingent
Worker category.

How many Legislative Data Groups (LDGs), divisions, legal employers, and Payroll Statutory Units (PSUs) need to be
configured for this company?

A. five LDGs (one for each country), four divisions (the UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), two
legal employers and PSUs (US and UK only, because the workforce is very small in other countries)

B. five LDGs (one for each country), four divisions (the UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), five
legal employers and PSUs (all except India)

C. five LDGs, five divisions, five legal employers, and five PSUs

D. four LDGs (the UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), five divisions (one for each country), four
legal employers (all except India), and five PSUs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12 #

Which three options are true regarding Grade Ladders? (Choose three.)
A. Five types of Grade Ladders are available.
B. A Grade Ladder cannot be created with a combination of both grades and grades with steps.
C. Grade Ladders are used to group grades or grades with steps.
D. Two types of Grade Ladders are available.
E. A Grade Ladder can be created with a combination of both grades and grades with steps.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 13 #

An HR representative enters employee details in the application as part of the hiring process. On the
Review page, the HR representative notices that Person Number does not show any number, but indicates
“Generated Automatically”.
Identify the option that relates to this intended behavior.


A. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Manual.
B. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Automatic before submission.
C. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Automatic after final save.
D. Worker Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Manual.
Correct Answer: C

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# QUESTION 1

Your company is a manufacturing company using a legacy system to define and maintain their Item
Master.
On a daily basis, your company updates and defines new items in the legacy system, which is integrated
with Oracle WMS Cloud. You are an Inventory Super User.

Which option will you use to automatically update the Item Master of Oracle WMS Cloud daily from the
legacy system?

A. Using the host system to drop the ITMR file into the shared SFTP directory
B. Creating New Item manually on the Items screen of Oracle WMS Cloud
C. Manually uploading ITMR file using the Input Interfaces screen
D. Manually downloading Item Master file from ERP and uploading it to Oracle WMS Cloud
Correct Answer: A

# QUESTION 2

You are configuring the WMS Cloud to have multiple facilities and, as an added measure of control, you
want to easily identify the facility by looking at the barcode printed on the outbound carton.

Identify two valid configurations that are available in the Sequence Counter UI that you can use for the
OBLPN. (Choose two.)

A. You can set up the count increment in Facility 1 to increase by 1, the count increment in Facility 2 to increment by 2,
and so on.
B. You can set up the sequence counter OBLPN to “Append Facility Code to Prefix”.
C. You can specify different counts for the different facilitates within the Sequence Counter.
D. You can configure the sequence length for this facility to be different from the other facilities.
E. You can specify the “Color Code” in the Sequence Counter.
Correct Answer: BC

# QUESTION 3

What is true about emailing a scheduled report?

A. You cannot customize the subject of the email
B. You can email reports in HTML format
C. The person receiving the email must have an email registered with a username in the system
D. You can add an additional filter for a specific scheduled report
Correct Answer: D

# QUESTION 4

Your company is looking for a simplified method for managing a group of reports. Identify the type of report used in
WMS Cloud compiles multiple existing reports into a single document while executing each report in a single order.

A. CrossTab Report
B. Express Report
C. Linked Report
D. Chained Report
E. Standard Report
Correct Answer: D

# QUESTION 5

Your company has two facilities, one in California, and the other in New Jersey. The California facility needs to
exclusively check the quality of each item on receiving whereas the New Jersey one needs to exclusively perform ValueAdded Service (VAS) on each unit during receiving and shipping.

Identify the Location Types that are required to be defined in the Oracle WMS Cloud to receive the items at the California Facility.

A. Reserve and VAS
B. Active and VAS
C. Reserve and QC
D. Active and Reserve
Correct Answer: D

# QUESTION 6

Which two configurations are necessary to use a pick-to-cart functionality? (Choose two.)

A. Configure label types for cart capacity
B. Configure the Print Task setting
C. Define the OBLPN Types
D. Define the Cubing Rule
E. Add the Pick Cart UI to the Receiving personnel\’s menu
Correct Answer: CE

# QUESTION 7

Select two configurations required to fulfill a Cross Dock order. (Choose two.)
A. The Replenishment template is required to replenish Cross Dock Order
B. Wave template should be configured to allocate Cross Dock Order
C. The Cross Dock Outbound Order type should be defined
D. IB Shipment Type should be defined for Cross Dock ASN
E. Module Parameter should be enabled on the RF Receive Screen for receiving Cross Dock ASN
Correct Answer: AD

# QUESTION 8

You have a high-demand item in the warehouse that you order from different vendors (e.g. copy paper).
Each one of your vendors has its own item number and barcode for the item, and you have your own
internal number for the item. You want to process fulfill orders using your internal number.

What should you do in order to accomplish this?

A. Create Alternate Item Codes in the Item Barcode UI to include all of the vendor\\’s item barcodes.
B. Create a pre-pack item with the original item barcode as the parent and the vendor barcodes as child items.
C. Create a different item in the WMS Cloud master data for each vendor.
D. Capture the vendor\\’s barcode upon receiving in an inventory attribute and then scan the inventory attribute during
each transaction that requires an item scan.
E. Manage your workflow to only receive items from one vendor.
Correct Answer: A

# QUESTION 9

You are creating a standard report for a client to display LPN Numbers (for multi-SKU LPNs) and their associated items.
The two data fields you have in your report are LPN Number and Item Code. Identify what controls need to be set to
create a sub-total for the number of items for each LPN.

A. Set the Summary Function for the item to “Count” and check the Summarize By box for LPN.
B. Set the Summary Function for the item to “Total” and check the Group By box for LPN.
C. Set the Summary Function for LPN to “Count” and check the Summarize By box for Item.
D. Set the Summary Function for LPN to “Total” and check the Group By box for items.
Correct Answer: A

# QUESTION 10

A warehouse manager needs to view additional information not available in the existing Picking
applications.
Identify two ways to fulfill this requirement. (Choose two.)

A. Create a custom WMS BI Cloud showing the information.
B. Access data through SQL.
C. Modify the base application to display additional information.
D. Use a base WMS BI Cloud showing the needed information.
Correct Answer: AC

# QUESTION 11

Your customer wants to Putaway LPN to Location by using the Putaway Rules and link the location with
the Replenishment Zone. Which four configurations are required? (Choose four.)

A. Putaway Priority and Rules are set at Facility Level.
B. Set Replenishment Zone for Active Location.
C. Set the Location Size Type at Facility Level.
D. Putaway Type is set at Facility Level.
E. Set Replenishment Zone for Reserve Location.
F. Set Criteria for Putaway Rules.
Correct Answer: ABCD

# QUESTION 12

What happens behind the flag Only deallocate on Short in the order type screen?

A. The Order Type has no impact on the Picking Process.
B. When the parameter is set to YES, during short pick, the system will put the order hold status until more inventory is
available.
C. When the parameter is set to Yes, then only the shorted quantity will get deallocated from the order.
D. When the parameter is set to No, the shorted quantity on the order remains in the “allocated” status.
E. When the parameter is set to Yes, the short pick will cancel the shorted order line automatically and inventory
adjustment will be generated for the item.
Correct Answer: E
Reference: https://learn.oracle.com/ords/launchpad/learn?page=picking-modesandcontext=0:44208:44214

#QUESTION 13

Which two packing transactions do not require you to open up an IB LPN (Everything will go in the box)? (Choose two.)

A. Pick Cart Transaction
B. Distribution Transaction
C. PackNC Transaction
D. PackLPN Transaction
Correct Answer: AD

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Genuine Oracle 1Z0-809 practice test [Q1-Q13 free] which helps you to understand in-depth

QUESTION 1
Given the code fragment:

1Z0-809 exam questions-q1

Which code fragment, when inserted at line 7, enables printing 100?
A. Function funRef = e –andgt; e + 10; Integer result = funRef.apply(value);
B. IntFunction funRef = e –andgt; e + 10; Integer result = funRef.apply (10);
C. ToIntFunction funRef = e –andgt; e + 10; int result = funRef.applyAsInt (value);
D. ToIntFunction funRef = e –andgt; e + 10; int result = funRef.apply (value);
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Given:

1Z0-809 exam questions-q2

Your design requires that:
fuelLevel of Engine must be greater than zero when the start() method is invoked. The code must terminate if fuelLevel
of Engine is less than or equal to zero.
Which code fragment should be added at line n1 to express this invariant condition?
A. assert (fuelLevel) : “Terminating…”;
B. assert (fuelLevel > 0) : System.out.println (“Impossible fuel”);
C. assert fuelLevel
D. assert fuelLevel > 0: “Impossible fuel” ;
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Given the content of Operator.java, EngineOperator.java, and Engine.java files: and the code fragment:

1Z0-809 exam questions-q3

What is the result?
A. The Engine.java file fails to compile.
B. The EngineOperator.java file fails to compile.
C. The Operator.java file fails to compile.
D. ON OFF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Given the code fragments:
class Employee {
Optional address;
Employee (Optional address) {
this.address = address;
}
public Optional getAddress() { return address; }
}
class Address {
String city = “New York”;
public String getCity { return city: }
public String toString() {
return city;
}
}
and
Address address = new Address;
Optional addrs1 = Optional.ofNullable (address);
Employee e1 = new Employee (addrs1);
String eAddress = (addrs1.isPresent()) ? addrs1.get().getCity() : “City Not available”;
System.out.println(eAddress);
What is the result?
A. New York
B. City Not available
C. null
D. A NoSuchElementException is thrown at run time.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
For which three objects must a vendor provide implementations in its JDBC driver? (Choose three.)
A. Time
B. Date
C. Statement
D. ResultSet
E. Connection
F. SQLException
G. DriverManager
Correct Answer: CDE
Database vendors support JDBC through the JDBC driver interface or through the ODBC connection. Each driver must
provide implementations of java.sql.Connection, java.sql.Statement, java.sql.PreparedStatement,
java.sql.CallableStatement, and java.sql.Re sultSet. They must also implement the java.sql.Driver interface for use by
the generic java.sql.DriverManager interface.

QUESTION 6
Given the code fragment:

1Z0-809 exam questions-q6

What is the result?
A. A compilation error occurs at line n1.
B. Checking…
C. Checking… Checking…
D. A compilation error occurs at line n2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Given:
class Student {
String course, name, city;
public Student (String name, String course, String city) {
this.course = course; this.name = name; this.city = city;
}
public String toString() {
return course + “:” + name + “:” + city;
}
public String getCourse() {return course;}
public String getName() {return name;}
public String getCity() {return city;}
and the code fragment:
List stds = Arrays.asList(
new Student (“Jessy”, “Java ME”, “Chicago”),
new Student (“Helen”, “Java EE”, “Houston”),
new Student (“Mark”, “Java ME”, “Chicago”));
stds.stream()
.collect(Collectors.groupingBy(Student::getCourse))
.forEach(src, res) -> System.out.println(scr));
What is the result?
A. A compilation error occurs.
B. Java EE Java ME
C. [Java EE: Helen:Houston] [Java ME: Jessy:Chicago, Java ME: Mark:Chicago]
D. [Java ME: Jessy:Chicago, Java ME: Mark:Chicago] [Java EE: Helen:Houston]
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Given the code fragments: and

1Z0-809 exam questions-q8

What is the result?
A. Video played.Game played.
B. A compilation error occurs.
C. class java.lang.Exception
D. class java.io.IOException
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Given the code fragment:
Stream files = Files.walk(Paths.get(System.getProperty(“user.home”)));
files.forEach (fName -> { //line n1
try {
Path aPath = fName.toAbsolutePath(); //line n2
System.out.println(fName + “:”
+ Files.readAttributes(aPath, Basic.File.Attributes.class).creationTime
());
} catch (IOException ex) {
ex.printStackTrace();
});
What is the result?
A. All files and directories under the home directory are listed along with their attributes.
B. A compilation error occurs at line n1.
C. The files in the home directory are listed along with their attributes.
D. A compilation error occurs at line n2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Given the code fragments:

1Z0-809 exam questions-q10

What is the result?
A. France Optional[NotFound]
B. Optional [France] Optional [NotFound]
C. Optional[France] Not Found
D. France Not Found
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Given the code fragment:
Path file = Paths.get (“courses.txt”); // line n1
Assume the courses.txt is accessible.
Which code fragment can be inserted at line n1 to enable the code to print the content of the courses.txt file?
A. List fc = Files.list(file); fc.stream().forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));
B. Stream fc = Files.readAllLines (file); fc.forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));
C. List fc = readAllLines(file); fc.stream().forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));
D. Stream fc = Files.lines (file); fc.forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Given the content:

1Z0-809 exam questions-q12

What is the result?
A. username = Entrez le nom d\\’utilisateur password = Entrez le mot de passe
B. username = Enter User Name password = Enter Password
C. A compilation error occurs.
D. The program prints nothing.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Given the code fragment:
List empDetails = Arrays.asList(“100, Robin, HR”,
“200, Mary, AdminServices”,
“101, Peter, HR”);
empDetails.stream()
.filter(s-> s.contains(“1”))
.sorted()
.forEach(System.out::println); //line n1
What is the result?
A. 100, Robin, HR 101, Peter, HR
B. A compilation error occurs at line n1.
C. 100, Robin, HR 101, Peter, HR 200, Mary, AdminServices
D. 100, Robin, HR 200, Mary, AdminServices 101, Peter, HR
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
When a customer opts to make a payment by a credit card, this receipt is identified as a(n) _______________.
A. miscellaneous receipt
B. quick cash receipt
C. manual receipt
D. automatic receipt
E. AutoLockbox receipt
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
After reviewing an incomplete invoice, the Billing Manager clicks the Complete button in the Transactions
window.
What are three results of this action? (Choose three.)
A. Payment schedules are created using the payment terms specified.
B. The invoice is sent for a dunning follow-up.
C. The invoice can now be printed.
D. The invoice is eligible for transfer to the General Ledger.
E. The invoice is included in the standard aging and collection process if the transaction type has the Open Receivables
option set to No.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
Which two duties are included in the Accounts Receivable Specialist associated role? (Choose two.)
A. Import Payables Invoices Duty
B. Receipt Creation Duty
C. Trading Community Hierarchy Management Duty
D. Payment Settlement Management Duty
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
There are a few customers that you do not want to send dunning letters to. How would you exclude these customers
from dunning?
A. Disable Send Dunning Letter in Transaction Source Type.
B. Disable Send Dunning Letter on the Correspondence tab.
C. Disable Send Dunning Letter in Collections Preferences.
D. Disable Send Dunning Letter on the Profile tab.
E. Disable Send Dunning Letter in Transaction Type.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which three actions are facilitated through the Reconciliation Summary Report? (Choose three.)
A. drilldown to see reconciliation details and to make reconciling corrections
B. drilldown on the difference amounts to see specific reconciling items and the potential cause of the outof-balance
condition
C. drilldown from any of the summarized Receivables and Accounting amounts to see detailed activity
D. drilldown to see details of unaccounted revenue transactions not transferred and posted to the General Ledger
E. drilldown to view data and use standard Excel functions such as sum, find, sort, and filtering without actually
downloading to Excel
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 6
You are the Billing Manager and you are responsible for reviewing adjustments and approving them. Which two tabs are
available in the Adjustments Overview Region on the Billing Work Area page? (Choose two.)
A. Pending My Research
B. Pending Approval From Managers
C. Pending Approval
D. Pending My Approval
E. Approved
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Identify a valid reason for a Collector being unable to enter a dispute against a particular transaction.
A. The invoice is not closed.
B. The transaction is partially paid.
C. The transaction type is not associated with a credit memo type.
D. The transaction date falls in a closed period.
E. The transaction is an invoice.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Company ABC wants their logo displayed in all customer invoices. How do you meet this business requirement?
A. Use Web Services to integrate with an external system that can handle this requirement.
B. Modify the Invoice Print Layout Bill Presentment Template.
C. Enable the setting “Allow Change to Printed Transactions” in Receivables System Options.
D. Extend the “Print Receivables Transactions” program.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Identify two credit memo options. (Choose two.)
A. Tax only
B. Advance
C. Paid freight
D. Invoice lines
E. Paid amount only
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
The Billing Manager has navigated to the Billing work area to complete a transaction. The Incomplete Transactions Overview Region on the Billing Work Area page has a drilldown option through a column to
complete the transaction.
Identify the column.
A. Transaction Class
B. Transaction Number
C. Transaction Source
D. Transaction Date
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two statements are true about Accounting for Tax on Receivables? (Choose two.)
A. For Miscellaneous receipts, if the receivable activity tax rate code source is Activity for the activity type of
Miscellaneous Cash, Receivables use the tax account that is defined on the receivable activity.
B. For Adjustments, if the receivable activity tax rate code source is Invoice, Receivables derive the tax account from
auto-accounting.
C. For Adjustments, if the receivable activity tax rate code source is Invoice, Receivables use the tax account that is
defined on the receivable activity.
D. For Adjustments, if the receivable activity tax rate code source is Invoice, Receivables use the tax account of the tax
code.
E. For Credit memos, if the profile “AR: Use Invoice Accounting for Credit Memos” is set to Yes, Receivables derive the
item distribution from the invoice and the tax account from auto-accounting.
F. For Credit memos, if the profile “AR: Use Invoice Accounting for Credit Memos” is set to No, Receivables derive the
tax account from auto-accounting.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
Which four output file types are available when you run the “Print Receivables Transactions” program?
A. JPG
B. PDF
C. Excel
D. HTML
E. Word
F. Zipped PDFs
Correct Answer: BCDF

QUESTION 13
You schedule print runs of transactions and balance forward bills according to the needs of your
enterprise.
Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. It is not recommended to print transactions and balance forward bills directly from BI Publisher.
B. If you have printed a transaction, the View Print button will not display a preview of the print.
C. If you have not printed a transaction, the View Print button (Preview of Print) displays the transaction according to the
default template in BI Publisher.
D. It is recommended that you always print directly from BI Publisher to give you more control over the templates in
case you need to change them.
E. Both the transaction, or each transaction in a balance forward bill, will be marked as printed in the system.
Correct Answer: CDE

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QUESTION 1
You need to have an invoice line automatically distributed across multiple cost centers. For example, you
want your monthly utility bill allocated across multiple cost centers based on a percentage.
Select two methods to achieve this. (Choose two.)
A. Configure Subledger Accounting rules to allocate costs.
B. Define a distribution set and assign it manually to the invoice.
C. Choose the `All Lines\\’ option from the Allocate menu in the invoice line area.
D. Define a distribution set and assign it to the supplier.
Correct Answer: AB
A: Account Rules by Segment Define segment rules to derive a specific segment of the general ledger account. For
example, a particular segment like the company segment can be determined from the distribution account. Another
segment can be determined with the use of a constant value. Creating the account one segment at a time offers greater
flexibility, but also requires more setup.
C: You can use a Distribution Set to automatically enter distributions foran invoice when you are not matching it to a
purchase order. For example, you can create for an advertising supplier a Distribution Set that allocates advertising
expense on an invoice to four advertising departments. References:https://docs.oracle.com/cd/A60725_05/html/comnls/us/ap/distsets.htm

QUESTION 2
How will system evaluate the tolerances for expense reports?
A. System will calculate error tolerance as (|Policy Rate * (1+Error Tolerance/100)|) currency precision.
B. System will calculate warning tolerance as Policy Rate * (1+Warning Tolerance/100)*currency precision.
C. System will calculate error tolerance as Policy Rate * (1+Warning Tolerance+ Error Tolerance/100).
D. System will calculate warning tolerance as Policy Rate * (1+Warning Tolerance/100).
E. System will use absolute amount tolerance setup to do validations.
Correct Answer: C
Error: A percentage is used to calculate an error. The error tolerance amount is calculated as follows: Policy Rate *
(1+Error Tolerance/100)
References:https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E60665_01/financialscs_gs/FAIEX/F1456644AN125F2.htm

QUESTION 3
When creating a check payment, from where is the payment document defaulted?
A. Legal Entity
B. Bank
C. Business Unit
D. Bank Account
E. Supplier
Correct Answer: D
Create Check
This step shows how to create a check to pay the customer for theclaim. The customer will be paid with the
designated amount in Oracle Payables.
Navigation: Actions > Pay in Full.
Notes:
Bank Account: Select BofA.
Document: Select Check.
References:https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18727_01/doc.121/e16295/T544851T544993.htm

QUESTION 4
Which three are invoice types that can be entered using the Supplier Portal? (Choose three.)
A. Invoices that are automatically created when the supplier creates an ASN for drop shipments
B. B2B XML invoices
C. Non purchase order matched invoices
D. Invoices that are created from the Evaluated Receipt Settlement (ERS) process
E. Purchase order matched invoices
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 5
Identify three scenarios where you are not allowed to cancel an invoice. (Choose three.)
A. Prepayments were applied to the invoice.
B. An accounting entry has been created for the invoice.
C. The invoice is validated.
D. The invoice is fully or partially paid.
E. The invoice was adjusted by a credit or a debit memo.
Correct Answer: ADE
Why can\\’t I cancel an invoice?
The invoice is:
Additional reasons thatyou can\\’t cancel an invoice are as follows:
You can cancel any unapproved invoice, or an approved invoice that does not have anyeffective payments
or posting holds.
References:https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/financialscs_gs/FAPPP/FAPPP1011878.htm#FAPPP1011878

QUESTION 6
While entering an expense report for your corporate card transactions, you notice that the conversion rate
defined in the Manage Conversion Rates and Policies page is not used.
What is the reason?
A. You did not define conversion rates for your business unit.
B. You did not specify a default expense template.
C. Only cash transactions use those settings.
D. You did not define conversion rates in the General Ledger Cloud.
Correct Answer: C
Conversion rate behavior applies only to cash expenses, not to corporate card expenses.
References:https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E60665_01/financialscs_gs/FAIEX/F1456644AN125F2.htm

QUESTION 7
Your client company has two business units and requires the Payables Specialist to process invoice
transactions for both business units.
What setup is required to achieve this?
A. a Self-Service Service Provider Model
B. a Dedicated Service Provider model
C. Business Unit Security
D. a Dedicated and Self-Service Service Provider Model
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What happens if a company runs the Payables Unaccounted Transactions Sweep program for February 2018 if the
invoices with a Hold status have an invoice date of January 20, 2018?
A. The accounting dates of all unaccounted invoices will be changed to February 20,2018, the same day of the next
period.
B. The accounting dates of all unaccounted invoices will change to February 28, 2018, the last day of the next period.
C. The accounting dates of all unaccounted invoices will remain unchanged at January 20, 2018.
D. The accounting dates of all unaccounted invoices will be changed to February 1, 2018, the first day of the next
period.
Correct Answer: D
Run the Payables Unaccounted Transactions Sweep program to transfer unaccounted transactions from one
accounting period to another. If your accounting practices permit it, use this program to change the accounting date of
the transactions to the next open period. The program transfers unaccounted transactions to the period you specify by
updating the accounting dates to the first day of the new period.
References:https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel8/financialscs_gs/FAPPP/F1011880AN1B948.htm

QUESTION 9
You have an invoice for $200 USD and a credit memo for $225 USD. In other words, the credit amount exceeds the
invoice amount. If you enable the option to apply credits up to zero amount payment, then how will the invoice and credit
memo be paid?
A. Neither the invoice nor the credit memo are included in the payment process request because the credit reduces the
payment amount below zero.
B. Both the invoice and the credit memo are paid and a refund of $25 USD is created.
C. Both the invoice and credit memo are included in the payment process request for a payment amount of $0 USD.
The credit memo is partially paid with a remaining credit of $25 USD.
D. Both the invoice and the credit memo are selected and the Payment Process Request requires attention.
Correct Answer: C
When you submit a “payment process request”, you can enable the Apply credits up to zero amount payment option.
Enabling the option causes the payment process to apply credits when the credits reduce the payment amount below
zero. The following scenario illustrate the impact of this option. Credit Amount Greater Than Invoice Amount An invoice
for 200 USD and a credit memo for 225 USD are due for payment. The following tabledescribes the payment processing
that occurs based on the setting for the Apply credits up to zero amount payment option. Assume that the “Apply Credits
Up to Zero Amount” option is enabled. Payment processing applies 200 USD of the credit memo to the invoice and
creates a payment for 0 USD. The remaining credit is 25 USD.
References:https://fusionhelp.oracle.com/helpPortal/topic/TopicId_P_9F438E13CC89BA0CE040D30 A68816F77

QUESTION 10
A Bill Payable document was paid but has not yet matured. What is the status of the payment?
A. In Transit
B. Cleared
C. Negotiable
D. Issued
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which job role has full access to perform all Functional Setup Manager related activities?
A. Application System Administrator
B. Any Functional User
C. Functional Setup Manager Superuser
D. IT Security Manager
E. Application Implementation Consultant
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
You are using the Payable\\’s Deferred Expense feature (also known as Multiperiod Accounting). You have entered an
invoice for a three-month lease that is entered on Jan 10th. The total expense is $12,000 and it covers the rental period
from Jan 1st to Mar 31st. Assuming that the rental expenses are split evenly per month and a monthly accounting
calendar is used, what would the accounting entry be?
A. On Jan 10th, Debit Prepaid Expense for 12,000 and Credit Liability 12,000
B. On Jan 31st, Debit Rental Expense for 4,000 and Credit Prepared Expense for 4,000On Feb 28th, Debit Rental
Expense for 4,000 and Credit Prepared Expense for 4,000
C. On Jan 10th, Debit Prepaid Expense 12,000 and Credit Liability for 12,000 and thenOn Jan 31st, Debit Rental
Expense for 4,000 and Credit Prepared Expense for 4,000On Feb 28th, Debit Rental Expense for 4,000 and Credit
Prepared Expense for 4,000On Mar 31st, Debit Rental Expense for 4,000 and Credit Prepared Expense for 4,000
D. On Mar 31st, Debit Rental Expense for 4,000 and Credit Prepared Expense for 4,000On Jan 10th, Debit Rental
Expense for 12,000 and Credit Cash for 12,000
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which dashboard or workarea displays the Scanned Invoices region for invoices processed through the Payables
Integrated Imaging solution?
A. Manage Invoices page
B. C-level executives
C. Invoices Workarea only
D. Payables Dashboard only
E. Payables Dashboard and Invoices Workarea
Correct Answer: C
Accounts payable specialists can view the list of scanned images for invoice entry, along with the additional routing
attributes, in the Scanned Invoices region of the Invoices work area. References:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E36909_01/fusionapps.1111/e20375/F569958AN60E65.htm

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QUESTION 1
Your customer awards three types of bonuses to its workers: Joining Bonus, Ad-hoc Bonus, and Annual Bonus. All
three bonuses are awarded by using element entries. How would you configure the Compensation Statement? (Choose
the best answer.)
A. Create one Compensation Item as Bonus and specify the source type as Element Entry. Associate the three
elements with the Compensation Item.
B. Create three Compensation Items: Joining Bonus, Ad-hoc bonus, and Annual Bonus. Specify the source type as
Element Entry and associate the respective elements with the respective Items.
C. Create one Compensation Category as Bonus and specify the source type as Element Entry. Associate the three
elements with the Compensation Category.
D. Create three Compensation Categories: Joining Bonus, Ad-hoc Bonus, and Annual Bonus. Specify the source type
as Element Entry and associate the respective Elements with the respective Categories.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You client has a requirement that allows a salary adjustment based on the number of dependents the employee has,
and this allowance must be mapped to a separate component. Because this allowance cannot have a logical mapping
with any of the predefined components, you decide to create a new salary component called “Family Allowance”. Which
option would you use to achieve this? (Choose the best answer.)
A. The Configure Compensation Component task in Manage plans
B. The Salary Component Lookup
C. It is not possible to achieve this, because only the delivered salary components can be used.
D. The Compensation Models
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E60665_01/common/FAIWC/F1477720AN1CD0E.htm#F1477720AN1CD 0E

QUESTION 3
Plan access restrictions control the situations in which an individual compensation plan is available for allocations or
contributions by a line manager or worker, and regulate a user\\’s ability to create, update, or discontinue allocations or
contributions under the plan. What are three common decisions to make about plan access? (Choose three.)
A. If user access should be based on career levels or earnings thresholds
B. If the plan is going to require updates that are driven by business users in the time frame of the next payroll cycle
C. if there should be a “white list” name criteria for access to the plan
D. if plan access should be related to HR actions
E. if there should be a time period in which a user can create, update, or discontinue allocations or contributions
F. whether or not to restrict access to the plan at all
Correct Answer: DEF
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E25054_01/fusionapps.1111/e20376/F642623AN4283B.htm

QUESTION 4
A corporation has implemented Oracle Fusion Workforce Compensation. Per business requirements, the Fusion
consultant must integrate Oracle Fusion Workforce Compensation with Oracle Fusion Benefits to fetch the value of
Benefits Amount as one of the input values for the Benefit element to get the eligible salary of an employee for the
compensation process. Identify the option that will enable fetching of the Benefits Amount value. (Choose the best
answer.)
A. Select the “Allow User Entry” and “Create a Database Item” check boxes for the element input value.
B. Database items are created by default for the element input values.
C. Select “Pay Separately” as the “Special Purpose” option.
D. Create an “Amount” input value at the element eligibility link level.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You are required to explain to your client the use of Hierarchy design in Compensation Process. Which two
Compensation-related activities use Hierarchy? (Choose two.)
A. Approval routing
B. Allocating budgets
C. Plan access
D. Sending Compensation alerts
E. Feedback survey
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Identify the two valid formula types applicable for Workforce Compensation Plans. (Choose two.)
A. Compensation Currency Selection
B. Compensation Organization Selection
C. Compensation Item Selection
D. Compensation Person Selection
E. Compensation amounts Selection
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7
You can use predefined alerts to notify managers about issues on the worksheet that need their attention. Which four
predefined alerts are available? (Choose four.)
A. Salary changed in HR
B. Allocation outside target range
C. Grade changed in HR
D. Job changed in HR
E. Worker was terminated
F. Worker is on long-term leave
Correct Answer: ABCE
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37583_01/doc.1116/e22776/F387136AN11E5B.htm (predefined alerts)

QUESTION 8
Which statement is correct about secondary element classifications? (Choose the best answer.)
A. They are user-defined and can be edited.
B. They are user-defined and cannot be edited.
C. They are predefined and can be edited.
D. They are predefined and cannot be edited.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Your customer wants line managers to be able to access the active workforce compensation plan during
the first three months of the Plan period, but not to update it. The evaluation period start and end dates for
the plan are January 1 to December 31 of the year.
How should you set this up? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Configure Plan access start and end dates from January 1 to March 31 of the year and Worksheet update period
start and end dates from April 1 to December 31 of the year.
B. Configure Worksheet update period start and end dates from January 1 to March 31 of the year and Plan access
start and end dates from April 1 to December 31 of the year.
C. Configure Plan access start and end dates from January 1 to December 31 of the year.
D. Configure Worksheet update period start and end dates from January 1 to December 31 of the year.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your client has a requirement where work-at-home assignments are not eligible for an employee compensation revision
cycle. To facilitate capturing work-at-home assignment, you have created a custom column and associated a List of
Values (LOV) with values “Yes” and “No”. Now you wish to create an eligibility profile around this. Which is the correct
option? (Choose the best answer.)
A. User-defined-criteria-based eligibility profile on “Work-at-home” and value = “Yes” with exclude option selected
B. User-defined-criteria-based eligibility profile on “Work-at-home” and value = “Yes” with exclude option deselected
C. User-defined-criteria-based eligibility profile on “Work-at-home” and value = “No” with exclude option selected
D. Derived-factor-based eligibility profile based on the “Work-at-home” column
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
The compensation administrator has configured an Annual Salary Review plan that is linked to the performance of
employees so that the annual increment amount is based on the rating that an employee has received in the
performance evaluation. The percentages are fixed for each of the ratings by using the dynamic column. All the
managers have completed updating the worksheet and the information has been transferred to HR by running the
Transfer Workforce Compensation Data to HR process. After this, the compensation administrator realizes that the
increment percentages for each of the ratings used in the dynamic column were incorrect. Now each of these incorrect
salary records should be deleted and new correct salary record entries should be made for the employees in Manage
Salary. How should you accomplish this? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Change the plan status to Inactivate and create a new compensation plan with correct percentage increase for each
of the ratings.
B. Correct the percentage increase for each of the ratings, run the Refresh Workforce Compensation Data process, and
return the same compensation plan.
C. Run the Back Out Workforce Compensation Data process, run the Refresh Workforce Compensation Data process, return the same compensation plan, and then transfer the data to HR.
D. Run the Back Out Workforce Compensation Data process, correct the percentage increase for each of the ratings,
run the Refresh Workforce Compensation Data process, and rerun the same compensation plan.
E. Run the Back Out Workforce Compensation Data process, correct the percentage increase for each of the ratings,
run the Refresh Workforce Compensation Data process, and rerun the same compensation plan. Finally transfer the
data to HR.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You are responsible for configuring variable allocations to manage approvals for individual compensation plans. Your
company wants to control plan availability by using defaults. What are the default attributes of the actionable Variable
Allocation task? (Choose the best answer.)
A. The task is only for notification and has no rules.
B. The task applies to all allocations, uses two levels of the Supervisory list builder, and does not require a response
from the current approver.
C. The task applies to selected allocations, uses two levels of the Supervisory list builder, and requires a response from
the current approver.
D. The task applies to all allocations, uses two levels of the Supervisory list builder, and requires a response from the
current approver.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Contingent workers are ineligible as per the eligibility rules defined for your organization\\’s compensation plan. The
compensation plan cycle is started. As is the standard practice, the compensation administrator schedules the “Refresh
Workforce Compensation Data” nightly. A worker who was a contingent worker is now an employee of the organization
and the next day shows up in Manager\\’s worksheet. How is this possible? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Track Ineligible Workers is selected in the compensation plan.
B. Show Ineligible Workers is selected in the compensation plan.
C. Hide Ineligible Workers is selected in the compensation plan.
D. Process Ineligible Workers is selected in the compensation plan.
Correct Answer: D

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