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QUESTION 1

Select the three correct statements regarding Freight Settlement in OTM. (Choose three.)

A. Invoice checks may be printed out of OTM.
B. Rules for matching, approval, and allocation are the cornerstones of automation in Freight Settlement.
C. Freight Invoices may be created within OTM or interfaced from an external system.
D. Invoices in OTM must be tied to a shipment.
E. Freight Settlement in OTM may be used to pay invoices to carriers as well as bill customers for freight.

QUESTION 2

Identify the incorrect option about the commodity setup.

A. Incompatible commodities can be captured while defining a commodity.
B. Specific temperature controls cannot be assigned while defining a commodity.
C. You can select transportation modes while defining a commodity.
D. You can link commodity with equipment types while defining a new commodity.

QUESTION 3

When a new Service Provider is created, OTM automatically does which of the following?

A. OTM assigns the default Calendar defined in the Parameter Set.
B. OTM associates the Service Provider calendar with the calendar of the CORPORATION ID identified during setup.
C. OTM sends an email or fax to the Service Provider contact, depending on the contact\\’s preferred contact method.
D. OTM creates a corresponding LOCATION, with the location Role of “CARRIER”.

QUESTION 4

You\’ve executed a CSV upload in which you have modified some existing records and created some new records.
There were no errors during the upload. However, OTM is still retrieving only the old data, not the new data that was just
uploaded.

Select the action that you can take to address this.

A. You must reboot the database server in order to commit the changes.
B. Rerun the upload, this time making sure that you specify the “dd” command.
C. You should clear the OTM cache.
D. Rerun the upload, this time making sure that you specify the “ii” command.
E. Rerun the upload, this time making sure that you specify the “uu” command.

QUESTION 5

Which rate component defines how transportation time will be calculated for the Rate?

A. Rate Service
B. Rate Distance
C. Rate Record
D. Rate Lane
E. Rate Offering

QUESTION 6

You are writing an agent to be triggered when an Order Release Update is received via integration. You would like the
agent to check if the Order Release is on a shipment and if it is, you want OTM to only update the Order Release.
Which option will achieve this?

A. You can use an agent saved condition to identify OR ON SHIPMENT WITH RESOURCES TENDERED/SECURED
and use the ORDER RELEASE – MOD – NO PROCESSING agent action.

B. You can use an agent saved condition to identify OR ON SHIPMENT and use the ORDER RELEASE MOD – NO
PROCESSING agent action.

C. You can use an agent saved condition OR ON SHIPMENT and use the ORDER RELEASE – MOD NO
PROCESSING action.

D. You can use an agent saved condition to identify OR ON SHIPMENT and use the ORDER RELEASE MOD –
FUTURE PROCESSING agent action.

E. You can use an agent saved condition to identify OR ON SHIPMENT and use the ORDER RELEASE MOD – FULL
IMPACT action.

QUESTION 7

Which three statements are true when configuring allocation rules for OTM Freight Payment? (Choose three.)

A. For a service provider, one can assign one allocation rule based on the planned cost and another based on the
actual cost.
B. OTM uses the first allocation rule that applies.
C. The allocation rules in the profile can be sequenced in the allocation rule profile.
D. One cannot use the same rule in more than one allocation rule profile.
E. Allocation rules need to be set up before the allocation rule profiles.

QUESTION 8

Which three options are supported in Oracle Global Trade Management (GTM) when creating a Declaration? (Choose
three.)

A. One Trade Transaction to many Declarations
B. One Order Release to one Declaration
C. One Trade Transaction to one Declaration
D. Many Trade Transactions to one Declaration
E. One Order Release to many Declarations

QUESTION 9

Given the information:

Which two options are correct for the Service Preference configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Exclude Words is used to specify words to exclude when ONLY “Dice” Match Engine is used.
B. At the most sixty-four words can be specified in Exclude Words.
C. It is not mandatory to specify Agency Code.
D. If the Data Version ID is not specified, then the system will throw an error during the screening that Data Version ID
needs to be specified.
E. If the Data Version ID is not specified and if there is a Restricted Parties List with a Data Version with the “Current”
flag set, it will be used for screening.

QUESTION 10

When defining a Region, there is a parameter called “Representative Location”.
When is it appropriate to set a value for “Representative Location”?

A. Do it if you are using Cooperative Routing and you want the location to be considered in the cooperative routing
aggregation.
B. Use this parameter to define a range of values that will be included in the region you are defining, such as a range of
zip codes.
C. Do it when you want to create a template Region that you can use to quickly create other regions in the future.
D. Representative Location is the location of the person assigned to the LOGISTICS Role for the region.

QUESTION 11

To import Rates in OTM, which are four key components that you must configure? (Choose four.)

A. Rate Service
B. Lanes
C. Rate Offering
D. Accessorial
E. Itinerary
F. Rate Quality
G. Rate Record

QUESTION 12

Which statement is correct regarding the OTM Parameter Set?

A. OTM allows more than one Parameter Set, but they must be stored in the PUBLIC domain.
B. If you want to create a Parameter Set, you must name it “DEFAULT”.
C. OTM allows only one Parameter Set, and it is stored in the PUBLIC domain.
D. There are less than 30 parameters that can be changed in the Default Parameter Set.
E. Parameter Sets are mandatory during Bulk planning.

QUESTION 13

After executing the Approve Multiple Invoices function, Oracle Transportation Management displays an Approve Invoice
results page.

Which four invoice values are displayed on this results page? (Choose four.)

A. Shipment ID
B. Voucher ID
C. Approval Status
D. Service Provider ID
E. Invoice ID
F. Amount to Pay

Publish the correct answer:

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QUESTION 1 #

In a Linux environment, what is the default locations of the configuration file that Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI uses
for profile information?

A. /etc/.oci/config
B. /usr/local/bin/config
C. SHOME/.oci/config
D. /usr/bin/oci/config

Correct Answer: C

By default, the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI configuration file is located at ~/.oci/config. You might already have a
configuration file as a result of installing the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI.

QUESTION 2

Which one of the following is NOT a valid backend-type supported by Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) API Gateway?

A. STOCK_RESPONSE_BACKEND
B. ORACLE_FUNCTIONS_BACKEND
C. ORACLE_STREAMS_BACKEND
D. HTTP_BACKEND

Correct Answer: C

In the API Gateway service, a back end is the means by which a gateway routes requests to the back-end services that
implement APIs. If you add a private endpoint back end to an API gateway, you give the API gateway access to the
VCN associated with that private endpoint.

You can also grant an API gateway access to other Oracle Cloud Infrastructure services as back ends. For example, you could grant an API gateway access to Oracle Functions, so you can create and deploy an API that is backed by a serverless function. API Gateway service to create an API gateway,

you can create an API deployment to access HTTP and HTTPS URLs. https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/enus/iaas/Content/APIGateway/Tasks/ apigatewayusinghttpbackend.htm API Gateway service to create an API gateway, you can create an API deployment that invokes serverless functions defined in Oracle Functions.

https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/APIGateway/Tasks/ apigatewayusingfunctionsbackend.htm API
Gateway service, you can define a path to a stock response back end https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/
APIGateway/Tasks/ apigatewayaddingstockresponses.htm

QUESTION 3

With the volume of communication that can happen between different components in cloud-native applications, it is vital
to not only test functionality, but also service resiliency. Which statement is true with regards to service resiliency?

A. Resiliency is about recovering from failures without downtime or data loss.
B. A goal of resiliency is not to bring a service to a functioning state after a failure.
C. Resiliency testing can be only done in a test environment.
D. Resiliency is about avoiding failures.

Correct Answer: D

Resiliency and Availability Resiliency and availability refer to the ability of a system to continue operating, despite the
failure or suboptimal performance of some of its components. In the case of Oracle Functions: The control plane is a set
of components that manages function definitions.

The data plane is a set of components that executes functions in response to invocation requests. For resiliency and high availability, both the control plane and data plane components are distributed across different availability domains and fault domains in a region. If one of the domains ceases to be available, the components in the remaining domains take over to ensure that function definition management and execution are not disrupted.

When functions are invoked, they run in the subnets specified for the application to which the functions belong. For resiliency and high availability, the best practice is to specify a regional subnet for an application
(or alternatively, multiple AD- specific subnets in different availability domains).

If an availability domain specified for an application ceases to be available, Oracle Functions runs functions in an alternative availability domain.

QUESTION 4

Your Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE) administrator has created an
OKE cluster with one node pool in a public subnet. You have been asked to provide a log file from one of
the nodes for troubleshooting purposes.

Which step should you take to obtain the log file?

A. ssh into the node using the public key.
B. ssh into the nodes using the private key.
C. It is impossible since OKE is a managed Kubernetes service.
D. Use the username open and password to log in.

Correct Answer: B

Kubernetes cluster is a group of nodes. The nodes are the machines running applications. Each node can be a physical
machine or a virtual machine. The node\’s capacity (its number of CPUs and amount of memory) is defined when the
node is created. A cluster comprises: – one or more master nodes (for high availability, typically there will be a number
of master nodes) – one or more worker nodes (sometimes known as minions) Connecting to Worker Nodes Using SSH
If you provided a public SSH key when creating the node pool in a cluster, the public key is installed on all worker nodes
in the cluster.

On UNIX and UNIX-like platforms (including Solaris and Linux), you can then connect through SSH to the
worker nodes using the ssh utility (an SSH client) to perform administrative tasks. Note the following instructions
assume the UNIX machine you use to connect to the worker node: Has the ssh utility installed. Has access to the SSH
private key file paired with the SSH public key that was specified when the cluster was created.

How to connect to worker nodes using SSH depends on whether you specified public or private subnets for the worker nodes when defining the node pools in the cluster. Connecting to Worker Nodes in Public Subnets Using SSH Before you can connect to a worker node in a public subnet using SSH, you must define an ingress rule in the subnet\’s security list to
allow SSH access.

The ingress rule must allow access to port 22 on worker nodes from source 0.0.0.0/0 and any source
port To connect to a worker node in a public subnet through SSH from a UNIX machine using the ssh utility: 1- Find out
the IP address of the worker node to which you want to connect. You can do this in a number of ways: Using kubectl. If
you haven\’t already done so, follow the steps to set up the cluster\’s kubeconfig configuration file and (if necessary)
set the KUBECONFIG environment variable to point to the file. Note that you must set up your own kubeconfig file.

You cannot access a cluster using a kubeconfig file that a different user set up. See Setting Up Cluster Access. Then in a
terminal window, enter kubectl get nodes to see the public IP addresses of worker nodes in node pools in the cluster.
Using the Console. In the Console, display the Cluster List page and then select the cluster to which the worker node
belongs. On the Node Pools tab, click the name of the node pool to which the worker node belongs. On the Nodes tab,
you see the public IP address of every worker node in the node pool. Using the REST API.

Use the ListNodePools operation to see the public IP addresses of worker nodes in a node pool. 2- In the terminal window, enter ssh [email protected] to connect to the worker node, where is the IP address of the worker node that you made a note of earlier. For example, you might enter ssh [email protected] Note that if the SSH private key is not stored in the file or in the path that the ssh utility expects (for example, the ssh utility might expect the private key to be stored in ~/.ssh/id_rsa), you must explicitly specify the private key filename and location in one of two ways: Use the -i option to specify the filename and location of the private key.

For example, ssh -i ~/.ssh/ my_keys/my_host_key_filename [email protected] Add the private key
filename and location to an SSH configuration file, either the client configuration file (~/.ssh/config) if it exists, or the system-wide client configuration file (/etc/ssh/ssh_config). For example, you might add the following:
Host 192.0.2.254 IdentityFile ~/.ssh/my_keys/my_host_key_filename

For more about the ssh utility\’s configuration file, enter man ssh_config Note also that permissions on the
private key file must allow you to read/write/execute access, but prevent other users from accessing the file.
For example, to set appropriate permissions, you might enter chmod 600 ~/.ssh/my_keys/
my_host_key_filename.

If permissions are not set correctly and the private key file is accessible to other
users, the ssh utility will simply ignore the private key file.

QUESTION 5

You are developing a serverless application with Oracle Functions and Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage- Your
function needs to read a JSON file object from an Object Storage bucket named “input bucket” in compartment “qacompartment”. Your corporate security standards mandate the use of Resource Principals for this use case. Which two
statements are needed to implement this use case?

A. Set up a policy with the following statement to grant read access to the bucket: allow dynamic-group read-file-dg to
read objects in compartment a-compartment where target .bucket .name=\’ input-bucket *
B. Set up the following dynamic group for your function\’s OCID: Name: read-file-dg Rule: resource. id =
`ocid1.fnfunc.oc1.phx.aaaaaaaakeaobctakezjz5i4ujj7g25q7sx5mvr55pms6f4da\’
C. Set up a policy to grant all functions read access to the bucket: allow all functions in the compartment to
read objects in the target. bucket.name=\’input-bucket\’
D. Set up a policy to grant your user account read access to the bucket: allow user XYZ to read objects in compartment
a-compartment where target .bucket, name-\’input-bucket\’
E. No policies are needed. By default, every function has read access to Object Storage buckets in the tenancy

Correct Answer: AB
When a function you\’ve deployed to Oracle Functions is running, it can access other Oracle Cloud Infrastructure resources. For example:

You might want a function to get a list of VCNs from the Networking service.

You might want a function to read data from an Object Storage bucket, perform some operation on the
data, and then write the modified data back to the Object Storage bucket. To enable a function to access another Oracle
Cloud Infrastructure resource, you have to include the function in a dynamic group, and then create a policy to grant the
dynamic group access to that resource.

https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/enus/iaas/Content/Functions/Tasks/functionsaccessingociresources.htm

QUESTION 6

Which is NOT a supported SDK Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)?

A. Go SDK
B. Java SDK
C. NET SDK
D. Ruby SDK
E. Python SDK

Correct Answer: C

https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/API/Concepts/sdks.htm
Software Development Kits (SDKs) Build and deploy apps that integrate with Oracle Cloud Infrastructure services. Each
SDK provides the tools you need to develop an app, including code samples and documentation to create, test, and
troubleshoot.

In addition, if you want to contribute to the development of the SDKs, they are all open-source and
available on GitHub. SDK for Java Python SDK Ruby SDK Go SDK

QUESTION 7

Who is responsible for patching, upgrading, and maintaining the worker nodes in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container
Engine for Kubernetes (OKE)?

A. It Is automated
B. Independent Software Vendors
C. Oracle Support
D. The user

Correct Answer: D
After a new version of Kubernetes has been released and when Container Engine for Kubernetes supports the new
version, you can use Container Engine for Kubernetes to upgrade master nodes running older versions of Kubernetes.
Because Container Engine for Kubernetes distributes the Kubernetes Control Plane on multiple Oracle-managed masters
nodes (distributed across different availability domains in a region where supported) to ensure high availability, you\’re
able to upgrade the Kubernetes version running on master nodes with zero downtime.

Having upgraded master nodes to a new version of Kubernetes, you can subsequently create new node pools running the newer version. Alternatively, you can continue to create new node pools that will run older versions of Kubernetes (providing those older versions are compatible with the Kubernetes version running on the master nodes). Note that you upgrade master nodes by performing an in-place\\' upgrade, but you upgrade worker nodes by performing anout-of-place\’ upgrade.

To upgrade the version of Kubernetes running on worker nodes in a node pool, you replace the original node pool with a new node pool that has new worker nodes running the appropriate Kubernetes version. Having \’drained\’ existing worker nodes in the original node pool to prevent new pods from starting and to delete existing pods, you can then delete the original node pool.

QUESTION 8

You are developing a serverless application with Oracle Functions. You have created a function in a compartment named
prod. When you try to invoke your function you get the following error. Error invoking the function. status: 502 messages:
DHCP options ocid1.dhcpoptions.oc1.phx.AAAA AAAA… does not exist or Oracle Functions is not authorized to use it How
can you resolve this error?

A. Create a policy: Allow function-family to use virtual-network-family in compartment prod
B. Create a policy: Allow any-user to manage function-family and virtual-network-family in compartment prod
C. Create a policy: Allow service FaaS to use virtual-network-family in compartment prod
D. Deleting the function and redeploying it will fix the problem

Correct Answer: C

Invoking a function returns a FunctionInvokeSubnetNotAvailable message and a 502 error (due to a DHCP
Options issue) When you invoke a function that you\’ve deployed to Oracle Functions, you might see the following error
message:

{“code”:”FunctionInvokeSubnetNotAvailable”,”message”:”dhcp options ocid1.dhcpoptions…….. does not
exist or Oracle Functions is not authorized to use it”}

Fn: Error invoking the function. status: 502 messages: DHCP options ocid1.dhcpoptions…….. does not exist or
Oracle Functions is not authorized to use it If you see this error:

Double-check that a policy has been created to give Oracle Functions access to network resources.
Service Access to Network Resources
When Oracle Functions users create a function or application, they have to specify a VCN and a subnet in
which to create them.

To enable the Oracle Functions service to create the function or application in the specified VCN and subnet, you must create an identity policy to grant the Oracle Functions service access to the compartment to which the network resources belong. To create a policy to give the Oracle Functions service access to network resources:

Log in to the Console as a tenancy administrator.
Create a new policy in the root compartment:
Open the navigation menu. Under Governance and Administration, go to Identity and click Policies. Follow
the instructions in To create a policy, and give the policy a name (for example, functions- service-network access).

Specify a policy statement to give the Oracle Functions service access to the network resources in the
compartment:
Allow service FaaS to use virtual-network-family in compartment For example:
Allow service FaaS to use virtual-network-family in compartment acme-network Click Create.
Double-check that the set of DHCP Options in the VCN specified for the application still exists.

QUESTION 9

A leading insurance firm is hosting its customer portal in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Container Engine for
Kubernetes with an OCI Autonomous Database. Their support team discovered a lot of SQL injection attempts and
cross-site scripting attacks to the portal, which are starting to affect the production environment. What should they
implement to mitigate this attack?

A. Network Security Lists
B. Network Security Groups
C. Network Security Firewall
D. Web Application Firewall

Correct Answer: D

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Web Application Firewall (WAF) is a cloud-based, Payment Card Industry (PCI) compliant,
global security service that protects applications from malicious and unwanted internet traffic. WAF can protect any
internet-facing endpoint, providing consistent rule enforcement across a customer\\’s applications.

WAF provides you with the ability to create and manage rules for internet threats including Cross-Site Scripting (XSS), SQL Injection, and other OWASP-defined vulnerabilities. Unwanted bots can be mitigated while tactically allowing desirable bots to enter. Access rules can limit based on geography or the signature of the request.

QUESTION 10

What is the difference between blue/green and canary deployment strategies?

A. In blue/green, the application Is deployed In minor increments to a select group of people. In the canary, both old and new applications are simultaneously in production.
B. In blue/green, both old and new applications are in production at the same time. In canary, the application is deployed
Incrementally to a select group of people.
C. In blue/green, current applications are slowly replaced with new ones. In
D. In blue/green, current applications are slowly replaced with new ones. In canary, both old and new applications are In
production at the same time.

Correct Answer: B

Blue-green deployment is a technique that reduces downtime and risk by running two identical production environments
called Blue and Green. At any time, only one of the environments is life, with the live environment serving all production
traffic. For this example, Blue is currently live and Green is idle.

https://docs.cloudfoundry.org/devguide/deployapps/blue-green.html Canary deployments are a pattern for rolling out releases to a subset of users or servers. The idea is to first deploy the change to a small subset of servers, test it, and then roll the change out to the rest of the servers. …

The canaries were once regularly used in coal mining as an early warning system. https://octopus.com/docs/deploymentpatterns/canary-deployments

QUESTION 11

Which header is NOT required when signing GET requests to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure APIs?

A. date or x-date
B. (request-target)
C. content-type
D. host

Correct Answer: C

For getting and DELETE requests (when their \’s no content in the request body), the signing string must
include at least these headers:
(request-target) (as described in draft-savage-HTTP-signatures-08) host date or x-date (if both are included,
Oracle uses x-date)
https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/API/Concepts/signingrequests.htm

QUESTION 12

Your organization uses a federated identity provider to login to your Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)
environment. As a developer, you are writing a script to automate some operations and want to use OCI CLI
to do that. Your security team doesn\’t allow storing private keys on local machines.
How can you authenticate with OCI CLI?

A. Run oci setup keys and provide your credentials
B. Run oci session refresh –profile
C. Run oci session authenticate and provide your credentials
D. Run oci setup oci-cli-rc –file path/to/target/file

Correct Answer: C

Token-based authentication for the CLI allows customers to authenticate their session interactively, then
use the CLI for a single session without an API signing key. This enables customers using an identity
provider that is not SCIM- supported to use a federated user account with the CLI and SDKs.
Starting a Token-based CLI Session

To use token-based authentication for the CLI on a computer with a web browser:
In the CLI, run the following command. This will launch a web browser.
oci session authenticate

In the browser, enter your user credentials. This authentication information is saved to the .config file.

QUESTION 13

Which is NOT a supported SDK on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)?

A. Ruby SDK
B. Java SDK
C. Python SDK
D. Go SDK
E. .NET SDK

Correct Answer: E
https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/API/Concepts/sdks.htm

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QUESTION 1

You want to perform Internal Material Transfer across Business Units and want to capture internal margin as part of
revenue for the selling Business Unit.
Which mandatory task would you perform for this requirement?

A. Configure Oracle Fusion Global Order Promising
B. Manage Consumption Rules
C. Manage Supply Execution Documentation Creation Rules
D. Manage Supply Chain Financial Orchestration Transfer Pricing Rules
E. Manage Supply Order Defaulting and Enrichment Rules
Correct Answer: D


Sourcing tools enable you to manually create internal material transfer requisition lines in Self Service Procurement and
create supply requests from the Manage Item Quantity page. These sourcing tools provide a default source organization
and allow access to source organization rankings and are available to promise quantities.

Oracle Fusion Supply Chain Orchestration works with Oracle Fusion Global Order Promising and Oracle Fusion Inventory Management to identify the source organization rankings based on pre-established rules.

QUESTION 2

A tax authority requires that you calculate tax only on the selling price of an item that you are selling, and not on the
shipping charge.
How will you achieve this?

A. by moving the “Compute Tax” step before the “Create Net Price Charge Component” step in the Pricing algorithm
B. by moving the “Compute Tax” step before the “Create Shipping Charges” step in the Pricing algorithm
C. by creating a sub-algorithm and an expression builder
D. by using nested action and Groovy scripts
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

Identify three ongoing maintenance tasks that a user is required to execute from the Order Management Work Area
after the Order Management Implementation is completed. (Choose three.)

A. Manage Fulfillment Line Exceptions
B. Manage Order in Errors
C. Manage Order Orchestration Messages
D. Manage Source Systems
E. Manage Orchestration Statuses
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4

Which statement is true about the definition of source systems in Functional Setup manager?

A. All order capture and fulfillment systems are defined as Spoke systems.
B. The Oracle Fusion order capture and fulfillment system are defined as Fusion.
C. All external order capture systems are defined as Spoke systems and the Fusion fulfillment system is defined as
Fusion.
D. All external order capture systems are defined as Spoke systems and external fulfillment systems are defined as
purchased.
Correct Answer: A

You can specify whether the source system is a spoke system, such as a legacy system, or a purchased system, such
as data from a third-party provider. Type can be only Spoke\\' orPurchased\’. There is no type called `Fusion\’.

QUESTION 5

A global Power Systems manufacturer sells Uninterrupted Power Supply (UPS) products through its online portal. To
gain a competitive advantage, the manufacturer wants to enhance the ability of buyers to select the desired configuration of
the high-end UPS models through guided selling options on its online selling portal.

The company\’s product development team has finalized the enhancements, and needs your help to get them implemented on their online selling portal that is supported by Oracle Cloud Configurator.
What four actions would you take in Oracle Cloud Configurator to enhance a buyer\’s experience? (Choose four.)

A. You can allow buyers to raise requests if an expected product functionality is not offered.
B. You can create enhancements to the model structure that supplements the imported configurable structure of a
model item.
C. You can create rules that will guide users in creating a valid model.
D. You can create user interfaces that will be dynamically presented to users based on the options chosen in the
Configurator model.
E. You can test the behavior of the configured model anytime when you are editing it.
F. You can enable a checkout option for a model when a valid configuration is finalized.
G. You can display product reviews of customers who have purchased the same configuration earlier.
Correct Answer: BDFG

QUESTION 6

Identify the sequence of Oracle Management Cloud components involved while processing a sales order.

A. Order Entry, Orchestration, Task Layer Services, External Interface Layer
B. External Source Systems, Internal Systems, Orchestration, Task Layer Services, External Interface Layer
C. External Source Systems, Order Entry, Orchestration, Task Layer Services, External Interface Layer
D. External Source Systems, Order Entry, Orchestration, External Interface Layer, Task Layer Services
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

Your customer is concerned about not having access to schedule orders and checks availability when the Global Order
The promising server is down. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Affected orders can be rescheduled based on supply chain availability search after server recovery.
B. Global Order Promising continues promising orders based on supply chain availability search until the server or
backup server can be restarted.
C. Global Order Promising cannot continue promising orders, but the server or backup server is usually restarted
quickly.
D. Affected orders cannot be rescheduled based on supply chain availability search after server recovery.
E. Global Order Promising continues promising orders based on lead-time availability until the server or backup server
can be restarted.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8

Which two statements describe Net Change Collection? (Choose two.)

A. Data for the selected entities is replaced in the planning data repository.
B. It completely refreshes the planning data repository.
C. Data for the selected entities is deleted from the planning data repository.
D. It collects only changed data to the planning data repository.
E. It collects data only incrementally to the planning data repository.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 9

Which Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence subject area should you use to build an online custom port that shows
the number of orchestration orders for a selected orchestration process status?

A. Distributed Order Orchestration?Order Lines Real-Time
B. Distributed Order Orchestration?Fulfillment Lines Real-Time
C. Distributed Order Orchestration?Process Instances Real-Time
D. Distributed Order Orchestration?Process Instances
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Your company wants to notify the external system when there is a high possibility that an order is going to be delayed.
Which four steps are required to invoke the external system connector to notify that an order is going to be delayed?
(Choose four.)

A. Set up the Jeopardy threshold for the orchestration process task.
B. Set up the lead time for the orchestration steps in the orchestration process definition.
C. Register the web service connector.
D. Create a routing rule for the orchestration process task.
E. Enable a business event trigger point for Jeopardy and associate the connector.
F. Set up the Use Defined Lead time in the Available To Promise Rule.
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 11

Your company is in the business of selling kitchen appliances.
Which three entities can you include while defining pricing rules that control how Oracle Pricing Cloud calculates the
price for each time? (Choose three.)

A. Shipping change lists
B. Discount List
C. Pricing Profile
D. Pricing Strategy
E. Cost List
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 12

In which fulfillment process does a specific sales order demand trigger a supply creation, and a firm link is established
between the sales order and the supply?

A. Consignment order
B. Internal Transfer
C. Configure to order
D. Back-to-back
E. Drop Ship
Correct Answer: D

The back-to-back fulfillment process is one in which specific sales order demand triggers supply creation, and a link is
established between the sales order and the supply.

QUESTION 13

You are importing sales order data from a source system. You want to delete the imported sales orders from interface
tables to save storage space. How would you do this?

A. Delete the orders from Oracle Content Server.
B. Run the ESS job “Delete Orders from Interface Tables.”
C. You must request the system administrator to delete orders from interface tables.
D. Delete the orders from the Order Management work area.
E. You cannot delete orders from interface tables.
F. Run the ESS job Purge Interface Tables.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1 #

Which predefined report should you use from Oracle Business Intelligence Publisher to manage the balance of accrued
supplier liabilities for a business unit?

A. Accrual Supplier Liability Report
B. Accrual Reconciliation Report
C. Accrual Clearing Report
D. Uninvoiced Receipt Accrual Report
E. Receipt Accounting Real Time Report
Correct Answer: B

https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel12/scmcs_gs/FAPMA/FAPMA2269725.htm#FAPMA2269725

QUESTION 2 #

Select two ways to define the standard cost for an item from the Cost Accounting work area.

A. Manage the Item Cost task.
B. Import standard costs from receipt layers.
C. Manage the Standard Cost task.
D. Create Standard Cost in a spreadsheet.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3 #

Which three predefined areas can you review on the Overview page of Cost Accounting? (Choose three.)

A. Purchase Variance Summary
B. Journal Entries
C. Item CostIdentify two reference types used to tie a receipt trade operation to an expense invoice for landing
D. Cost Processing
E. Work Order Costs
F. Inventory Valuation
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 4 #

Which three cost planning tasks can be performed in the Cost Accounting work area?

A. Review Work Order Costs
B. Review Item Costs
C. Analyzing and Comparing Costs
D. Estimating Standard Costs for Assemblies
E. Manage Resource Rates
F. Manage Cost Accounting Periods
Correct Answer: ADE

https://fusionhelp.oracle.com/fscmUI/topic/TopicId_P_C97AC111350F0D3EE040D30A68814D11

QUESTION 5 #

You can track costs at what granularity level in Cost Accounting for the actual costing method?

A. Subinventory, Make, Lot, Serial
B. Grade, Serial, Group, Lot
C. Sub inventory. Lot, Serial, Grade
D. Grade, Subinventory, Locator, Serial
E. Subinventory, Lot, Serial, Locator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6 #

If the accounting method does not have an assigned chart of accounts (COA), which option is valid?

A. The accounting method must have a mapping set to convert the accounts.
B. Accounting rules cannot override the accounting method.
C. The accounting method can be assigned to any ledger.
D. Any secondary ledger that uses the method cannot have a COA.
E. The accounting method may only be used by ledgers without a COA.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7 #

You are explaining the characteristics of a “profit in inventory” cost element to a client. Which three statements describe
true characteristics of this cost element?

A. It is only used when you do not need to maintain an arm\\’s length relationship.
B. It can help you understand true margins and value-added by internal business units through the internal supply
chain.
C. It can help you with consolidated financial reporting.
D. It is a special type of cost element that helps you keep track of internal markups when inventory is transferred
between inventory organizations that are in different business units.
E. It is a special type of cost element that helps you keep track of internal markups when inventory is transferred
between inventory organizations that are in the same business unit.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 8 #

You are trying to import the purchase order information into Receipt Accounting in the Schedule Process work are

A. Why can\\’t you see this process?
B. Purchase order information is automatically sent to Receipt Accounting using a real-time method
C. This process can only be scheduled and run from the Receipt Accounting work area
D. You do not have the role to import purchase order information into Receipt Accounting.
E. All purchase order information is included in the Transfer-Transactions from Receiving to Costing process. There is
no separate process.
F. Purchase order information should not be imported into Receipt Accounting.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9 #

You have just finished modifying an accounting method. What is the final step to complete the accounting method
configuration?

A. Activate its journal entry rule set assignments.
B. Transfer costs to Cost Management.
C. Create Accounting.
D. Transfer transactions from Receiving to Costing.
E. Execute the Preprocessor.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10 #

You have configured the application as follows:
Expense items are set to accrue at receipt.
Receipt Close tolerance is set to 75 percent.
Purchasing Line types are set to a 2-way match.

When you create a purchase order, the Accrue on Receipt check box is automatically selected when a line
is added. Which two configurations changes will ensure the Accrue on Receipt check box is not selected by default?

A. Change expense items to accrue at period end.
B. Change the Purchasing Line types to a 4-way match.
C. Change inventory items to accrue at period end.
D. Change the Purchasing Line types to a 3-way match.
E. Change the Receipt Close tolerance so it is 100 percent.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11 #

Identify two reference types used to tie a receipt trade operation to an expense invoice for landing.

A. Internal requisition number
B. Shipment number
C. Expense invoice number
D. Bill of Lading E. Receipt number
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12 #

Your client wants to view Landed Cost Variance. Which pair of search options are available to view Landed Cost
Variance?

A. Business Unit and Cost Organization
B. Inventory Organization and Legal Entity
C. Business Unit and Legal Entity
D. Business Unit and Inventory Organization
E. Legal Entity and Cost Organization
F. Inventory Organization and Cost Organization
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13 #

Your client needs to import the relevant transactions and tax determinants for their expense items into the Receipt
Accounting. What is the correct sequence of processes to accomplish this?

A. Transfer Transactions from Receiving to Costing, Transfer Costs to Cost Management
B. Transfer Transactions from Receiving to Costing, Transfer-Transactions from Inventory to Costing
C. Transfer Costs to Cost Management, Transfer-Transactions from Receiving to Costing
D. Transfer Transactions from Inventory to Costing, Transfer Costs to Cost Management
E. Transfer Transactions from Receiving to Costing, Transfer-Transactions from Inventory to Costing
F. Transfer Costs to Cost Management, Transfer-Transactions from Inventory to Costing
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1

You are using Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) console to set up an alarm on a budget to track your OCI spending.
Which two are valid targets for creating a budget in OCI? (Choose two.)

A. Select group as the type of target for your budget.
B. Select Tenancy as the type of target for your budget.
C. Select user as the type of target for your budget.
D. Select Cost-Tracking Tags as the type of target for your budget.
E. Select Compartment as the type of target for your budget.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2

You have a Linux compute instance located in a public subnet in a VCN which hosts a web application. The security list
attached to subnet containing the compute instance has the following stateful ingress rule.

Which step will resolve the issue? (Choose the best answer.)

A. In the route table, add a rule for your default traffic to be routed to NAT gateway.
B. In the security list, add an ingress rule for port 80 (http).
C. In the security list, remove the ssh rule.
D. In the route table, add a rule for your default traffic to be routed to service gateway.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3

You have been asked to review a network design for Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) by a major client. The client\\’s IT
team needs to provision two Virtual Cloud Networks (VCNs) for a major application. The application uses a large
number of virtual machine instances. Additionally, in the future, a VCN peering will be required to allow connectivity
between the VCNs.
Which of the following are valid IP ranges to consider? (Choose the best answer.)

A. 10.0.0.0/30 and 192.168.0.0/30
B. 10.0.0.0/8 and 11.0.0.0/8
C. 10.0.8.0/21 and 10.0.16.0/22
D. 10.0.0.0/16 and 10.0.64.0/24
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://blogs.oracle.com/developers/setting-up-a-virtual-cloud-network-vcn-in-oracle-cloudinfrastructure

QUESTION 4

You have been asked to investigate a potential security risk on your company\\’s Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)
tenancy. You decide to start by looking through the audit logs for suspicious activity.
How can you retrieve the audit logs using the OCI Command Line Interface (CLI)? (Choose the best answer.)

A. oci audit event list –-end-time $end-time –-compartment-id $compartment-id
B. oci audit event list –-start-time $start-time –-compartment-id $compartment-id
C. oci audit event list –-start-time $start-time –-end-time $end-time –-compartment-id $compartment-id
D. oci audit event list –-start-time $start-time –-end-time $end–time –-tenancy-id $tenancy–id
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

You have created the following JSON file to specify a lifecycle policy for one of your object storage buckets:

How will this policy affect the objects that are stored in the bucket? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Objects with the prefix “LOGS” will be retained for 120 days and then deleted permanently.
B. Objects containing the name prefix LOGS will be automatically migrated from standard Storage to Archive storage 30
days after the creation date. The object will be deleted 120 days after creation.
C. The objects with prefix “LOGS” will be deleted 30 days after creation date.
D. Objects containing the name prefix LOGS will be automatically migrated from standard Storage to Archive storage 30
days after the creation date. The object will be migrated back to standard Storage 120 days after creation.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

You run a large global application with 90% of customers based in the US and Canada. You want to be able to test a
new feature and allow a small percentage of users to access the new version of your application.
What Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Traffic Management steering policy should you utilize? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Load Balancer
B. IP Prefix steering
C. ASN steering
D. Geolocation steering
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/TrafficManagement/Tasks/trafficmanagement.htm

QUESTION 7

You have a group pf developers who launch multiple VM.Standard2.2 compute instances every day into the
compartment Dev. As a result, your OCI tenancy quickly hit the service limit for this shape. Other groups can no longer
create new instances using VM.Standard2.2 shape.

Because of this, your company has issued a new mandate that the Dev compartment must include a quota to allow for
use of only 20 VM.Standard2.2 shapes per Availability Domain. Your solution should not affect any other compartment
in the tenancy.
Which quota statement should be used to implement this new requirement? (Choose the best answer.)

A. set compute quota vm-standard2–2count to 10 in compartment dev where request.region = usphoenix–1
B. set compute quota vm-standard2–2–count to 20 in compartment dev
C. zero compute quotas in tenancy set compute quota vm–standard2–2–count to 20 in compartment dev
D. zero compute quotas in tenancy set compute quota vm–standard2–2–count to 20 in tenancy dev
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

Your application is using an Object Storage bucket named app-data in the namespace vision, to store both persistent
and temporary data. Every week all the temporary data should be deleted to limit the storage consumption.
Currently you need to navigate to the Object Storage page using the web console, select the appropriate bucket to view
all the objects and delete the temporary ones.

To simplify the task you have configured the application to save all the temporary data with /temp prefix. You have also
decided to use the Command Line Interface (CLI) to perform this operation.
What is the command you should use to speed up the data cleanup? (Choose the best answer.)

A. oci os object delete –ns vision –bn app–data ––prefix /temp
B. oci os object bulk-delete –ns vision –bn app–data ––prefix /temp ––force
C. oci objectstorage bulk–delete –ns vision –bn app–data ––prefix /temp ––force
D. oci os object delete app-data in vision where prefix = /temp
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

You have been monitoring your company\’s applications running in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) and notice that
the application is using OCI Traffic Management service. This service uses a traffic steering policy to distribute the DNS
traffic based on subnet addresses in a rule set.
Which steering policy is in use in this particular case? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Load Balancing policy
B. Geolocation steering
C. ASN steering policy
D. IP Prefix steering
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://k21academy.com/1z0-997/traffic-management-in-oci/

QUESTION 10

You created an Oracle Linux compute instance through the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) management console
then immediately realize you forgot to add an SSH key file. You notice that OCI compute service provides instance
console connections that supports adding SSH keys for a running instance. Hence, you created the console connection
for your Linux server and activated it using the connection string provided. However, now you get prompted for a
username and password to login.

What option should you recommend to add the SSH key to your running instance, while minimizing the administrative
overhead? (Choose the best answer.)

A. You need to configure the boot loader to use ttyS0 as a console terminal on the VM.
B. You need to terminate the running instance and recreate it by providing the SSH key file.
C. You need to reboot the instance from the console, boot into the bash shell in maintenance mode, and add SSH keys
for the opc user.
D. You need to modify the serial console connection string to include the identity file flag, –i to specify the SSH key to
use.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Compute/References/serialconsole.htm

QUESTION 11

You launched a Linux compute instance to host the new version of your company website via Apache Httpd server on
HTTPS (port 443). The instance is created in a public subnet along with other instances. The default security list
associated to the subnet is:

You want to allow access to the company website from public internet without exposing websites eventually hosted on
the other instances in the public subnet.
Which action would you take to accomplish the task? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Create a network security group, add a stateful rule to allow ingress access on port 443 and associate it to the public
subnet that hosts the company website.
B. In default security list, add a stateful rule to allow ingress access on port 443.
C. Create a new security list with a stateful rule to allow ingress access on port 443 and associate it to the public
subnet.
D. Create a network security group, add a stateful rule to allow ingress access on port 443 and associate it to the
instance that hosts the company website.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

You have set an alarm to be generated when the CPU usage of a specified instance is greater than 10%. In the alarm
behavior view below you notice that the critical condition happened around 23:30. You were expecting a notification
after 1 minute, however, the alarm firing state did not begin until 23:33.

What should you change to fix it? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Change the alarm\’s metric interval to 1.
B. Change the alarm condition to be grater than 3%.
C. Change the notification topic that you previously associated with the alarm.
D. Change the alarm\’s trigger delay minutes value to 1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

You have a 750 MIB file in an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Object Storage bucket. You want to download the file in
multiple parts to speed up the download using the OCI CLI. You also want to configure each part size to be 128 MIB.
Which is the correct OCI CLI command for this operation? (Choose the best answer.)

A. oci os object get –ns my–namespace –bn my–bucket ––name my–large–object ––multipart–download– threshold 750
––parallel–download–count 128
B. oci os object download –ns my–namespace –bn my–bucket ––name my–large–object ––multipart–
download–threshold 750 ––parallel–download–count 128
C. oci os object download –ns my–namespace –bn my–bucket ––name my–large–object ––resume–put
––multipart–download–threshold 500 ––part–size 128
D. oci os object get –ns my–namespace –bn my–bucket ––name my–large–object ––multipart–download– threshold 500
––part–size 128
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/API/SDKDocs/cliusing.htm

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QUESTION 1 #

You are a demand planner and you want to generate forecasts for all laptop and desktop products in the US business
unit. You are using standard enterprise and product hierarchy. You have created a demand plan and now you must
define the planned scope. Identify three valid steps. (Choose three.)

A. For plan parameters, select forecasting calendar as Gregorian and time level as a week.
B. For forecasting items, select hierarchy as product, level as category level 1, and laptop and desktop categories as
level members.
C. For plan parameters, select forecasting calendar as Gregorian and time level as a month.
D. For plan organizations, select hierarchy as an enterprise, level as a country, and the US as a level member.
E. For forecasting items, select hierarchy as product, level as product, and all laptop and desktop products as level
members.
F. For plan organizations, select hierarchy as an enterprise, level as a business unit, and US and level member.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2 #

Your Procurement Department is getting ready to set up Approved Supplier Lists that will be needed for Supply
Planning. They ask you for what you need on the ASLs for planning usage. Which three options are key for planning?
(Choose three.)

A. Make sure to include Maximum Order Quantities.
B. Make sure to include Minimum Order Quantities.
C. Make sure to include Fixed Lot Multipliers.
D. Make sure to include Fixed Order Quantities.
E. Make sure they are at a Global level.
F. Make sure all Local-level ASLs include an Organization.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 3 #

A sales order containing a back-to-back item has been created. However, when you ran the supply plan in Planning
Central, the supply for the sales order was not released. Why was the supply not released?

A. The supply plan should have been run in Supply Chain Orchestration, not Planning Central.
B. Planning Central cannot create back-to-back supply, so the supply cannot be released.
C. Only Global Order Promising and Supply Chain Orchestration can be used to release and create new supplies for
back-to-back orders.
D. The supply must first be created in Global Order Promising and then it can be released from Planning Central.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4 #

A supply plan has just been run that contains a configured item. You notice that the sourcing rules of the base model
were used instead of sourcing rules for the configured item. Why did this happen?

A. No sourcing rules have been defined for the configured item.
B. The sourcing rules of the base model overrode the sourcing rules of the configured item.
C. It is not possible to create sourcing rules for the configured item; all configured items always use the same sourcing
rules as the base model.
D. The sourcing rules of the base model had a priority of 1, while the sourcing rules of the configured item had a priority
of 2.
E. No planning percentages were defined at the operation level within the work definition.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5 #

Which two statements are true regarding Planning Business Flows? (Choose two.)

A. Inventory Planning cannot run in the Planning Business Flows.
B. You can analyze and adjust data at any stage of the process.
C. In automated plans, all release rules must be automatic.
D. Demand and Supply Planning have to be run in separate business flows.
E. Planners can set up automatic release rules or release orders manually as part of the plan execution.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6 #

Your client manufactures consumer electronics and has all facilities live on Oracle Cloud. Their latest product has a very
complicated manufacturing process and therefore can only be made at one facility (Organization ABC). However, it is
ordered all over the world.
How should the Sourcing Rule be set up to accomplish this?

A. A global sourcing rule for 50% make at ABC and 50% buy from ABC
B. A local sourcing rule for 100% make at ABC; a global sourcing rule for 100% transfer from ABC
C. A local sourcing rule for 100% make at ABC; a global sourcing rule for 100% buy from ABC
D. A local sourcing rule for 100% buy from ABC; a global sourcing rule for 100% transfer from ABC
E. A global sourcing rule for 100% make at ABC; a local sourcing rule for 100% transfer from ABC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7 #

You are defining material planners for your organization. However, when you go to Manage Material Planners, your
organization does not appear in the list of values. Why?

A. The organization was not enabled for collection under Manage Planning Source Systems.
B. The organization must be enabled in Manage Planning Parameters.
C. The organization is an Item Organization.
D. The organization must be enabled in Manage Planning Profile Options.
E. You do not have data access to the organization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8 #

Which option outlines changes you can make to a simulation plan when evaluating demand and supply?

A. Change item specification values, change item lead times, create mass changes for items
B. Add demands, cancel demands, reschedule demands, add supply, cancel supply, reschedule supplies
C. Change item specification values, change item lead times, change item-organization specification values
D. Add demands, cancel demands, reschedule demands, add new planned orders, reschedule supplies
E. Change item specification values, change item lead times, create mass changes for items all at once, change item organization specification values
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9 #

Which four types of supplies can be reserved for a sales order in the inventory? (Choose four.)

A. Work orders
B. On-hand inventory
C. Purchase requisitions
D. Purchase orders
E. Transfer orders
F. Planned Orders
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 10 #

You want to be able to filter your data by the planner code attribute on the item. Where can you go to do this?

A. Configure Planning Analytics > Levels and Attributes tab
B. The process “Add Levels and Attributes” must be run to associate new attributes.
C. The process “Associate Measure Catalog Attributes” must be run to associate new attributes.
D. Enable planner code on the Planning Analytics page.
E. Configure Planning Analytics > Measure Catalog
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11#

Which is the proper fulfillment strategy to plan for supply using the appropriate lead times required for processing
the material at a third party, based on the manufacturing work definition?

A. outside processing operations
B. expense destination transfers
C. contract manufacturing
D. back-to-back orders
E. drop shipments
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12 #

Your current shipments forecast for Jan 2018 is 1000 and the demand planner determines that the forecast should be Describe how the demand planner can override shipments forecast. Also, what happens to the final shipments
forecast measure when the demand plan is run again and the shipments forecast value changes to 1250?

A. Open a table with the Adjusted Shipments Forecast measure and enter 1500. The Final Shipments Forecast
measure will change to 1500 and the value will persist during subsequent demand plan runs.

B. Open a table with the Shipments Forecast measure and override it to 1500. The Final Shipments Forecast measure
will change to 1500 and the value will persist during subsequent demand plan runs.

C. Open a table with the Shipments Forecast measure and override it to 1500. The Final Shipments Forecast measure
will change to 1500. During the subsequent demand plan run, the Final Shipments Forecast value will change to 1250.

D. Open a table with the Adjusted Shipments Forecast measure and enter 1500. The Final Shipments Forecast
measure will change to 1500. During the subsequent demand plan run, the Final Shipments Forecast value will change
to 1250.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13 #

A customer has created a supply plan based on current requirements. Due to changes in the third-party forecast, the plan
must be rerun with these recent updates. However, while this new information became available, existing supplies like onhand inventory and work order completions have also been updated.
Which data refresh option should be used to reflect all these changes in the plan?

A. Do not refresh with current data
B. Refresh with quick refresh option
C. Refresh with forecast data
D. Refresh with selected current data
E. Refresh with current data
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 1 #

Which three options define Enterprise Structures Configurator (ESC)? (Choose three.)

A. It is an interview-based tool that guides through the process of setting up a basic enterprise structure.
B. The tool creates a structure of divisions, legal entities, business units, and reference data sets.
C. The tool creates a structure of divisions that may then be manipulated by the administrator.
D. After defining the enterprise structure and the job/position structures, the administrator can review them, make any
necessary changes, and then load/rollback the final configuration.
E. The tool creates a structure of divisions, legal entities, business units, and departments.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2 #

Your organization needs to be able to select the action of Legal Employer Transfer on the employment record to move a
a worker from one legal employer to another.
What configuration will you need to do to make this possible?

A. Create a new action type of Legal Employer Transfer, and then create a new action of Legal Employer Transfer and
associate it with the new action type.
B. Modify the delivered action of Transfer and associate it with the action type of Global Transfer.
C. Create a new action called Legal Employer Transfer and associate it with the action type of Global Transfer.
D. Create a new action called Legal Employer Transfer and associate it with the action type of Legal Entity Transfer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3 #

Which values on the Enterprise HCM Information task can you override on the Manage Legal Employer information
task?

A. workday information, person number generation method, employment model, position synchronization configuration,
worker number generation
B. workday information, user account generation, employment model, position synchronization configuration, worker
number generation
C. workday information, person number generation method, employment model, position synchronization configuration,
worker number generation
D. workday information, employment model, position synchronization configuration, worker number generation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4 #

An HR administrator is unable to enter the details of an intern due to the unavailability of the right choice of values. The HR
the administrator is unaware that the worker type “Intern” has not been set up in the application.
Select four valid system person types (which are part of the person model) that the HR administrator should be aware
of. (Choose four.)

A. Contract Worker
B. Person of Interest
C. Contingent Worker
D. Employee
E. Non-Worker
F. Pending Worker
Correct Answer: CDEF

QUESTION 5 #

As an implementation consultant, you have been assigned the task of configuring Person Name Format within
Workforce Information.
Which two configurations can be done through this task? (Choose two.)

A. the name fields that appear in the Person Details section when you are hiring an employee
B. the appearance of a worker\\’s name when it appears in search results
C. what name fields are required when completing the Person Details section when hiring or updating a worker\\’s
person details
D. the way a worker\\’s name appears on top of employee-level pages
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6 #

An enterprise operates in a country where contract information is required for employees. What type of employment
a model can the enterprise use?

A. multiple assignments with contracts
B. single assignment with contracts
C. multiple assignments
D. single assignment
E. contract assignment
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7 #

The Promote transaction was configured using Page Composer to require the location field. Another change was made
to the transaction using the Transaction Design Studio that indicated the location filed must be hidden when a manager
uses Promote transaction.
How does the system determine how the user interface will render?

A. Transaction Design Studio configurations always override Page Composer configurations.
B. If modifications were made in both tools and the changes conflict, the last change created in either tool will be
applied.
C. Page Composer configurations always override Transaction Design Studio configurations.
D. When a user tries to use the Promote transaction. the page will be an error when loading.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8 #

A client\\’s organization employs disabled individuals. All these individuals are registered with an external organization
that supports them. The client wants to capture the registration details and some legislative information about
their disabilities. As an implementation consultant, how would you configure the system to capture this information?

A. Define disability organizations in the system and, while creating personal records, enter any other descriptive or
legislative information about disability.
B. Define a tax reporting unit for the group of employees with disabilities.
C. Define Reporting Establishment for the group of employees with disabilities and capture the required information.
D. Because the organization supporting disabled employees is an external organization, information about
this cannot be captured in the system.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9 #

As an implementation consultant, you have configured a rule for the Promote transaction that for workers who are being
promoted in the Healthcare US Business Unit, the Position field displays and is required to submit the transaction.
Now that you have created the rule, how do you test it?

A. Publish the sandbox, log in as a user that is in the Healthcare US Business Unit, navigate to the Promote transaction,
and select a worker who is also in the Healthcare US Business Unit. As you go through the transaction, you will see the
Position field display and there will be an asterisk next to the field indicating it is required.

B. Publish the sandbox, log in as a user that has access to the Promote transaction, navigate to the Promote
transaction, and select any worker. As you go through the transaction, you will see the Position field display and there
will be an asterisk next to the field indicating it is required.

C. While in a sandbox, you can test your rules by exiting Transaction Design Studio and navigating to the page you just
configured. You select a worker in the Healthcare US Business Unit and will see the Position field display and with an
asterisk next to the field indicating it is required.

D. Publish the sandbox, log in as a user that is in the Healthcare US Business Unit, navigate to the Promote transaction,
and select any worker. As you go through the transaction, you will see the Position field display and there will be an
asterisk next to the field indicating it is required.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10 #

As an implementation consultant, you realize during the Requirement Gathering phase of your project that some Actions
are not required.
How will make these Actions unavailable for the end-user?

A. Hide Actions.
B. Enter Auction End Date.
C. Delete Actions.
D. Educate users not to use such Actions.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11 #

A multinational construction company, headquartered in London, has operations in five countries. It has its major
operations in the US and UK and small offices in Saudi Arabia, UAE, and India. The company employs 3,000 people in
the UK and US and 500 people in the remaining locations. The entire workforce in India falls under the Contingent
Worker category.

How many Legislative Data Groups (LDGs), divisions, legal employers, and Payroll Statutory Units (PSUs) need to be
configured for this company?

A. five LDGs (one for each country), four divisions (the UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), two
legal employers and PSUs (US and UK only, because the workforce is very small in other countries)

B. five LDGs (one for each country), four divisions (the UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), five
legal employers and PSUs (all except India)

C. five LDGs, five divisions, five legal employers, and five PSUs

D. four LDGs (the UK, US, India, and one for Saudi Arabia and UAE combined), five divisions (one for each country), four
legal employers (all except India), and five PSUs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12 #

Which three options are true regarding Grade Ladders? (Choose three.)
A. Five types of Grade Ladders are available.
B. A Grade Ladder cannot be created with a combination of both grades and grades with steps.
C. Grade Ladders are used to group grades or grades with steps.
D. Two types of Grade Ladders are available.
E. A Grade Ladder can be created with a combination of both grades and grades with steps.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 13 #

An HR representative enters employee details in the application as part of the hiring process. On the
Review page, the HR representative notices that Person Number does not show any number, but indicates
“Generated Automatically”.
Identify the option that relates to this intended behavior.


A. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Manual.
B. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Automatic before submission.
C. Person Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Automatic after final save.
D. Worker Number at the Enterprise Level is set to Manual.
Correct Answer: C

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New Updated 1Z0-1045-20 Exam Dumps Questions

# QUESTION 1

Your company is a manufacturing company using a legacy system to define and maintain their Item
Master.
On a daily basis, your company updates and defines new items in the legacy system, which is integrated
with Oracle WMS Cloud. You are an Inventory Super User.

Which option will you use to automatically update the Item Master of Oracle WMS Cloud daily from the
legacy system?

A. Using the host system to drop the ITMR file into the shared SFTP directory
B. Creating New Item manually on the Items screen of Oracle WMS Cloud
C. Manually uploading ITMR file using the Input Interfaces screen
D. Manually downloading Item Master file from ERP and uploading it to Oracle WMS Cloud
Correct Answer: A

# QUESTION 2

You are configuring the WMS Cloud to have multiple facilities and, as an added measure of control, you
want to easily identify the facility by looking at the barcode printed on the outbound carton.

Identify two valid configurations that are available in the Sequence Counter UI that you can use for the
OBLPN. (Choose two.)

A. You can set up the count increment in Facility 1 to increase by 1, the count increment in Facility 2 to increment by 2,
and so on.
B. You can set up the sequence counter OBLPN to “Append Facility Code to Prefix”.
C. You can specify different counts for the different facilitates within the Sequence Counter.
D. You can configure the sequence length for this facility to be different from the other facilities.
E. You can specify the “Color Code” in the Sequence Counter.
Correct Answer: BC

# QUESTION 3

What is true about emailing a scheduled report?

A. You cannot customize the subject of the email
B. You can email reports in HTML format
C. The person receiving the email must have an email registered with a username in the system
D. You can add an additional filter for a specific scheduled report
Correct Answer: D

# QUESTION 4

Your company is looking for a simplified method for managing a group of reports. Identify the type of report used in
WMS Cloud compiles multiple existing reports into a single document while executing each report in a single order.

A. CrossTab Report
B. Express Report
C. Linked Report
D. Chained Report
E. Standard Report
Correct Answer: D

# QUESTION 5

Your company has two facilities, one in California, and the other in New Jersey. The California facility needs to
exclusively check the quality of each item on receiving whereas the New Jersey one needs to exclusively perform ValueAdded Service (VAS) on each unit during receiving and shipping.

Identify the Location Types that are required to be defined in the Oracle WMS Cloud to receive the items at the California Facility.

A. Reserve and VAS
B. Active and VAS
C. Reserve and QC
D. Active and Reserve
Correct Answer: D

# QUESTION 6

Which two configurations are necessary to use a pick-to-cart functionality? (Choose two.)

A. Configure label types for cart capacity
B. Configure the Print Task setting
C. Define the OBLPN Types
D. Define the Cubing Rule
E. Add the Pick Cart UI to the Receiving personnel\’s menu
Correct Answer: CE

# QUESTION 7

Select two configurations required to fulfill a Cross Dock order. (Choose two.)
A. The Replenishment template is required to replenish Cross Dock Order
B. Wave template should be configured to allocate Cross Dock Order
C. The Cross Dock Outbound Order type should be defined
D. IB Shipment Type should be defined for Cross Dock ASN
E. Module Parameter should be enabled on the RF Receive Screen for receiving Cross Dock ASN
Correct Answer: AD

# QUESTION 8

You have a high-demand item in the warehouse that you order from different vendors (e.g. copy paper).
Each one of your vendors has its own item number and barcode for the item, and you have your own
internal number for the item. You want to process fulfill orders using your internal number.

What should you do in order to accomplish this?

A. Create Alternate Item Codes in the Item Barcode UI to include all of the vendor\\’s item barcodes.
B. Create a pre-pack item with the original item barcode as the parent and the vendor barcodes as child items.
C. Create a different item in the WMS Cloud master data for each vendor.
D. Capture the vendor\\’s barcode upon receiving in an inventory attribute and then scan the inventory attribute during
each transaction that requires an item scan.
E. Manage your workflow to only receive items from one vendor.
Correct Answer: A

# QUESTION 9

You are creating a standard report for a client to display LPN Numbers (for multi-SKU LPNs) and their associated items.
The two data fields you have in your report are LPN Number and Item Code. Identify what controls need to be set to
create a sub-total for the number of items for each LPN.

A. Set the Summary Function for the item to “Count” and check the Summarize By box for LPN.
B. Set the Summary Function for the item to “Total” and check the Group By box for LPN.
C. Set the Summary Function for LPN to “Count” and check the Summarize By box for Item.
D. Set the Summary Function for LPN to “Total” and check the Group By box for items.
Correct Answer: A

# QUESTION 10

A warehouse manager needs to view additional information not available in the existing Picking
applications.
Identify two ways to fulfill this requirement. (Choose two.)

A. Create a custom WMS BI Cloud showing the information.
B. Access data through SQL.
C. Modify the base application to display additional information.
D. Use a base WMS BI Cloud showing the needed information.
Correct Answer: AC

# QUESTION 11

Your customer wants to Putaway LPN to Location by using the Putaway Rules and link the location with
the Replenishment Zone. Which four configurations are required? (Choose four.)

A. Putaway Priority and Rules are set at Facility Level.
B. Set Replenishment Zone for Active Location.
C. Set the Location Size Type at Facility Level.
D. Putaway Type is set at Facility Level.
E. Set Replenishment Zone for Reserve Location.
F. Set Criteria for Putaway Rules.
Correct Answer: ABCD

# QUESTION 12

What happens behind the flag Only deallocate on Short in the order type screen?

A. The Order Type has no impact on the Picking Process.
B. When the parameter is set to YES, during short pick, the system will put the order hold status until more inventory is
available.
C. When the parameter is set to Yes, then only the shorted quantity will get deallocated from the order.
D. When the parameter is set to No, the shorted quantity on the order remains in the “allocated” status.
E. When the parameter is set to Yes, the short pick will cancel the shorted order line automatically and inventory
adjustment will be generated for the item.
Correct Answer: E
Reference: https://learn.oracle.com/ords/launchpad/learn?page=picking-modesandcontext=0:44208:44214

#QUESTION 13

Which two packing transactions do not require you to open up an IB LPN (Everything will go in the box)? (Choose two.)

A. Pick Cart Transaction
B. Distribution Transaction
C. PackNC Transaction
D. PackLPN Transaction
Correct Answer: AD

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Genuine Oracle 1Z0-809 practice test [Q1-Q13 free] which helps you to understand in-depth

QUESTION 1
Given the code fragment:

1Z0-809 exam questions-q1

Which code fragment, when inserted at line 7, enables printing 100?
A. Function funRef = e –andgt; e + 10; Integer result = funRef.apply(value);
B. IntFunction funRef = e –andgt; e + 10; Integer result = funRef.apply (10);
C. ToIntFunction funRef = e –andgt; e + 10; int result = funRef.applyAsInt (value);
D. ToIntFunction funRef = e –andgt; e + 10; int result = funRef.apply (value);
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Given:

1Z0-809 exam questions-q2

Your design requires that:
fuelLevel of Engine must be greater than zero when the start() method is invoked. The code must terminate if fuelLevel
of Engine is less than or equal to zero.
Which code fragment should be added at line n1 to express this invariant condition?
A. assert (fuelLevel) : “Terminating…”;
B. assert (fuelLevel > 0) : System.out.println (“Impossible fuel”);
C. assert fuelLevel
D. assert fuelLevel > 0: “Impossible fuel” ;
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Given the content of Operator.java, EngineOperator.java, and Engine.java files: and the code fragment:

1Z0-809 exam questions-q3

What is the result?
A. The Engine.java file fails to compile.
B. The EngineOperator.java file fails to compile.
C. The Operator.java file fails to compile.
D. ON OFF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Given the code fragments:
class Employee {
Optional address;
Employee (Optional address) {
this.address = address;
}
public Optional getAddress() { return address; }
}
class Address {
String city = “New York”;
public String getCity { return city: }
public String toString() {
return city;
}
}
and
Address address = new Address;
Optional addrs1 = Optional.ofNullable (address);
Employee e1 = new Employee (addrs1);
String eAddress = (addrs1.isPresent()) ? addrs1.get().getCity() : “City Not available”;
System.out.println(eAddress);
What is the result?
A. New York
B. City Not available
C. null
D. A NoSuchElementException is thrown at run time.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
For which three objects must a vendor provide implementations in its JDBC driver? (Choose three.)
A. Time
B. Date
C. Statement
D. ResultSet
E. Connection
F. SQLException
G. DriverManager
Correct Answer: CDE
Database vendors support JDBC through the JDBC driver interface or through the ODBC connection. Each driver must
provide implementations of java.sql.Connection, java.sql.Statement, java.sql.PreparedStatement,
java.sql.CallableStatement, and java.sql.Re sultSet. They must also implement the java.sql.Driver interface for use by
the generic java.sql.DriverManager interface.

QUESTION 6
Given the code fragment:

1Z0-809 exam questions-q6

What is the result?
A. A compilation error occurs at line n1.
B. Checking…
C. Checking… Checking…
D. A compilation error occurs at line n2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Given:
class Student {
String course, name, city;
public Student (String name, String course, String city) {
this.course = course; this.name = name; this.city = city;
}
public String toString() {
return course + “:” + name + “:” + city;
}
public String getCourse() {return course;}
public String getName() {return name;}
public String getCity() {return city;}
and the code fragment:
List stds = Arrays.asList(
new Student (“Jessy”, “Java ME”, “Chicago”),
new Student (“Helen”, “Java EE”, “Houston”),
new Student (“Mark”, “Java ME”, “Chicago”));
stds.stream()
.collect(Collectors.groupingBy(Student::getCourse))
.forEach(src, res) -> System.out.println(scr));
What is the result?
A. A compilation error occurs.
B. Java EE Java ME
C. [Java EE: Helen:Houston] [Java ME: Jessy:Chicago, Java ME: Mark:Chicago]
D. [Java ME: Jessy:Chicago, Java ME: Mark:Chicago] [Java EE: Helen:Houston]
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Given the code fragments: and

1Z0-809 exam questions-q8

What is the result?
A. Video played.Game played.
B. A compilation error occurs.
C. class java.lang.Exception
D. class java.io.IOException
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Given the code fragment:
Stream files = Files.walk(Paths.get(System.getProperty(“user.home”)));
files.forEach (fName -> { //line n1
try {
Path aPath = fName.toAbsolutePath(); //line n2
System.out.println(fName + “:”
+ Files.readAttributes(aPath, Basic.File.Attributes.class).creationTime
());
} catch (IOException ex) {
ex.printStackTrace();
});
What is the result?
A. All files and directories under the home directory are listed along with their attributes.
B. A compilation error occurs at line n1.
C. The files in the home directory are listed along with their attributes.
D. A compilation error occurs at line n2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Given the code fragments:

1Z0-809 exam questions-q10

What is the result?
A. France Optional[NotFound]
B. Optional [France] Optional [NotFound]
C. Optional[France] Not Found
D. France Not Found
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Given the code fragment:
Path file = Paths.get (“courses.txt”); // line n1
Assume the courses.txt is accessible.
Which code fragment can be inserted at line n1 to enable the code to print the content of the courses.txt file?
A. List fc = Files.list(file); fc.stream().forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));
B. Stream fc = Files.readAllLines (file); fc.forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));
C. List fc = readAllLines(file); fc.stream().forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));
D. Stream fc = Files.lines (file); fc.forEach (s – > System.out.println(s));
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Given the content:

1Z0-809 exam questions-q12

What is the result?
A. username = Entrez le nom d\\’utilisateur password = Entrez le mot de passe
B. username = Enter User Name password = Enter Password
C. A compilation error occurs.
D. The program prints nothing.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Given the code fragment:
List empDetails = Arrays.asList(“100, Robin, HR”,
“200, Mary, AdminServices”,
“101, Peter, HR”);
empDetails.stream()
.filter(s-> s.contains(“1”))
.sorted()
.forEach(System.out::println); //line n1
What is the result?
A. 100, Robin, HR 101, Peter, HR
B. A compilation error occurs at line n1.
C. 100, Robin, HR 101, Peter, HR 200, Mary, AdminServices
D. 100, Robin, HR 200, Mary, AdminServices 101, Peter, HR
Correct Answer: A

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Free online Oracle 1z0-1056-20 practice test

QUESTION 1
When a customer opts to make a payment by a credit card, this receipt is identified as a(n) _______________.
A. miscellaneous receipt
B. quick cash receipt
C. manual receipt
D. automatic receipt
E. AutoLockbox receipt
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
After reviewing an incomplete invoice, the Billing Manager clicks the Complete button in the Transactions
window.
What are three results of this action? (Choose three.)
A. Payment schedules are created using the payment terms specified.
B. The invoice is sent for a dunning follow-up.
C. The invoice can now be printed.
D. The invoice is eligible for transfer to the General Ledger.
E. The invoice is included in the standard aging and collection process if the transaction type has the Open Receivables
option set to No.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
Which two duties are included in the Accounts Receivable Specialist associated role? (Choose two.)
A. Import Payables Invoices Duty
B. Receipt Creation Duty
C. Trading Community Hierarchy Management Duty
D. Payment Settlement Management Duty
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
There are a few customers that you do not want to send dunning letters to. How would you exclude these customers
from dunning?
A. Disable Send Dunning Letter in Transaction Source Type.
B. Disable Send Dunning Letter on the Correspondence tab.
C. Disable Send Dunning Letter in Collections Preferences.
D. Disable Send Dunning Letter on the Profile tab.
E. Disable Send Dunning Letter in Transaction Type.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which three actions are facilitated through the Reconciliation Summary Report? (Choose three.)
A. drilldown to see reconciliation details and to make reconciling corrections
B. drilldown on the difference amounts to see specific reconciling items and the potential cause of the outof-balance
condition
C. drilldown from any of the summarized Receivables and Accounting amounts to see detailed activity
D. drilldown to see details of unaccounted revenue transactions not transferred and posted to the General Ledger
E. drilldown to view data and use standard Excel functions such as sum, find, sort, and filtering without actually
downloading to Excel
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 6
You are the Billing Manager and you are responsible for reviewing adjustments and approving them. Which two tabs are
available in the Adjustments Overview Region on the Billing Work Area page? (Choose two.)
A. Pending My Research
B. Pending Approval From Managers
C. Pending Approval
D. Pending My Approval
E. Approved
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Identify a valid reason for a Collector being unable to enter a dispute against a particular transaction.
A. The invoice is not closed.
B. The transaction is partially paid.
C. The transaction type is not associated with a credit memo type.
D. The transaction date falls in a closed period.
E. The transaction is an invoice.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Company ABC wants their logo displayed in all customer invoices. How do you meet this business requirement?
A. Use Web Services to integrate with an external system that can handle this requirement.
B. Modify the Invoice Print Layout Bill Presentment Template.
C. Enable the setting “Allow Change to Printed Transactions” in Receivables System Options.
D. Extend the “Print Receivables Transactions” program.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Identify two credit memo options. (Choose two.)
A. Tax only
B. Advance
C. Paid freight
D. Invoice lines
E. Paid amount only
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
The Billing Manager has navigated to the Billing work area to complete a transaction. The Incomplete Transactions Overview Region on the Billing Work Area page has a drilldown option through a column to
complete the transaction.
Identify the column.
A. Transaction Class
B. Transaction Number
C. Transaction Source
D. Transaction Date
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two statements are true about Accounting for Tax on Receivables? (Choose two.)
A. For Miscellaneous receipts, if the receivable activity tax rate code source is Activity for the activity type of
Miscellaneous Cash, Receivables use the tax account that is defined on the receivable activity.
B. For Adjustments, if the receivable activity tax rate code source is Invoice, Receivables derive the tax account from
auto-accounting.
C. For Adjustments, if the receivable activity tax rate code source is Invoice, Receivables use the tax account that is
defined on the receivable activity.
D. For Adjustments, if the receivable activity tax rate code source is Invoice, Receivables use the tax account of the tax
code.
E. For Credit memos, if the profile “AR: Use Invoice Accounting for Credit Memos” is set to Yes, Receivables derive the
item distribution from the invoice and the tax account from auto-accounting.
F. For Credit memos, if the profile “AR: Use Invoice Accounting for Credit Memos” is set to No, Receivables derive the
tax account from auto-accounting.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
Which four output file types are available when you run the “Print Receivables Transactions” program?
A. JPG
B. PDF
C. Excel
D. HTML
E. Word
F. Zipped PDFs
Correct Answer: BCDF

QUESTION 13
You schedule print runs of transactions and balance forward bills according to the needs of your
enterprise.
Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. It is not recommended to print transactions and balance forward bills directly from BI Publisher.
B. If you have printed a transaction, the View Print button will not display a preview of the print.
C. If you have not printed a transaction, the View Print button (Preview of Print) displays the transaction according to the
default template in BI Publisher.
D. It is recommended that you always print directly from BI Publisher to give you more control over the templates in
case you need to change them.
E. Both the transaction, or each transaction in a balance forward bill, will be marked as printed in the system.
Correct Answer: CDE

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