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Exam Code: 70-414
Exam Name: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
Updated: Sep 17, 2017
Q&As: 243

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QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a solution that meets the technical requirements for DHCP.
What should you include in the recommendation for each office?
A. DHCP failover
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. DHCP server policies
D. IP Address Management (IPAM)
70-414 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution for updating the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the
visualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Cluster-Aware Updating
B. WSUS
C. System Center Updates Publisher 2011
D. System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that the developers can manage their own virtual machines.
Solution: You perform the following 70-414 dumps tasks:
In Virtual Machine Manager, you create a new user role named DevUsers that uses
the Application Administrator profile.
You add the virtual machines to the DevUsers role.
You grant Checkpoint permissions to the DevUsers role.
You install and configure App Controller.
You distribute the App Controller console URL to the developers.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You plan to configure Windows Network Load Balancing (NLB) for a company. You
display following Network Load Balancing Manager window:
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Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question
based on the information presented in the graphic.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You need to implement VM-SQLclusterl.contoso.com.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
70-414 pdf actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 6
You need to automatically restart the appropriate web service on DETCRL01 and
CHICRL01 if the web service is stopped. Solution: You create a diagnostic task in SCOM and configure it to start the Server service. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You currently have an intranet web site that is hosted by two Web servers named Web1
and Web2. Web1 and Web2 run Windows Server 2012. Users use the name intranet.contoso.com to request the web site and use DNS round robin.
You plan to implement the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on Web1 and Web2.
You need to recommend changes to the DNS records for the planned implementation.
What should you recommend?
A. Delete one of the host (A) records named Intranet. Modify the remaining host (A)
record named Intranet.
B. Delete both host (A) records named Intranet. Create a pointer (PTR) record for each
Web server.
C. Create a new host (A) record named Intranet. Remove both host (A) records for Web1
and Web2.
D. Create a service locator (SRV) record. Map the SRV record to Intranet.
70-414 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
You need to recommend changes to the existing environment to meet the PII requirement.
What should you recommend?
A. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from ProsewareCA.
B. Create an AD RMS cluster in Proseware, and then provision the user accounts in Proseware for the
Fabrikam users.
C. Configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) in Fabrikam, and then install a web application
proxy in Proseware.
D. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from FabrikamCA.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a network 70-414 exam configuration for the newly deployed Hyper-V hosts used by Customer1. On which network adapter should you recommend performing each configuration? To answer, select the appropriate network adapter for each configuration in the answer area.
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QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a solution to maintain a copy of App2. The solution must meet the application requirements and must minimize additional hardware purchases. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Single-site Failover Clustering
B. Hyper-V replicas
C. Multi-site Failover Clustering
D. Distributed File System (DFS) Replication
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used in the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the 70-414 dumps security requirements.
What should you recommend?
A. A scale-out file server that uses an NFS share
B. A file server that uses an SMB share
C. A scale-out file server that uses an SMB share
D. A file server that uses an NFS share
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
You install the Service Manager Self-Service Portal on a server named CONTOSOSSP1.
Users report that they receive access denied messages when they try to connect to the portal. You must grant users the minimum required permissions. You need to ensure that all users in the Contoso domain can access the Service Manager Self-Service Portal.
What should you do?

A. In Active Directory, create a new group named PortalUsers. Add the PortalUsers group to the Contoso \Domain Users group, and then add the group to the local users group on CONTOSOSSP1.
B. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Service portal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Read permissions to the portal.
C. In Service Manager, create a new user role named PortalUsers. Grant the PortalUsers role rights to all catalog items, and then add the Contoso\Domain Users Active Directory Domain Services group to the
PortalUsers role.
D. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Serviceportal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Contribute permissions to the portal.
70-414 pdf Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 86
An audit manager has just returned from an executive training program and has suggested that the audit department develop a mathematical model to help identify factors that may be causing changes in the cost of production. According to the manager, the model should recognize that the company currently has three separate production (cost) centers. Which of the following approaches would best provide the analysis suggested by the audit manager?
A. Develop a classical variables sampling estimate of cost of production per department, with the sample stratified by the dollar value of each product produced.
B. Develop a 3-year ratio analysis of the cost of production compared to the cost of raw inventory across the three departments.
C. Develop a multiple regression analysis of production costs, including such variables as raw material inventory costs, number of employees in the department, and overtime pay.
D. Develop a linear regression analysis relating the cost of production to the cost of goods sold.
70-761 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Regression analysis extends correlation to find an equation for the linear relationship among variables. The behavior of a dependent variable, such as cost of production, is explained in terms of one or more independent variables (for example, raw material costs, employees, overtime). Thus, multiple regression analysis determines functional relationships among quantitative variables.
QUESTION 87
A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers: The technique used in analyzing the problem is best described as:
A. Simulation theory.
B. Integrated autoregressive-moving average (ARIMA) modeling.
C. Linear programming.
D. Differential calculus.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer (A) is correct. Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical/mathematical models using a computer. Despite the power of mathematics, many
problems cannot be solved by known analytical methods because of the behavior of the variables and the complexity of their interactions. However, the performance of a quantitative model under uncertainty may be investigated by randomly selecting values for each of the variables in the model (based on the probability distribution of each variable) and then calculating the value of the solution. If this process is performed a large number of times, the distribution of results from the model will be obtained.
QUESTION 88
A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers:
The process of making sure that the model measures what it is supposed to measure is called:
A. Statistical inference.
B. Hypothesis testing.
C. Confidence coefficient analysis.
D. Validation.
70-761 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Validation is a step in the simulation procedure. Some assurance is needed that the results of the experiment will be realistic. This assurance requires validation of the model –often using historical data. If the model gives results equivalent to what actually happened, the model is historically valid. There is still some risk, however, that changes could make the model invalid for the future.
QUESTION 89
The marketing department of a company is deciding on the price to charge for a key product. In setting this price, marketing needs to consider the price that a major competitor will charge for a similar product because the competitor’s price will affect the demand for the company’s product. Similarly, in setting its price, the competitor will consider what the company will charge. What is an appropriate mathematical technique for analyzing such a decision?
A. Game theory.
B. Probability theory.
C. Linear programming.
D. Sensitivity analysis.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Game (or decision) theory is a mathematical approach to decision making when confronted with an enemy or competitor. Games are classified according to the number of players and the algebraic sum of the payoffs. In a two-person game, if the payoff is given by the loser to the winner, the algebraic sum is zero and the game is called a zero-sum game. If it is possible for both players to profit, however, the game is a positive-sum game. Mathematical models have been developed to select optimal strategies for certain simple games.
QUESTION 90
Because of the large number of factors that could affect the demand for its new product, interactions among these factors, and the probabilities associated with different values of these factors, the marketing department would like to develop a computerized model for projecting demand for this product. By using a random number procedure to generate values for the different factors .it will be able to estimate the distribution of demand for this new product. This method of estimating the distribution of demand for the new product is called:
A. Monte Carlo simulation.
B. Linear programming.
C. Correlation analysis.
D. Differential analysis.
70-761 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulations that use a random-number procedure to generate values for the inputs areMonte Carlo simulations.
QUESTION 91
A large fishing operation has information on the interval, time, and probabilities of shrimp schools staying beneath their fishing boats. In order to use this information to predict when and where to send their boats, which of the following techniques should be used?
A. Simulation.
B. Least squares.

C. Queuing theory.
D. Exponential smoothing.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical and mathematical models using a computer. Because of the behavior of the many variables involved and the complexity of their interactions, many problems cannot be solved using simple algebraic formulas. The availability of computer spreadsheets makes the construction of simulation models a practical alternative for all entities.
QUESTION 92
A cost-volume-profit model developed in a dynamic environment determined that the estimated parameters used may vary between limits. Subsequent testing of
the model with respect to all possible values of the estimated parameters is termed:
A. A sensitivity analysis.
B. Statistical estimation.
C. Statistical hypothesis testing.
D. A time-series study.
70-761 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
After a problem has been formulated into any mathematical model, it may be subjected to sensitivity analysis. Sensitivity analysis examines how the model’s
outcomes change as the parameters change.
QUESTION 93
A company is deciding whether to purchase an automated machine to manufacture one of its products. Expected net cash flows from this decision depend on several factors, interactions among those factors, and the probabilities associated with different levels of those factors. The method that the company should use to evaluate the distribution of net cash flows from this decision and changes in net cash flows resulting from changes in levels of various factors is:
A. Simulation and sensitivity analysis.
B. Linear programming.
C. Correlation analysis.
D. Differential analysis.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical and mathematical models using a computer. Sensitivity analysis examines how the model’s outcomes change as the parameters change.

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Sep 06, 2017
Q&As: 503

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QUESTION 25
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. You view the properties of VM1 as shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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You need to configure bandwidth management for VM1. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:

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QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1. Server1 runs 70-410 dumps Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed. You create two IPv4 scopes on Server1. The scopes are configured as shown in the following table.

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The DHCP clients in Subnet_Tor can connect to the client computers in Subnet_Mtl by using an IP address or a FQDN. You discover that the DHCP clients in Subnet_Mtl can connect to client computers in Subnet_Tor by using an IP address only. You need to ensure that the DHCP clients in both subnets can connect to any other DHCP client by using a FQDN.
What should you add?
A. The 015 DNS Domain Name option to Subnet_Mtl
B. The 015 DNS Domain Name option to Subnet_Tor
C. The 006 DNS Servers option to Subnet_Mtl
D. The 006 DNS Servers option to Subnet_Tor
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1. The domain contains a standalone server named Server2 that is located in a perimeter
network. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to manage Server2 remotely from Server1.
What should you do?
A. From Server2, run the Enable-PsRemoting cmdlet.
B. From Server1, run the winrni command.
C. From Server2, run the winrm command.
D. From Server1, run the Enable-PsRemoting cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
A printer named Printer1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) 70-410 dumps

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Question: 12
Given the following SAS statement:
%let idcode = Prod567;
Which one of the following statements stores the value 567 in the macro variable CODENUM?
A. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-2);
B. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-3);
C. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-2);
D. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-3);
Answer: C
Question: 13
The following SAS program is submitted:
data new (bufsize = 6144 bufno = 4);
set old;
run;
Which one of the following describes the difference between the usage of BUFSIZE= and
BUFNO= options?

A. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the input buffer in bytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of
input buffers.
B. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in bytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of
output buffers.
C. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in kilobytes; BUFNO= specifies the number
of input buffers.
D. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in kilobytes; BUFNO= specifies the number
of output buffers.
70-410 vce Answer: B
Question: 14
Consider the following SAS log:
229 data sasuser.ranch sasuser.condo / view = sasuser.ranch;
230 set sasuser.houses;
231 if style = ‘RANCH’ then output sasuser.ranch;
232 else if style = ‘CONDO’ then output sasuser.condo;
233 run;
NOTE: DATA STEP view saved on file SASUSER.RANCH.
NOTE: A stored DATA STEP view cannot run under a different operating system.
234
235 proc print data = sasuser.condo;
ERROR: File SASUSER.CONDO.DATA does not exist.
236 run;
NOTE: The SAS System stopped processing this step because of errors.
Which one of the following explains why the PRINT procedure fails?
A. SASUSER.CONDO is a stored DATA step program.
B. A SAS data file and SAS data view cannot be created in the same DATA step.
C. A second VIEW=SASUSER.CONDO option was omitted on the DATA statement.
D. The view SASUSER.RANCH must be processed before SASUSER.CONDO is created.
Answer: D
Question: 15
Which one of the following is an advantage of creating and using a SAS DATA step view?
A. It can store an index.
B. It always accesses the most current data.
C. It works quickly through multiple passes of the data.
D. It is useful when the underlying data file structure changes.
70-410 exam Answer: B
Question: 16
Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO
YEAR QTR BUDGET YEAR QTR SALES
—————————— —————————-
2001 3 500 2001 4 300

2001 4 400 2002 1 600
2002 1 700
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select one.*, sales
from one, two;
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
——————————————
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
B. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
———————————————
2001 3 500 .
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
C. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
—————————————–
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
D. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
——————————————
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 300
2001 3 500 600
2001 4 400 600
2002 1 700 600
Answer: D
Question: 17
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
NUM VAR
——————
1 A
2 B
3 C
Which one of the following SQL programs deletes the SAS data set ONE?
A. proc sql;
delete table one;
quit;
B. proc sql;
alter table one
drop num, var;
quit;

C. proc sql;
drop table one;
quit;
D. proc sql;
delete from one;
quit;
Answer: C
Question: 18
Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO
YEAR QTR BUDGET YEAR QTR SALES
——————————- ———————————
2001 3 500 2001 4 300
2001 4 400 2002 1 600
2002 1 700
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select one.*, sales
from one, two
where one.year = two.year;
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
———————————————————
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
B. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
———————————————————-
2001 3 500 .
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
C. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
————————————————————
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
D. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
————————————————————
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 300
2001 3 500 600
2001 4 400 600
2002 1 700 600
70-410 dumps Answer: C
Question: 19
The SAS data set TEMP has the following distribution of values for variable A:
A Frequency
1 500,000
2 500,000
6 7,000,000
8 3,000
Which one of the following SAS programs requires the least CPU time to be processed?
A. data new;
set temp;
if a = 8 then
b = ‘Small ‘;
else if a in(1, 2) then
b = ‘Medium’;
else if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large’;
run;
B. data new;
set temp;
if a in (1, 2) then
b = ‘Medium’;
else if a = 8 then
b = ‘Small’;
else if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large’;
run;
C. data new;
set temp;
if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large ‘;
else if a in (1, 2) then
b = ‘Medium’;
else if a = 8 then
b = ‘Small’;
D. data new;
set temp;
if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large ‘;
if a in (1, 2) then
b = ‘Small’;
run;
Answer: C
Question: 20
The following SAS program is submitted:
%let value = 9;
%let value2 = 5;
%let newval = %eval(&value / &value2);
Which one of the following is the resulting value of the macro variable NEWVAL?
A. 1
B. 2

C. 1.8
D. null
Answer: A
Question: 21
The following SAS program is submitted:
%let lib = %upcase(sasuser);
proc sql;
select nvar
from dictionary.tables
where libname = “&lib”;
quit;
Given that several SAS data sets exist in the SASUSER library, which one of the following is
generated as output?
A. no result set
B. a syntax error in the log
C. a report showing the names of each table in SASUSER
D. a report showing the number of columns in each table in SASUSER
70-410 pdf Answer: D
Question: 22
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
GROUP SUM
————————-
A 765
B 123
C 564
The following SAS program is submitted:
data _null_;
set one;
call symput(group,sum);
run;
Which one of the following is the result when the program finishes execution?
A. Macro variable C has a value of 564.
B. Macro variable C has a value of 1452.
C. Macro variable GROUP has a value of 564.
D. Macro variable GROUP has a value of 1452.
Answer: A
Question: 23
The SAS data set ONE consists of five million observations and has 25 variables. Which one of
the following SAS programs successfully creates three new variables TOTREV, TOTCOST, and
PROFIT and requires the least CPU time to be processed?
A. data two;
set one;

totrev = sum(price * quantity);
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
if totrev > 1000;
run;
B. data two;
set one;
totrev = sum(price * quantity);
if totrev > 1000;
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
run;
C. data two;
set one;
totrev = sum(price * quantity);
where totrev > 1000;
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
run;
D. data two;
set one;
where totrev > 1000;
totrev = sum(price * quantity);
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
run;
70-410 vce Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-765
Exam Name: Provisioning SQL Databases
Q&As: 105

 

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QUESTION 65
Select the appropriate name for the highlighted area of the binary numbers.
A. Word
B. Dword
C. Byte
D. Nibble
E. Bit
70-765 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 66
The EnCase methodology dictates that the lab drive for evidence have a __________ prior to making an image.
A. FAT 16 partition
B. NTFS partition
C. unique volume label
D. bare, unused partition
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 67
In hexadecimal notation, one byte is represented by _____ character(s).
A. 2
B. 1
C. 8
D. 4
70-765 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 68
A personal data assistant was placed in a evidence locker until an examiner has time to examine it. Which of the following areas would require special attention?
A. Chain-of-custody
B. Storage
C. There is no concern
D. Cross-contamination
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 69
When a non-compressed evidence file is reacquired with compression, the acquisition and verification hash values for the evidence will remain the same for both files.
A. True
B. False
70-765 pdf Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 70
To generate an MD5 hash value for a file, EnCase:
A. Computes the hash value including the logical file and filename.
B. Computes the hash value including the physical file and filename.
C. Computes the hash value based on the logical file.
D. Computes the hash value based on the physical file.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 71
Which of the following is found in the FileSignatures.ini configuration file
A. The results of a hash analysis
B. The information contained in the signature table
C. The results of a signature analysis
D. Pointers to an evidence file
70-765 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 72
During the power-up sequence, which of the following happens first?
A. The boot sector is located on the hard drive.
B. Theower On Self-Test.? 7KH ? RZHU2Q6HOI7HVW
C. The floppy drive is checked for a diskette.
D. The BIOS on an add-in card is executed.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 73
A restored floppy diskette will have the same hash value as the original diskette.
A. True
B. False
70-765 exam Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 74
A hard drive was imaged using EnCase. The original drive was placed into evidence. The restore feature was used to make a copy of the original hard drive. EnCase verifies the restored copy using:
A. An MD5 hash
B. A 32 bit CRC
C. Nothing. Restored volumes are not verified.
D. A running log
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 75
To later verify the contents of an evidence file 7RODWHUYHULI\WKHFRQWHQWVRIDQHYLGHQFHILOH
A. EnCase writes a CRC value for every 64 sectors copied.
B. EnCase writes a CRC value for every 128 sectors copied.
C. EnCase writes an MD5 hash value every 64 sectors copied.
D. EnCase writes an MD5 hash value for every 32 sectors copied.
70-765 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 76
Assume that MyNote.txt has been deleted. The FAT file system directory entry for that file has been overwritten. The data for MyNote.txt is now:
A. Overwritten
B. Allocated
C. Cross-linked
D. Unallocated
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 77
When an EnCase user double-clicks on a valid .jpg file, that file is:
A. Copied to the default export folder and opened by an associated program.
B. Renamed to JPG_0001.jpg and copied to the default export folder.
C. Copied to the EnCase specified temp folder and opened by an associated program.
D. Opened by EnCase.
70-765 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 78
When undeleting a file in the FAT file system, EnCase will check the _____________ to see if it has already been overwritten.
A. data on the hard drive
B. deletion table
C. directory entry
D. FAT
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 79
You are assigned to assist with the search and seizure of several computers. The magistrate ordered that the computers cannot be seized unless they are found to contain any one of ten previously identified images. You currently have the ten images in JPG format. Using the EnCase methodology, how would you best handle this situation?
A. UseFastBloc or a network/parallel port cable to preview the hard drives. Go to the Gallery view and search for the previously identified images.
B. UseFastBloc or a network/parallel port cable to acquire forensic images of the hard drives, then search the evidence files for the previously identified images.
C. UseFastBloc or a network/parallel port cable to preview the hard drives. Conduct a hash analysis of the files on the hard drives, using a hash library containing the hash values of the previously identified images.
D. Use an EnCase DOS boot disk to conduct a text search for child porn. Use an EnCase DOS boot disk to conduct a text search for child porn?
70-765 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 80
The EnCase signature analysis is used to perform which of the following actions?
A. Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its file extension.Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its file extension.
B. Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its file header.Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its file header.
C. Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to a list of hash sets.Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to a list of hash sets.
D. Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its computed MD5 hash value.Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its computed MD5 hash value.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 81
A SCSI host adapter would most likely perform which of the following tasks?
A. Configure the motherboard settings to the BIOS.
B. None of the above.
C. Set up the connection of IDE hard drives.
D. Make SCSI hard drives and other SCSI devices accessible to the operating system.
70-765 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 82
A CPU is:
A. A chip that would be considered the brain of a computer, which is installed on a motherboard.
B. A Central Programming Unit.
C. A motherboard with all required devices connected.
D. An entire computer box, not including the monitor and other attached peripheral devices.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

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Question No : 23 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)  You are creating a function by using JavaScript. The function accepts an object as the parameter and returns a string that identifies the data type of the object. You have the following requirements:
The function must return “Number” if the object is a number.
The function must return “String” if the object is a string.
The function must return “Unknown” if the object is neither a number nor a string. You need to implement the function to meet the requirements. How should you build the code segment? (To answer, select the appropriate options from the drop-down lists in the answer area.)

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Question No : 24 – (Topic 1) You need to test the value of the following variable in JavaScript. var length = “75”; A block of code must execute if the length equals 75 regardless of the data type. You need to use the statement that meets this requirement. Which lines of code should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. if (length = = = 75)
B. if (length = = 75)
C. if (length! = 75)
D. if (length = = “75”)
70-480 exam Answer: B,D
Question No : 25 – (Topic 1)  You are developing an application that uses a third-party JavaScript library named doWork(). The library occasionally throws an “object is null or undefined” error with an error code of -2146823281.
The application must:
Extract and handle the exceptions thrown by doWork() Continue normal program execution if other exceptions occur You need to implement the requirements. Which code segment should you use?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C
Question No : 26 – (Topic 1)  You are troubleshooting a web page that includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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What is displayed in the alert from line 11?
A. Div
B. Function
C. Button
D. Document
70-480 dumps Answer: C
Question No : 27 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a web application that consumes services from a third-party application. A web worker processes the third-party application requests in the background. A page in the application instantiates the web worker process. You need to establish two-way communications between the web worker process and the page.
Which two actions will achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. From the web worker, use the onconnect event handler of the main page to capture events.
B. From the main page, use the onmessage event handler of the web worker to capture
events.
C. From the web worker, use the onmessage event handler of the main page to capture
events.
D. From the main page, use the onconnect event handler of the web worker to capture
events.
Answer: B,C
Reference:
Question No : 28 – (Topic 1)  You are developing an HTML5 web application that displays customer mailing address information. The application loads addresses from a web service by using AJAX. The following code defines a Customer object and loads address data.
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You need to implement the loadAddress function. Which code segment should you use?
70-480 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-480 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION: 29
Other than an activity, which rule type can be used to populate a declare page? (Choose One)
A. Data Transform
B. Report Definition
C. Decision Table
D. Database
E. All of the above can be used to populate a declare page
Answer: B
QUESTION: 30
When creating a list-type report, which attribute can we NOT specify about the data returned by the report? (Choose One)
A. The format of the data
B. The sort order of the data
C. Whether the data appears on a chart
D. Whether the data should appear in the report or not
70-480 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 31 A manager can create a report in which of the following categories? (Choose One)
A. Only a standard category
B. Only a shared category
C. Only a personal category
D. A shared category or a personal category
E. A standard category or a personal category
F. A standard category, a shared category, or a personal category
Answer: D
QUESTION: 32
Which of the following can be used to define a column in a report? (Choose Two)
A. Another report
B. A SQL function
C. A Java function
D. An exposed property
E. A class join
70-480 exam Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 33
Which of the following definitions is incorrectly matched with one of the 6R’s of PRPC? (Choose One)
A. ResolvinG.Complete the work, then update downstream systems promptly through automated process and automated support of users
B. ReceivinG.Accept and capture the essential data describing work from multiple sources
C. ReportinG.Communicate status, requests for information, and progress to the work originator and to other interested people involved in the work
D. ResearchinG.Support analysis and decision-making by providing access to external systems and databases
Answer: C
QUESTION: 34
(True or False) A business process describes and controls how business is conducted.

A. True
B. False
70-480 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 35
The elements that make up a Business Process Management application include (Choose Three)
A. process
B. user interface
C. forms
D. logic and decisions
E. analyzing
F. routing
Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 36
Which of the following are true statements regarding a work type? (Choose Three)
A. A work type represents a fundamental unit of work to be processed and resolved
B. A work type is a template used to create a work item
C. A work type can be assigned to a user
D. A work type defines the process used to complete, or resolve, work
E. A work type has a unique status
70-480 pdf Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 37
By default, which types of information are automatically added to the history of a work item? (Choose Four)
A. Changes to work status
B. Audit notes
C. Changes to property values
D. Assignment instructions
E. The work type used to create the work item
F. The user who created the work item

Answer: A, B, D, F
QUESTION: 38
What is the key difference between BPM application development and traditional
application development? (Choose One)
A. A BPM application is process-centric (all elements of the application depend upon the process)
B. In a BPM application, elements of the application – such as UI, logic, and data – cannot be modular
C. A traditional application cannot be used in an N-tier environment
D. A traditional application allows for direct execution of the business process, while a
BPM application does not
70-480 vce Answer: A

QUESTION: 40 A ‘strongly typed’ programming language is subject to which two rules? (Choose two.)
A. Every data object must belong to one unique type.
B. All data objects are strongly associated to a local scope.
C. Data object names must be in strong Hungarian notation.
D. Data objects must be of the same type during assignments unless actively overridden.
Answer:AD
QUESTION: 41 Which two most accurately describe the added value of using MDA based transformations? (Choose two.)

A. PIM/PSM distinction
B. PIM/PSM template usage
C. Transformation recording
D. Transformation verification
E. Transformation automation
70-480 exam Answer:AC
QUESTION: 42 What transformation method is a component-based product line architecture most likely to use?
A. QVT
B. Manual C.
Patterns D.
Factoring
E. Automatic
Answer: E
QUESTION: 43 Which statement is true about a PIM?
A. It is always an application-level model.
B. It is sometimes called a domain model.
C. It may be transformed to a PSM using cascaded transformations.
D. It is a set of subsystems that provides functionality through interfaces.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 44 Which statement is true about an interoperability transformation?
A. It is a transformation applied to interoperability connectors.
B. It includes transformation specifications for two different platforms.
C. It is a transformation that distributes a PSM to a multiprocessor system.
D. It transforms two PIMs to a PSM that is interoperable on a single platform.
70-480 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 45 Which statement is NOT true about a PSM?

A. It may abstract away some of the platform details
B. It always includes a detailed model of the platform.
C. It must always be able to produce an implementation.
D. It must always include all details necessary to produce an implementation.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 46 What must include all of the information needed to construct a system and to put it into operation?
A. Platform
B. Viewpoint
C. Implementation
D. Platform Specific Model
70-480 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 47 Which two statements correctly describe the MDA Pattern? (Choose two.)
A. It includes a PIM that is independent of all platforms.
B. A PIM on one context may be a PSM in another context.
C. It includes a PIM that is independent of a specific class of platforms.
D. Once transformed into a PSM, a model will always be viewed as a PSM.
Answer: BC
QUESTION: 48 What are two characteristics of manual transformation in the MDA? (Choose two.)
A. It requires a record of the manual transformation.
B. It is a radical departure from traditional software design methods.
C. It makes an explicit distinction between a platform independent model and the transformed platform specific model.
QUESTION: 49 It adds very little to standard software design practices in use today, but provides a method to incorporate legacy software under the MDA name.
70-480 vce Answer:AC

QUESTION: 50 Most Remote Procedure Calls (RPCs) listen on ports?
A. all well-known ports
B. any port below 512
C. dynamically assigned ports, usually below port 1024
D. dynamically assigned ports, usually above port 1023
Answer: D
QUESTION: 51  In order to mine DHCP client addressing problems, it would be best to mine.
A. RDP and its associated port
B. Bootpc and Bootps (DHCP) and the last known address of the client
C. the last known address of the client
D. the port on the server that the client was attempting to reach
70-480 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 52 Consider this mining filter. Which description most accurately describes what it does?
A. It includes packets in either direction only between network 192.168.1.0/24 and network 10.2.1.0/24.
B. It includes packets sent from network 192.168.1.0/24 to network 10.2.1.0/24.
C. It includes packets in either direction between network 192.168.1.0/24 and other all other networks,
except 10.2.1.0/24.
D. Nothing. No packets would pass this filter.
Answer:A
QUESTION: 53  Reviewing initial data and noting significant trends is part of a process used to.
A. testing a hypothesis
B. isolate an application for conversion

C. profile network usage
D. all of the above
70-480 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 54 If you have captured network traffic and misuse of a network is uncovered, it is usually best to:
A. Confront the individual and record your conversation.
B. Hand the information over to a network security officer or manager.
C. Take the initiative and perform your own investigation.
D. Not inform anyone.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 55 Remote Procedure Calls may change their listening port number when the service is disabled and restarted.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
70-480 pdf Answer:A
QUESTION: 56 Which of the following uses Remote Procedure Calls?
A. Grep
B. Linux and Unix
C. Windows
D. VLANs
E. DNS
Answer: BC
QUESTION: 57 A list of up to 10 of the last file names accessed on an FTP server may be viewed.
A. in the data mining interface (Quick Select) on Files tab
B. in the data mining interface (Quick Select) by creating a custom tab and adding a Files column
C. in the analysis interface in an Expert Application layer object

D. in the analysis interface in an Expert Service layer object
70-480 vce Answer: D
QUESTION: 58  While troubleshooting firewall issues, it is useful to compare:
A. Stream data on the inside, since anything blocked will be on the inside.
B. Stream data on the outside, since anything blocked will be on the outside.
C. Stream data on the inside and outside of the firewall to see what is getting through.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Aug 25, 2017
Q&As: 230

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Question No : 23 – (Topic 1)
You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to retrieve product
data from two different sources. One source is hosted in a SQL Azure database. Each
source contains products for different distributors. Products for each distributor source must be combined for insertion into a single product table destination. You need to select the appropriate data flow transformation to meet this requirement. Which transformation types should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Multicast
B. Merge Join
C. Term Extraction
D. union All
E. Merge
70-463 exam 
Answer: D,E

Question No : 24 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)
You are developing a data flow to load sales data into a fact table. In the data flow, you configure a Lookup Transformation in full cache mode to look up the product data for the sale.The lookup source for the product data is contained in two tables. You need to set the data source for the lookup to be a query that combines the two tables. Which page of the Lookup Transformation Editor should you select to configure the query? To answer, select the appropriate page in the answer area.
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Answer:
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Question No : 25 – (Topic 1)
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.You need to design a package to change a variable value during package execution by using the least amount of development effort. What should you use?
A. Expression task
B. Script task
C. Execute SQL task
D. Execute Process task
E. Term Extraction transformation
70-463 dumps Answer: A
Reference:

Question No : 26 – (Topic 1) You are using SQL Server Data Tools to develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS)
project.The first package that you create in this project contains a package connection that accesses a flat file. Additional packages in the project must also access this file. You need to define and reuse the flat file connection in all project packages. What should you do?
A. Convert the package Connection Manager in the first package to a project Connection
Manager.
B. Copy the package Connection Manager and paste it into the second package.
C. Convert the project to the Package Deployment model.
D. Set the ProtectionLevel property of the package Connection Manager to
DontSaveSensitive to reuse the flat file connection.
Answer: A

Question No : 27 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
A Data Flow task in a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package produces run-time errors. You need to edit the package to log specific error messages. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.) 70-463 pdf
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Question No : 28 – (Topic 1)
You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that uses the Fuzzy Lookup transformation. The reference data to be used in the transformation does not change.You need to reuse the Fuzzy Lookup match index to increase performance and reduce maintenance. What should you do?
A. Select the GenerateAndPersistNewIndex option in the Fuzzy Lookup Transformation
Editor.
B. Select the GenerateNewIndex option in the Fuzzy Lookup Transformation Editor.
C. Select the DropExistingMatchlndex option in the Fuzzy Lookup Transformation Editor.
D. Execute the sp_FuzzyLookupTableMaintenanceUninstall stored procedure.
E. Execute the sp_FuzzyLookupTableMaintenanceInvoke stored procedure.
Answer: A

Question No : 29 – (Topic 1)
You are using a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project that is stored in the SSIS catalog. An Environment has been defined in the SSIS catalog. You need to add the Environment to the project.
Which stored procedure should you use?
A. catalog.set_environment_reference_type
B. catalog.set_environment_property
C. catalog.create_environment_reference
D. catalog.create_environment
70-463 vce Answer: C

Question No : 30 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data
into a data warehouse. You are developing the part of the SSIS package that populates the
ProjectDates dimension table.
The business key of the ProjectDates table is the ProjectName column. The business user
has given you the dimensional attribute behavior for each of the four columns in the
ProjectDates table:
ExpectedStartDate – New values should be tracked over time.
ActualStartDate – New values should not be accepted.
ExpectedEndDate – New values should replace existing values.
ActualEndDate – New values should be tracked over time.
You use the SSIS Slowly Changing Dimension Transformation.
You must configure the Change Type value for each source column.
Which settings should you select? (To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in
the answer area. Each Change Type may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)
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Question No : 31 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. The package moves
order-related data to a staging table named Order. Every night the staging data is truncated
and then all the recent orders from the online store database are inserted into the staging
table. Your package must meet the following requirements: If the truncate operation fails, the package execution must stop and report an error. If the Data Flow task that moves the data to the staging table fails, the entire
refresh operation must be rolled back. For auditing purposes, a log entry must be entered in a SQL log table after each
execution of the Data Flow task.The TransactionOption property for the package is set to Required. You need to design the package to meet the requirements.How should you design the control flow for the package? (To 70-463 dumps answer, drag the appropriate
setting from the list of settings to the correct location or locations in the answer area.)
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Question No : 32 – (Topic 1)
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data
into a data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure.The package uses a Foreach container to process text files found in a folder. The package must be deployed to a single server by using the Project Deployment model. Multiple SQL Server Agent jobs call the package. Each job is executed on a different schedule. Each job passes a different folder path to the package.
You need to configure the package to accept the folder path from each job.
Which package configuration should you use?
A. .dtsConfig file
B. Registry Entry
C. Environment Variable
D. Parent Package Variable
E. XML Configuration File
70-463 exam Answer: C
Reference:

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QUESTION 1
Your company has 10 offices. You plan to generate several billing reports from the Azure portal. Each report will contain
the Azure resource utilization of each office. Which Azure Resource Manager feature should you use before you
generate the reports?
A. tags
B. templates
C. locks
D. policies
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A team of developers at your company plans to deploy, and then remove, 50 virtual machines each week. All the virtual
machines are configured by using Azure Resource Manager templates.
You need to recommend which Azure service will minimize the administrative effort required to deploy and remove the
virtual machines.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Reserved Virtual Machines (VM) Instances
B. Azure DevTest Labs
C. Azure virtual machine scale sets
D. Microsoft Managed Desktop
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/lab-services/devtest-lab-overview

QUESTION 3
You have 1,000 virtual machines hosted on the Hyper-V hosts in a data center. You plan to migrate all the virtual
machines to an Azure pay-as-you-go subscription. You need to identify which expenditure model to use for the planned
Azure solution. Which expenditure model should you identify?
A. operational
B. elastic
C. capital
D. scalable
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/cloud-adoption/appendix/azure-scaffold

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-900 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-900 exam questions-q4-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/manage-resource-groups-portal
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/bandwidth/

QUESTION 5
Your company has an on-premises network that contains multiple servers.
The company plans to reduce the following administrative responsibilities of network administrators:
Backing up application data
Replacing failed server hardware Managing physical server security Updating server operating systems Managing
permissions to shared documents
The company plans to migrate several servers to Azure virtual machines.
You need to identify which administrative responsibilities will be reduced after the planned migration.
Which two responsibilities should you identify? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Replacing failed server hardware
B. Backing up application data
C. Managing physical server security
D. Updating server operating systems
E. Managing permissions to shared documents
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
You have an on-premises network that contains several servers.
You plan to migrate all the servers to Azure.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that some of the servers are available if a single Azure data center goes
offline for an extended period.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. fault tolerance
B. elasticity
C. scalability
D. low latency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What should you use to evaluate whether your company\\’s Azure environment meets regulatory requirements?
A. the Knowledge Center website
B. the Advisor blade from the Azure portal
C. Compliance Manager from the Security Trust Portal
D. the Security Center blade from the Azure portal
Correct Answer: D
References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/regulatory-compliance-dashboard-in-azure-security-center-nowavailable/

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
An Azure administrator plans to run a PowerShell script that creates Azure resources.
You need to recommend which computer configuration to use to run the script.
Solution: Run the script from a computer that runs Chrome OS and uses Azure Cloud Shell.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your Azure environment contains multiple Azure virtual machines.
You need to ensure that a virtual machine named VM1 is accessible from the Internet over HTTP.
Solution: You modify a network security group (NSG).
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure environment. You need to create a new Azure virtual machine from an Android laptop.
Solution: You use the Azure portal.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.thomasmaurer.ch/2019/01/azure-cloud-shell/
https://www.pcmag.com/encyclopedia/term/66542/android-laptop

QUESTION 11
To what should an application connect to retrieve security tokens?
A. an Azure Storage account
B. Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
C. a certificate store
D. an Azure key vault
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-900 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-900 exam questions-q12-2

QUESTION 13
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You plan to deploy 20 virtual machines to an Azure environment. To ensure that a virtual machine named VM1 cannot
connect to the other virtual machines, VM1 must be deployed to a separate virtual network.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. run a different operating system than the other virtual machines
C. be deployed to a separate resource group
D. have two network interfaces
Correct Answer: A

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Exam AZ-500: Microsoft Azure Security Technologies

manage identity and access;
implement platform protection;
manage security operations;
and secure data and applications.

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-500

Microsoft AZ-500 Practice Exams Dumps Question Answers

Listed below are question answers in the AZ-500 eaxm:

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Subscription named Sub1.
You have an Azure Storage account named Sa1 in a resource group named RG1.
Users and applications access the blob service and the file service in Sa1 by using several shared access signatures
(SASs) and stored access policies.
You discover that unauthorized users accessed both the file service and the blob service.
You need to revoke all access to Sa1.
Solution: You generate new SASs.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead you should create a new stored access policy.
To revoke a stored access policy, you can either delete it, or rename it by changing the signed identifier. Changing the
signed identifier breaks the associations between any existing signatures and the stored access policy. Deleting or
renaming the stored access policy immediately affects all of the shared access signatures associated with it.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/rest/api/storageservices/Establishing-a-Stored-Access-Policy

QUESTION 2
Your company uses Azure DevOps.
You need to recommend a method to validate whether the code meets the company\\’s quality standards and code
review standards.
What should you recommend implementing in Azure DevOps?
A. branch folders
B. branch permissions
C. branch policies
D. branch locking
Correct Answer: C
Branch policies help teams protect their important branches of development. Policies enforce your team\\’s code quality
and change management standards.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/repos/git/branch-policies?view=azuredevopsandviewFallbackFrom=vsts

QUESTION 3
You plan to use Azure Log Analytics to collect logs from 200 servers that run Windows Server 2016.
You need to automate the deployment of the Microsoft Monitoring Agent to all the servers by using an Azure Resource
Manager template.
How should you complete the template? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
Your company plans to create separate subscriptions for each department. Each subscription will be associated to the
same Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.
You need to configure each subscription to have the same role assignments. What should you use?
A. Azure Security Center
B. Azure Policy
C. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
D. Azure Blueprints
Correct Answer: D
Just as a blueprint allows an engineer or an architect to sketch a project\\’s design parameters, Azure Blueprints
enables cloud architects and central information technology groups to define a repeatable set of Azure resources that
implements and adheres to an organization\\’s standards, patterns, and requirements.
Blueprints are a declarative way to orchestrate the deployment of various resource templates and other artifacts such
as: Role Assignments Policy Assignments Azure Resource Manager templates Resource Groups
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/blueprints/overview

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a hybrid configuration of Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You have an Azure HDInsight cluster on a virtual network.
You plan to allow users to authenticate to the cluster by using their on-premises Active Directory credentials.
You need to configure the environment to support the planned authentication.
Solution: You deploy Azure Active Directory Domain Services (Azure AD DS) to the Azure subscription.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead, you connect HDInsight to your on-premises network by using Azure Virtual Networks and a VPN gateway.
Note: To allow HDInsight and resources in the joined network to communicate by name, you must perform the following
actions:
Create Azure Virtual Network.
Create a custom DNS server in the Azure Virtual Network.
Configure the virtual network to use the custom DNS server instead of the default Azure Recursive Resolver.
Configure forwarding between the custom DNS server and your on-premises DNS server.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/connect-on-premises-network

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Subscription. The subscription contains 50 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2012 R2 or
Windows Server 2016.
You need to deploy Microsoft Antimalware to the virtual machines.
Solution: You add an extension to each virtual machine.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
You can use Visual Studio to enable and configure the Microsoft Antimalware service. This entails selecting Microsoft
Antimalware extension from the dropdown list under Installed Extensions and click Add to configure with default
antimalware configuration.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/antimalware

QUESTION 7
You have an Azure subscription that contains 100 virtual machines. Azure Diagnostics is enabled on all the virtual
machines.
You are planning the monitoring of Azure services in the subscription.
You need to retrieve the following details:
Identify the user who deleted a virtual machine three weeks ago.
Query the security events of a virtual machine that runs Windows Server 2016.
What should you use in Azure Monitor? To answer, drag the appropriate configuration settings to the correct details.
Each configuration setting may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
Your company has an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com.
The company is developing an application named App1. App1 will run as a service on server that runs Windows Server
2016. App1 will authenticate to contoso.com and access Microsoft Graph to read directory data.
You need to delegate the minimum required permissions to App1.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence from the Azure portal? To answer, move the appropriate actions
from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q8-2

Step 1: Create an app registration
First the application must be created/registered.
Step 2: Add an application permission
Application permissions are used by apps that run without a signed-in user present.
Step 3: Grant permissions
Incorrect Answers:
Delegated permission
Delegated permissions are used by apps that have a signed-in user present.
Application Proxy: Azure Active Directory\\’s Application Proxy provides secure remote access to on-premises web applications.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/v2-permissions-and-consent

QUESTION 9
You need to create Role1 to meet the platform protection requirements.
How should you complete the role definition of Role1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q9

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q9-2

Scenario: A new custom RBAC role named Role1 must be used to delegate the administration of the managed disks in
Resource Group1. Role1 must be available only for Resource Group1.
Azure RBAC template managed disks “Microsoft.Storage/”
References:
https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/azureedu/2017/02/11/new-managed-disk-storage-option-for-your-azure-vms/

QUESTION 10
You need to ensure that you can meet the security operations requirements. What should you do first?
A. Turn on Auto Provisioning in Security Center.
B. Integrate Security Center and Microsoft Cloud App Security.
C. Upgrade the pricing tier of Security Center to Standard.
D. Modify the Security Center workspace configuration.
Correct Answer: C
  The Standard tier extends the capabilities of the Free tier to workloads running in private and other public clouds,
providing unified security management and threat protection across your hybrid cloud workloads. The Standard tier also
adds
advanced threat detection capabilities, which uses built-in behavioral analytics and machine learning to identify attacks
and zero-day exploits, access and application controls to reduce exposure to network attacks and malware, and more.
Scenario: Security Operations Requirements
Litware must be able to customize the operating system security configurations in Azure Security Center.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security-center/security-center-pricing

QUESTION 11
You create resources in an Azure subscription as shown in the following table.

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q11

VNET1 contains two subnets named Subnet1 and Subnet2. Subnet1 has a network ID of 10.0.0.0/24. Subnet2 has a
network ID of 10.1.1.0/24. Contoso1901 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q11-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q11-3

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q11-4

Box 1: Yes
Access from Subnet1 is allowed.
Box 2: No
No access from Subnet2 is allowed.
Box 3: Yes
Access from IP address 193.77.10.2 is allowed

QUESTION 12
You create a new Azure subscription that is associated to a new Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.
You create one active conditional access policy named Portal Policy. Portal Policy is used to provide access to the
Microsoft Azure Management cloud app.
The Conditions settings for Portal Policy are configured as shown in the Conditions exhibit. (Click the Conditions tab.)

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q12

The Grant settings for Portal Policy are configured as shown in the Grant exhibit. (Click the Grant tab.)

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q12-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q12-3

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-500 exam questions-q12-4

Box 1: No The Contoso location is excluded
Box 2: Yes
Box 3: Yes Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/location-condition

QUESTION 13
You have an Azure web app named webapp1.
You need to configure continuous deployment for webapp1 by using an Azure Repo.
What should you create first?
A. an Azure Application Insights service
B. an Azure DevOps organizations
C. an Azure Storage account
D. an Azure DevTest Labs lab
Correct Answer: B
To use Azure Repos, make sure your Azure DevOps organization is linked to your Azure subscription.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/deploy-continuous-deployment

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  • Questions: 40–60 questions
  • Duration: 3,5 hours
  • Practice is key
  • Plan(Days 1 to 3: Design for identity and security (20-25%).Day 4-5: Design a data platform solution (15-20%).Day 6: Design a business continuity strategy (15-20%).Day 7: Design an infrastructure strategy (15-20%).Day 8: Determine workload requirements (10-15%)and Design for deployment, migration, and integration (10-15%).Day 9: Practice exams and mock questions, and finally review.Day 10: EXAM!)

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Pass Microsoft AZ-301 exam – questions 1-12

Create free practice!

QUESTION 1
You are designing an Azure solution for a company that wants to move a .NET Core web application from an onpremises data center to Azure. The web application relies on a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database on Windows
Server 2016.
The database server will not move to Azure.
A separate networking team is responsible for configuring network permissions.
The company uses Azure ExpressRoute and has an ExpressRoute gateway connected to an Azure virtual network
named VNET1.
You need to recommend a solution for deploying the web application.
Solution: Deploy the web application by using an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) container on VNET1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead, use VNet Integration.
Note: VNet Integration gives your web app access to resources in your virtual network. VNet Integration is often used to
enable access from apps to a databases and web services running in your VNet.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/web-sites-integrate-with-vnet

QUESTION 2
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com that contains several administrative user
accounts. You need to recommend a solution to identify which administrative user accounts have NOT signed in during
the previous 30 days. Which service should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure AD Identity Protection
B. Azure Activity Log
C. Azure Advisor
D. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a strategy for migrating the database content of WebApp1 to Azure. What should you include
in the recommendation?
A. Use Azure Site Recovery to replicate the SQL servers to Azure.
B. Use SQLServer transactional replication.
C. Copy the BACPAC file that contains the Azure SQL database file to Azure Blob storage.
D. Copy the VHD that contains the Azure SQL database files to Azure Blob storage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are planning to deploy an application by using the Azure Kubermets Services (AKS)> the application will reedy on
having access to an encryption key that will be used to … transmit files What should you use to provides the encryption
key AKS security?
A. secrets
B. Azure Storage Service Encryption
C. a Kubernetes deployment YAML file
D. ConfigureMap
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You configure the Diagnostics settings for an Azure SQL database as shown in the following exhibit.

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q5

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on The information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each coned selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q5-2

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q5-3

QUESTION 6
You manage a network that includes an on-premises Active Directory Domain Services domain and an Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD).
Employees are requires to use different accounts when using on-premises or cloud resources. You must recommend a
solution that lets employees sign in to all company resources by using a single account. The solution must implement an
identity provider.
You need provide guidance on the different identity providers.
How should you describe each identity provider? To answer, select the appropriate description from each list in the
answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q6

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q6-2

Box1: User management occurs on-premises. Azure AD authenticates employees by using on-premises passwords.
Azure AD Domain Services for hybrid organizations Organizations with a hybrid IT infrastructure consume a mix of
cloud resources and on-premises resources. Such organizations synchronize identity information from their on-premises
directory to their Azure AD tenant. As hybrid
organizations look to migrate more of their on-premises applications to the cloud, especially legacy directory-aware
applications, Azure AD Domain Services can be useful to them.
Example: Litware Corporation has deployed Azure AD Connect, to synchronize identity information from their onpremises directory to their Azure AD tenant. The identity information that is synchronized includes user accounts, their
credential hashes for authentication (password hash sync) and group memberships. User accounts, group memberships, and credentials from Litware\\’s on-premises directory are synchronized to Azure AD via Azure AD
Connect. These user accounts, group memberships, and credentials are automatically available within the
managed domain.
Box 2: User management occurs on-premises. The on-promises domain controller authenticates employee credentials.
You can federate your on-premises environment with Azure AD and use this federation for authentication and
authorization. This sign-in method ensures that all user authentication occurs on-premises.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory-domain-services/active-directory-ds-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/whatis-fed

QUESTION 7
You have an Azure subscription that contains a resource group named RG1.
You create an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) group named ResearchUsers that contains the user accounts of all
researchers.
You need to recommend a solution that meets the following requirements:
The researchers must be allowed to create Azure virtual machines.
The researchers must only be able to create Azure virtual machines by using specific Azure Resource Manager
templates.
Solution: Create an Azure DevOps Project. Configure the DevOps Project settings.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead: On RG1, assign the Contributor role to the ResearchUsers group. Create a custom Azure Policy definition and
assign the policy to RG1.

QUESTION 8
You have Azure virtual machines that run a custom line-of-business web application.
You plan to use a third-party solution to parse event logs from the virtual machines stored in an Azure storage account.
You need to recommend a solution to save the event logs from the virtual machines to the Azure Storage account. The
solution must minimize costs and complexity.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure VM Diagnostics Extension
B. Azure Monitor Metrics
C. event log subscriptions
D. Azure Monitor Logs
Correct Answer: A
The Azure Diagnostics VM extension enables you to collect monitoring data, such as performance counters and event
logs, from your Windows VM. You can granularly specify what data you want to collect and where you want the data to
go, such as an Azure Storage account or an Azure Event Hub.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/extensions-diagnostics

QUESTION 9
You have standard Load balancer configured to support three virtual machines on the same subnet.
You need to recommend a solution to notify administrators when the load balancer fails.
Which metrics should you recommend using to test the load balancer? To answer, drag the appropriate metrics to the
correct conditions. Each metric may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
NOT: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q9

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q9-2

QUESTION 10
Your company has an on-premises Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain and an established Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD) environment.
Your company would like users to be automatically signed in to cloud apps when they are on their corporate desktops
that are connected to the corporate network.
You need to enable single sign-on (SSO) for company users.
Solution: Install and configure an Azure AD Connect server to use password hash synchronization and select the
Enable single sign-on option.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You have an Azure subscription. The subscription contains Azure virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016 and
Linux.
You need to use Azure Log Analytics design an alerting strategy for security-related events.
Which Log Analytics tables should you query? To answer, drag the appropriate tables to the correct log types. Each
value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q11-2

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You are evaluating the components of the migration to Azure that require you to provision an Azure Storage account.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q12-2

QUESTION 13
You have a virtual machine scale set named SS1.
You configure autoscaling as shown in the following exhibit.
[Missing the exhibit]
You configure the scale out and scale in rules to have a duration of 10 minutes and a cool down time of 10 minutes.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented
in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q13

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-301 exam questions-q13-2

 

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Implementing Cisco Service Provider Advanced Routing Solutions (300-510 SPRI)

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/spri-300-510.html

Cisco Certification preparation material for 300-510 exam

Latest Cisco 300-510 Practice Test Questions

Just Like the Real 300-510 Test

QUESTION 1
Which output from the show isis interface command helps an engineer troubleshoot an IS-IS adjacency problem on a
Cisco IOS-XR platform?
A. metric
B. priority
C. circuit type
D. hello interval
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Referring to the topology diagram show in the exhibit, which three statements are correct regarding the BGP routing
updates? (Choose three.)

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q2

A. The EBGP routing updates received by R1 from R5 will be propagated to the R2, R4, and R7 routers
B. The EBGP routing updates received by R3 from R6 will be propagated to the R2 and R4 routers
C. The EBGP routing updates received by R1 from R5 will be propagated to the R2 and R4 routers
D. The IBGP routing updates received by R3 from R2 will be propagated to the R6 router
E. The IBGP routing updates received by R2 from R1 will be propagated to the R3 router
F. The IBGP routing updates received by R1 from R4 will be propagated to the R5, R7, and R2 routers
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 3

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. CE1 is the gateway router into the provider network via PE1. A network operator must inject a
default route into OSPF area 0. All devices inside area 0 must be able to reach PE1. Which configuration achieves this
goal?

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q3-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/47868-ospfdb9.html

QUESTION 4
Which two characteristics unique to SSM when compared to ASM are true? (Choose two.)
A. It uses SPT switchover
B. It uses (*,G) exclusively
C. It uses IGMPv3
D. It uses RP
E. It uses (S,G) exclusively
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
A network engineer is troubleshooting OSPF multiarea. Which Cisco IOS XR feature should the engineer use in order to
streamline OSPF issue?
A. hierarchical CLI
B. DR support for topology management
C. routing process enabled by default on all interfaces
D. show ip ospf topology command
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/xr12000/software/xr12k_r4-0/routing/configuration/guide/rc40xr12k_chapter4.html#con_1059437

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Compare different features between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3. Drag and drop the descriptions of OSPF from the left onto
the correct OSPF versions on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q6

 

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q6-2

QUESTION 7

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q7

Refer to the exhibit. P1 and PE3 Cisco IOS XR routers are directly connected and have this configuration applied. The
BGP session is not coming up. Assume that there is no IP reachability problem and both routers can open tcp port 179
to each other.
Which action fixes the issue?
A. Change HMAC-MD5 to HMAC-SHA1-20
B. Configure the send and accept lifetime under key 1
C. Change HMAC-MD5 to MD5
D. Change HMAC-MD5 to HMAC-SHA1-12
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q8

Which three statements are correct regarding the Cisco IOS-XR configuration? (Choose three.)
A. This router, acting as the RP mapping agent, will send RP announcement messages to the 224.0.1.40 group
B. This router, acting as the RP mapping agent, will send RP discovery messages to the 224.0.1.39 group
C. This router is the RP mapping agent only for the 224.11.11.11 and 224.99.99.99 multicast groups
D. This router is a candidate PIM-SM RP for the 224.99.99.99 multicast group
E. This router is a candidate PIM-BIDIR RP for the 224.11.11.11 multicast group
F. IGMPv3 is enabled on all interfaces
G. Other routers will recognize this router as the RP for all multicast groups with this router loopback 0 IP address
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 9
Which protocol can be used to secure multicast in a group multicast solution where group key management is needed
for secure key exchange?
A. DOI
B. ISAKMP
C. GDOI
D. IPsec
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q10

Refer to the exhibit. After troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency issue, routers 1, 2, and 3 have formed OSPF neighbor
relationships. Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. Router 2 receives a Type 5 LSAs from router 1 for its connected subnets
B. Router 2 uses router 3 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24
C. Router 2 uses router 1 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24
D. Router 2 receives a Type 7 LSAs from router 3 for its connected subnets
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You have configured routing policies on a Cisco IOS XR device with routing policy language.
Which two statements about the routing policies are true? (Choose two.)
A. The routing policies affect BGP-related routes only.
B. If you make edits to an existing routing policy without pasting the full policy into the CLI, the previous policy is
overwritten.
C. You can change an existing routing policy by editing individual statements.
D. The routing policies are implemented in a sequential manner.
E. The routing policies are implemented using route maps.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. Which LSA type is indicated by this router output?

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q12

A. type 3 LSA
B. type 4 LSA
C. type 1 LSA
D. type 2 LSA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q13

Refer to the exhibit. After you applied these configurations to routers R1 and R2, the two devices could not form a
neighbor relationship. Which reason for the problem is the most likely?
A. The two routers cannot authenticate with one another.
B. The two routers have the same area ID.
C. The two routers have the same network ID.
D. The two routers have different IS-types.
Correct Answer: C

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