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QUESTION 1
Examine the following SQL statement:
ALTER SESSION SET PLSQL_OPTIMIZE_LEVEL=3;
What is the result of executing this statements?
A. The PL/SQL optimize level for some existing PL/SQL units will be changed as an immediate result.
B. The PL/SQL optimize level for subsequently complied PL/SQL units will be set to 3 and inlining will be enabled.
C. The PL/SQL optimize level for subsequently compiled PL/SQL units will be set to 3 and inlining will be disabled.
D. This statement will fail because PLSQL_OPTIMIZE_LEVEL can only be set at the system level,
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true about conversion from DBMS_SQL to native dynamic SQL? (Choose two.)
A. The DBMS_SQL.TO_REFCURSOR function should be used when the number of bind variables is known at compile
time, but not the number of items to be selected.
B. The DBMS_SQL.TO_REFCURSOR function converts a SQL cursor number to a weakly typed cursor variable only
after it has been opened, parsed, and executed via DBMS_SQL.
C. DBMS_SQL operations can access the cursor only as the SQL cursor number, not as a REF CURSOR variable.
D. The DBMS_SQL.TO_REFCURSOR function allows a query result to be returned implicitly from a non PL/SQL
environment to a stored PL/SQL program.
E. The DBMS_SQL.IS_OPEN function is used to verify that a SQL cursor number is open after it has been converted to
a REF CURSOR.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=iWhbFeboD84Candpg=PA556andlpg=PA556anddq=The+DBMS_SQ
L.TO_REFCURSOR+function+should+be+used+when+the+number+of+bind+variables+is+known+at+compile+time,+b
ut+not +the+number+of+items+to+be+selectedandsource=blandots=yAxmV8X7IEandsig=ACfU3U3_BJFUSzRWrtszG1
LG7-YVTt9j4wandhl=enandsa=Xandved=2ahUKEwiY7ueY-6boAhXBe30KHcBBCDcQ6AEwAHoECBQQAQ#v=onepag
eandq=The% 20DBMS_SQL.TO_REFCURSOR%20function%20should%20be%20used%20when%20the%20number
%20of%20bind%20variables%20is%20known%20at%20compile%20time%2C%20but%20not%20the%20number%20of
%20items%20to %20be%20selectedandf=false
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/appdev.112/e25519/dynamic.htm

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are correct with reference to intra unit inlining?
A. Inlining will always decrease the size of a unit.
B. Setting PLSQL_OPTIMIZE_LEVEL to 2 means automatic inlining is attempted.
C. You cannot inline an external subroutine.
D. Programs that make use of smaller helper subroutines are good candidates for inlining.
E. Pragmas apply only to calls in the next statement following the pragma.
F. You cannot inline local subroutines.
Correct Answer: CDE
Reference: http://dbmanagement.info/Books/MIX/Les07_PLSQL.pdf


QUESTION 4
The database instance was started up with the following initialization parameter values:
MEMORY_TARGET = 500M
RESULT_CACHE_MODE = FORCE
RESULT_CACHE_MAX_SIZE = 0
After the database startup, to enable the result cache, you issued the following command:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET result_cache_max_size = 2M SCOPE = MEMORY;
Which is the effect of this command?
A. The query result cache is enabled and 2 MB of the memory target is allocated to the result cache.
B. The query result cache is enabled and 0.25% of the memory target is allocated to the result cache.
C. The command produces an error because the database instance is started up with the
RESULT_CACHE_MAX_SIZE parameter set to 0.
D. The query result cache is not enabled because the database instance is started up with the
RESULT_CACHE_MAX_SIZE parameter set to 0.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

1z0-148 exam questions-q5

You want to display the contents of CREATE_LIST.
Which two lines need to be corrected in the PL/SQL block?
A. Line 2
B. Line 3
C. Line 5
D. Line 6
E. Line 7
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 6
In a user session, tracing is enabled as follows:
SQL> EXECUTE
DBMS_TRACE.SET_PLSQL_TRACE(DBMS_TRACE.TRACE_ENABLED_LINES);
PL/SQL procedure successfully completed.
You executed the procedure as follows:
SQL> EXECUTE PROC10
PL/SQL procedure successfully completed.
When you examine the PLSQL_TRACE_EVENTS table, you find that no trace information was written into it.
View the Exhibit.
What is the reason for this?

1z0-148 exam questions-q6

A. The PROC10 procedure is created with the invoker\\’s right.
B. The PROC10 procedure is not compiled with the DEBUG option.
C. Tracing is not enabled with the TRACE_ENABLED_CALLS option.
D. The TRACE_ENABLED parameter is set to FALSE for the session.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about SecureFile LOB options? (Choose two.)
A. The DECRYPT option can be used to remove the encryption only if the LOB column is empty.
B. The KEEP_DUPLICATES option removes the deduplication effect only on new data in a LOB column.
C. The KEEP_DUPLICATES option removes the deduplication effect on existing and new data in a LOB column.
D. The DECRYPT option can be used to remove the encryption from LOB columns that are empty or contain data.
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 8
Examine the section of code taken from a PL/SQL program:
PROCEDURE p1 (x PLS_INTEGER) IS
… …
PRAGMA INLINE (p1, \\’NO\\’);
x:= p1(1) + p1(2) + 17; — Call 1

x:= p1(3) + p1(4) + 17; — Call 2
Call 1 and Call 2 are the comments for distinguishing the code. The PLSQL_OPTIMIZE_LEVEL parameter is set to 3.
Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. The calls to the P1 procedure are not inlined in the section commented as Call 1.
B. The calls to the P1 procedure might be inlined in the section commented as Call 2.
C. The calls to the P1 procedure are inlined in both the sections commented as Call 1 and Call 2.
D. The calls to the P1 procedure are never inlined in both the sections commented as Call 1 and Call 2.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
View the Exhibit to examine the PL/SQL code for the GET_METADATA function. Which statement is true about the
metadata gathered by the function?

1z0-148 exam questions-q9

A. The end result is the creation of DDL for the TIMECARDS table with all instances of the HR schema changed to
SCOTT.
B. The end result is the creation of an XML document for all tables with all physical, storage, logging, and other segment
attributes.
C. The end result is the creation of DDL for all tables with all instances of the HR schema changed to SCOTT along with
all physical, storage, logging, and other segment attributes.
D. The end result is the creation of DDL for all tables and associated indexes with all instances of the HR schema
changed to SCOTT along with all physical, storage, logging, and other segment attributes.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two types of metadata can be retrieved by using the various procedures in the DBMS_METADATA PL/SQL
package? (Choose two.)
A. report of invalidated objects in a schema
B. report of statistics of an object in the database
C. DDL for all object grants on a table in the database
D. data definition language (DDL) for all objects in a schema
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 11
Examine these statements:
1.
A function with invoker\\’s rights can be result cached by using both AUTHID CURRENT_USER and RESULT_CACHE
in its declaration.
2.
A function with invoker\\’s rights cannot be result cached because it may allow a user to retrieve data cached by
another user.
3.
Results in the result cache for an invoker\\’s rights function will be cached by the value of CURRENT_SCHEMA in the
invoking environment.
4.
By default, declaring a function with RESULT_CACHE makes it an invoker\\’s rights result cached function.
5.
A function with invoker\\’s rights can be result cached because the function result cache is created per user for
invoker\\’s rights functions.
Identify the set of correct statements with respect to invoker\\’s rights and function result caching.
A. 1, 3, 4 and 5
B. 1 and 3
C. 1, 3 and 5
D. 2 only
E. 1, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Examine this declaration section: Which two executable sections will display the message `Summary is null\\’?

1z0-148 exam questions-q12

A. BEGIN 1_rec := NULL; 1_emp := emp_typ (1_rec); IF 1_emp (1).expr_summary IS EMPTY THEN
DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE (‘Summary is null’); END IF; END;
B. BEGIN 1_rec.emp_id :=1; 1_rec.expr_summary := NULL; 1_emp :=emp_typ (1_rec); IF 1_emp(1).expr_summary IS
NULL THEN DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE (‘Summary is null’); END IF; END;
C. BEGIN 1_rec.emp_id :=1; 1_rec.expr_summary := EMPTY_CLOB (); 1_emp := emp_typ (1_rec); IF
1_emp(1).expr_summary IS NULL THEN DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE (‘Summary is null’); END IF; END;
D. BEGIN 1_emp := emp_typ (); IF NOT 1_emp. EXISTS (1) THEN DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE (‘Summary is null’);
END IF; END;
E. BEGIN 1_emp. EXTEND; IF NOT 1_emp. EXISTS (1) THEN DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE (‘Summary is null’); END
IF; END;
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 13
Which two types of query results cannot be stored in the query result cache? (Choose two.)
A. subquery results
B. results of a query having the SYSDATE function
C. results of a query having the GROUP BY clause
D. results of a query having the DATE data type in the WHERE clause
Correct Answer: AB

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Welcome to Oracle 1Z0-083 practice test online

QUESTION 1
On the 10th of August, you implement an incremental database backup strategy and configure a recovery window of
five days.
Level 0 backups are taken on the 10th, 17th, and 24th of August. Differential level 1 incremental backups are taken daily
between the level 0 backups.
Today is the 26th of August.
Which backups will be obsolete?
A. all backups prior to 10th of August
B. all backups prior to 22nd of August
C. all backups prior to 24th of August
D. all backups prior to 20th of August
E. all backups prior to 17th of August
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)


QUESTION 2
You plan to install Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server and Oracle Database for the first time on a server.
Examine this command and its outcome:

1z0-083 exam questions-q2

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. oracle will be an owner of the Oracle Inventory.
B. oracle must be the owner of every Oracle Database installation.
C. oracle can own an Oracle Database installation but not an Oracle Grid Infrastructure installation.
D. oracle will be granted the SYSASM privilege when installing the Oracle Database software.
E. The user account, oracle, and group, oinstall, can be used for all Oracle software installations.
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)

QUESTION 3

Which three are true about RMAN persistent configuration settings, administration, and their effects? (Choose three.)
A. A target database\\’s persistent RMAN configuration settings are always stored in the target\\’s control file
B. Backup older than the recovery window retention policy are always deleted automatically if the backup location has
insufficient space.
C. Backups written to the fast recovery area (FRA) that are oboslete based on the redundancy retention policy can be
deleted automatically to free space.
D. The RMAN SHOW ALL command displays only settings with nondefault values.
E. A target database\\’s persistent RMAN configuration settings are always synchronized automatically with the RMAN
catalog.
F. The V$RMAN_CONFIGURATION view displays only settings with values that have been modified.
G. A DBA must specify either a redundancy retention policy or a recovery window retention policy.
Correct Answer: ABF
Section: (none)
Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/booksid=pUEkAAAAQBAJandpg=PA114andlpg=PA114anddq=V$RMAN_CONFIGURATION+view+displays+only+settings+with+values+that+have+been+modifiedandsource=blandots=fhC9A7ULeXandsig=ACfU3U2cGhTjmAOpCZhvlL5R4j6ixLRAwandhl=enandsa=Xandved=2ahUKEwjJzfWmtnoAhXT8eAKHQ9uBG8Q6AEwAHoECAwQJg#v=onepageandq=V%24RMAN_CONFIGURATION%20view%20displays%20only%20settings%20with%20values%20that%20have%20been% 20modifiedandf=false


QUESTION 4
Which two are true about Rapid Home Provisioning (RHP), which has been available since Orcale 18c? (Choose two.)
A. It is an Oracle Database service
B. It cannot be used to upgrade Oracle Database homes.
C. It can be used to provision applications.
D. It can be used to patch Grid Infrastructure homes containing Oracle Restart.
E. It can be used to provision middleware.
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Reference: https://www.oracle.com/assets/rapid-home-provisioning-2405191.pdf

QUESTION 5
Which three are true In Oracle 19c and later releases?
A. Tablespaces always remain In read/write mode during transportable tablespace operations.
B. Simultaneous data pump jobs can be limited at the pluggable database (PDB) level.
C. Tablespaces never remain In read/write mode during transportable tablespace operations.
D. An ordinary data pump export of a table with encrypted columns will always encrypt the same columns when
imported.
E. A transportable data pump import can leave a plugged-in tablespace in read-only mode.
F. A transportable data pump import can leave a plugged-in tablespace In read/write mode.
Correct Answer: ADE
Section: (none)


QUESTION 6
You must transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace from one database to another.
The UNIVERSITY tablespace is currently open read/write.
The source and destination platforms have different endian formats.
Examine this list of actions:
1.
Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read-only on the source system.
2.
Export the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using EXPDP.
3.
Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data fies to the destination platform format using RMAN on the source system.
4.
Copy the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination system.
5.
Copy the Data Pump dump set to the destination system.
6.
Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination platform format using RMAN on the destination
system.
7.
Import the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using IMPDP.
8.
Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read/write on the destination system.
Which is the minimum number of actions required, in the correct order, to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace?
A. 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8
B. 1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 8
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
E. 2, 4, 5, 6, 7
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)

QUESTION 7
You are managing this configuration:
1.
CDB1 is a container database.
2.
PDB1 and PDB2 are two pluggable databases in CDB1.
3.
USER1.EMP is a table in PDB1 and USER2.DEPT is a table in PDB2.
CDB1 user SYS executes these commands after connecting successfully to PDB2: Which two are true? (Choose two.)

1z0-083 exam questions-q7

A. The inserts on USER1.EMP remain uncommitted when the session connected to PDB2.
B. The inserts on USER1.EMP were committed when the session inserted a row into USER2.DEPT.
C. The insert on USER2.DEPT fails because of the active transaction in the parent container.
D. The insert on USER2.DEPT is a recursive autonomous transaction by the child session and is committed.
E. The inserts on USER1.EMP were rolled back when the session connected to PDB2.
F. The insert on USER2.DEPT is uncommitted.
G. The inserts on USER1.EMP were committed when the session connected to PDB2.
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)


QUESTION 8
Which two are true about common objects? (Choose two.)
A. They can be created only in CDB$ROOT.
B. They can be only metadata-linked in an application container.
C. They can exist in user-defined schemas only in application containers.
D. They can exist in CDB$ROOT and an application root.
E. They can be extended data-linked in CDB$ROOT.
F. They can be created only in an application root.
Correct Answer: EF
Section: (none)
Reference: https://blog.toadworld.com/2017/08/01/oracle-multi-tenant-application-containers-part-iiisharing-of-data-inapplication-common-objects


QUESTION 9
Examine this configuration:
1.
CDB1 is a container database.
2.
PDB1 and PDB2 are pluggable databases in CDB1.
You execute these commands successfully:

1z0-083 exam questions-q9

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. PDB1 and PDB2 are in MOUNT state.
B. Redo logs are opened.
C. PDB1 and PDB2 are in READ ONLY state.
D. CDB$ROOT is in MOUNT state.
E. PDB$SEED is in READ ONLY state.
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)


QUESTION 10
Which two are true about OS groups and users for Oracle Grid Infrastructure and the Oracle Relational Database
Management System (RDBMS)? (Choose two.)
A. By default, members of the OSASM group can access Automatic Storage Management and RDBMS instances.
B. The primary group for the Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database owners must be the Oracle Inventory
group.
C. The Oracle Grid Infrastructure installation must be owned by the grid user.
D. The Oracle Grid Infrastructure owner owns Oracle Restart and Oracle Automatic Storage Management binaries.
E. The Oracle Grid Infrastructure owner must have OSOPER, OSBACKUPDBA, and OSKMDBA as secondary groups.
F. The same OSDBA group must be used for Automatic Storage Management and the Oracle Database.
Correct Answer: EF
Section: (none)
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWWIN/usrgrps.htm#CWWINGUID-6FD3C6AE-5A994C6D-85D6-868CBA6F5DAE


QUESTION 11
Which three are true about upgrading Oracle Grid Infrastructure? (Choose three.)
A. A direct upgrade can be performed only from the immediately preceding Oracle Grid Infrastructure version.
B. The newer version is installed in a separate Oracle Grid Infrastructure home on the same server as the existing
version.
C. An existing Oracle base can be used.
D. The upgrade process will automatically install all mandatory patches for the current version of Oracle Grid
Infrastructure.
E. Existing Oracle Database instances must be shut down before starting the upgrade.
F. Only the grid user can perform the upgrade.
Correct Answer: DEF
Section: (none)
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWLIN/procstop.htm#CEGEDCDB

QUESTION 12
Which two are true about Oracle Optimizer Statistics, their use, and their collection? (Choose two.)
A. The number of table rows is considered when evaluating the cost of accessing a table using an index.
B. Index balanced B*Tree height is considered when evaluating the cost of using an index.
C. The Statistics Advisor can help recommend the best way to gather statistics.
D. Statistics collected using DBMS_STATS always yield the best optimizer result.
E. The Statistics Advisor generates actions for all recommendations.
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/tgsql/optimizer-statisticsadvisor.html#GUIDD81A7708-FDA0-45BB-A6E2-103858B047AE


QUESTION 13
Which two are true about Oracle Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) templates? (Choose two.)
A. The General Purpose of Transaction Processing templates are most suitable when concurrency and recoverability
are key criteria.
B. Oracle DBCA templates can store only logical structure and not database files.
C. New templates can only be created by modifying an existing user-created template.
D. The Data Warehouse template is most suitable when transaction response time is the key criterion.
E. Oracle DBCA templates can be used to create new databases and duplicate existing databases.
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMQS/GUID-2B8A3B5ED319-4377-8B228BB67DCC9885.htm#ADMQS0235

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QUESTION 1
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCT_INFORMATION table.

1z0-071 exam questions-q1

You want to see the product names and the date of expiration of warranty for all the products, if the product is
purchased today. The products that have no warranty should be displayed at the top and the products with maximum
warranty period should be displayed at the bottom.
Which SQL statement would you execute to fulfill this requirement?
A. SELECT product_name, SYSDATE+warranty_period AS “Warranty expire date” FROM product_information ORDER
BY SYSDATE-warranty_period
B. SELECT product_name, SYSDATE+warranty_period AS “Warranty expire date” FROM product_information ORDER
BY SYSDATE+warranty_period
C. SELECT product_name, SYSDATE+warranty_period AS “Warranty expire date” FROM product_information ORDER
BY SYSDATE
D. SELECT product_name, SYSDATE+warranty_period AS “Warranty expire date” FROM product_information WHERE
warranty_period > SYSDATE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
The EMPLOYEES table contains columns EMP_ID of data type NUMBER and HIRE_DATE of data type DATE.
You want to display the date of the first Monday after the completion of six months since hiring.
The NLS_TERRITORY parameter is set to AMERICA in the session and, therefore, Sunday is the first day
of the week.
Which query can be used?
A. SELECT emp_id, NEXT_DAY (MONTHS_BETWEEN (hire_date, SYSDATE), 6) FROM employees;
B. SELECT emp_id, NEXT_DAY(ADD_MONTHS(hire_date, 6), `MONDAY\\’) FROM employees;
C. SELECT emp_id, ADD_MONTHS(hire_date, 6), NEXT_DAY(`MONDAY\\’) FROM employees;
D. SELECT emp_id, NEXT_DAY(ADD_MONTHS(hire_date, 6), 1) FROM employees;
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_add_months.htm


QUESTION 3
Examine these statements and the result:
CREATE SEQUENCE customer_seq CACHE 10;
SELECT customer_seq. NEXTVAL FROM DUAL; NEXTVAL
Now examine this command:
ALTER SEQUENCE customer_soq ;
What must replace the missing clause for customer_seq? nfxtvai. to return 11?
A. cycle 11
B. NOCACHE
C. START WITH 11
D. MINVALUE 11
E. INCREMENT BY 10
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You need to produce a report where each customer\\’s credit limit has been incremented by $1000. In the output, the
customer\\’s last name should have the heading Name and the incremented credit limit should be labeled New Credit
Limit. The column headings should have only the first letter of each word in uppercase.
Which statement would accomplish this requirement?
A. SELECT cust_last_name AS “Name”, cust_credit_limit + 1000 AS “New Credit Limit” FROM customers;
B. SELECT cust_last_name AS Name, cust_credit_limit + 1000 AS New Credit Limit FROM customers;
C. SELECT cust_last_name AS Name, cust_credit_limit + 1000 “New Credit Limit” FROM customers;
D. SELECT INITCAP (cust_last_name) “Name”, cust_credit_limit + 1000 INITCAP (“NEW CREDIT LIMIT”) FROM
customers;
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Examine this statement:

1z0-071 exam questions-q5

On which two columns of the table will an index be created automatically?
A. STATUS
B. ORDER_ID
C. PRODUCT_ID
D. SERIAL_NO
E. ORDER_TOTAL
F. ORDER_DATE
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which three statements are true regarding single row subqueries?
A. They must return a row to prevent errors in the SQL statement.
B. They must be placed on the left side of the comparison operator or condition.
C. They can be used in the where clause.
D. A SQL statement may have multiple single row subquery blocks.
E. They must be placed on the right side of the comparison operator or condition.
F. They can be used in the having clause.
Correct Answer: CDF


QUESTION 7
Which three SQL statements would display the value 1890.55 as $1,890.55? (Choose three.)
A. SELECT TO_CHAR (1890.55, \\’$99G999D00\\’) FROM DUAL
B. SELECT TO_CHAR (1890.55, \\’$9,999V99\\’) FROM DUAL;
C. SELECT TO_CHAR (1890.55, \\’$0G000D00\\’) FROM DUAL;
D. SELECT TO_CHAR (1890.55, \\’$99,999D99\\’) FROM DUAL;
E. SELECT TO_CHAR (1890.55, \\’$99G999D99\\’) FROM DUAL
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 8
Examine the description of the ORDERS table:

1z0-071 exam questions-q8

Which three rows will it return? (Choose three.)
A. 5 01-MAR-2019
B. 3
C. 1
D. 4 01-FEB-2019
E. 2
F. 5
G. 3 01-JAN-2019
Correct Answer: AEG


QUESTION 9
Examine these statements which execute successfully:
ALTER SESSION SET NLS_DATE_FORMAT = \\’DD-MON-YYY HH24 :MT:SS;\\’ ALTER SESSION SET
TIME-ZONE = \\’-5:00;: Examine the result:

1z0-071 exam questions-q9

If LOCALTIMESTAMP was selected at the same time, what would it return?
A. 11-JUL-2019 6.00.00.00000000 AM
B. 11-JUL-2019 11.00.00.00000000 AM
C. 11-JUL_2019 6.00.00.00000000 AM -05:00
D. 11-JUL_2019 11.00.00.00000000 AM -05:00
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDER_ITEMS table.

1z0-071 exam questions-q10

You must select the ORDER_ID of the order that has the highest total value among all the orders in the ORDER_ITEMS
table.
Which query would produce the desired result?
A. SELECT order_id FROM order_items GROUP BY order_id HAVING SUM(unit_price*quantity) = (SELECT
MAX(SUM(unit_price*quantity)) FROM order_items GROUP BY order_id);
B. SELECT order_id FROM order_items WHERE(unit_price*quantity) = (SELECT MAX(unit_price*quantity) FROM
order_items) GROUP BY order_id;
C. SELECT order_id FROM order_items WHERE(unit_price*quantity) = MAX(unit_price*quantity) GROUP BY order_id;
D. SELECT order_id FROM order_items WHERE (unit_price*quantity) = (SELECT MAX(unit_price*quantity) FROM
order_items GROUP BY order_id)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You execute these commands:
CREATE TABLE customers (customer_id INTEGER, customer_name VARCHAR2 (20) ) TNSERT INTO
customers VALUES (1, \\’Customer 1 \\’ ) ; SAVEPOTNT post_insert;

INSERT INTO customers VALUES (2, \\’Customer 2\\’);
SELECT COUNT(*) FROM customers;
Which two used independently can replace so the query returns 1?
A. ROLLBACK TO SAVEPOINT post_insert;
B. ROLLBACK TO post_insert;
C. COMMIT TO SAVEPOINT post_insert;
D. commit;
E. ROLLBACK,”
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 12

Which two statements are true regarding constraints? (Choose two.)
A. All constraints can be defined at the column level and at the table level.
B. A constraint can be disabled even if the constraint column contains data.
C. A column with the UNIQUE constraint can contain NULLS.
D. A foreign key column cannot contain NULLS.
E. A constraint is enforced only for INSERT operations.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
Which two statements are true regarding multiple-row subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. They can contain group functions.
B. They always contain a subquery within a subquery.
C. They use the
D. They can be used to retrieve multiple rows from a single table only.
E. They should not be used with the NOT IN operator in the main query if NULL is likely to be a part of the result of the
subquery.
Correct Answer: AE

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Welcome to Oracle 1z0-808 practice test online

QUESTION 1
Given:

1z0-808 exam questions-q1

What is the result?
A. C2C2
B. C1C2
C. C1C1
D. Compilation fails
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Consider
Integer number = Integer.valueOff 808.1″);
Which is true about the above statement?
A. The value of the variable number will be 808.1
B. The value of the variable number will be 808
C. The value of the variable number will be 0.
D. A NumberFormatException will be throw.
E. It will not compile.
Correct Answer: D
The Integer class value of 0 returns an Integer from given string. But we need to pass string which has correct format for
integer otherwise it will throw a NumberFormatException. In this case we have passed string which is not an integer
value (since what we passed is fractional number), so option D is correct.


QUESTION 3
Given this code for the classes MyException and Test:

1z0-808 exam questions-q3

What is the result?
A. A
B. AB
C. A compile time error occurs at line n1.
D. B
E. I
Correct Answer: C

1z0-808 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
Given the fragments:

1z0-808 exam questions-q4

Which line causes a compilation error?
A. Line n1
B. Line n2
C. Line n3
D. Line n4
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Given the code fragments:

1z0-808 exam questions-q5

Which statement is true?
A. After line 11, three objects are eligible for garbage collection.
B. After line 11, two objects are eligible for garbage collection.
C. After line 11, one object is eligible for garbage collection.
D. After line 11, none of the objects are eligible for garbage collection.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Given the following code for a Planet object:

1z0-808 exam questions-q6

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Given the code fragments:

1z0-808 exam questions-q7

What is the result?
A. Super Sub Sub
B. Contract Contract Super
C. Compilation fails at line n1
D. Compilation fails at line n2
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Given the code fragment:

1z0-808 exam questions-q8

Which modification enables the code fragment to print TrueDone?
A. Replace line 5 With String result = “true”; Replace line 7 with case “true”:
B. Replace line 5 with boolean opt = l; Replace line 7 with case 1=
C. At line 9, remove the break statement.
D. Remove the default section.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Given:

1z0-808 exam questions-q9

What is the result?
A. 3 4 5 6
B. 3 4 3 6
C. 5 4 5 6
D. 3 6 4 6
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
Given the code fragment:

1z0-808 exam questions-q10

Which code fragment, inserted at line n1, prints The Top element: 30?

1z0-808 exam questions-q10-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Given the code fragment:

1z0-808 exam questions-q11

What is the result?
A. 3
B. 4
C. -1
D. Compilation fails.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Given:
public class Marklist {
int num;
public static void graceMarks(Marklist obj4) {
obj4.num += 10;
}
public static void main(String[] args) {
MarkList obj1 = new MarkList();
MarkList obj2 = obj1;
MarkList obj1 = null;
obj2.num = 60;
graceMarks(obj2);
}
}
How many objects are created in the memory runtime?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: obj1 and obj3.
when you do e2 = e1 you\\’re copying object references – you\\’re not making a copy of the object – and so the variables
e1 and e2 will both point to the same object.

QUESTION 13
Given:

1z0-808 exam questions-q13

What is the result?
A. 2 4 6 8
B. 2 4 6 8 9
C. 1 3 5 7
D. 1 3 5 7 9
Correct Answer: D

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Welcome to Oracle 1Z0-148 practice test online

QUESTION 1
The result cache is enabled for the database instance.
Examine the following code for a PL/SQL function:
CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION get_hire_date (emp_id NUMBER) RETURN VARCHAR
RESULT_CACHE RELIES_ON (HR.EMPLOYEES)
IS
date_hired DATE;
BEGIN
SELECT hire_date INTO date_hired
FROM HR.EMPLOYEES
WHERE EMPLOYEE_ID = emp_id;
RETURN TO_CHAR(date_hired);
END;
You notice that results for the functions are not used effectively. What do you recommend for better utilization of the
result cache? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Set the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter to FORCE.
B. Increase the value for the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_SIZE parameter.
C. Add a format mask parameter, such as RETURN TO_CHAR(date_hired, fmt) to GET_HIRE_DATE.
D. Change the return type of GET_HIRE_DATE to DATE and have each session invoke the TO_CHAR function.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
The database instance was recently started up. Examine the following parameter settings for the database instance:
NAME TYPE VALUE
………
result_cache_max_result integer 5
result_cache_max_size big integer 0
result_cache_mode string MANUAL
result_cache_remote_expiration integer 0
………
You reset the value for the result_cache_max_size parameter by issuing the following command:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET result_cache_max_size = 1056k SCOPE = BOTH;
System altered.
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. 1056 KB is allocated for the result cache and the result cache is enabled.
B. 1056 KB is allocated for the result cache, but the result cache is disabled.
C. The results for only the queries that have the RESULT_CACHE hint are cached.
D. The results for all the queries except those having the NO_RESULT_CACHE hint are cached.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
View the Exhibit and examine the code in the PL/SQL block.
The PL/SQL block generates an error on execution. What is the reason?

1z0-148 exam questions-q3

A. The DELETE(n) method cannot be used with varrays.
B. The DELETE(n) method cannot be used with nested tables.
C. The NEXT method cannot be used with an associative array with VARCHAR2 key values.
D. The NEXT method cannot be used with a nested table from which an element has been deleted.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which statement describes the purpose of the plshprof command?
A. It produces HTML output from raw profiler output.
B. It produces HTML output from profiler tables in the database.
C. It populates profiler tables in the database from raw profiler output.
D. It produces raw profiler output on the most recently run applications.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Identify two factors that you consider for compiling a PL/SQL program unit for interpreted mode. (Choose two.)
A. a PL/SQL program which needs to be recompiled frequently
B. a PL/SQL program that spends most of the time executing SQL
C. a PL/SQL program, which performs computation-intensive procedural operations and is recompiled rarely
D. a PL/SQL program, which is called frequently with the same parameter values by multiple sessions and is recompiled
rarely
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 6
Examine the structure of the DEPARTMENTS table. Name Null? Type
DEPARTMENT_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(4)
DEPARTMENT_NAME NOT NULL VARCHAR2(30)
LOCATION_ID NUMBER(4)
View the Exhibit and examine the code that you plan to use for creating a package to obtain the details of an employee
using a host variable on the client side.
In SQL*Plus, you plan to use the following commands:
SQL> VARIABLE x REFCURSOR
SQL> EXECUTE emp_data.get_emp(195,:x)
SQL> PRINT x
Which statement is true about the above scenario?

1z0-148 exam questions-q6

A. The package executes successfully and passes the required data to the host variable.
B. The package specification gives an error on compilation because cursor variable types cannot be defined in the
specification.
C. The package specification gives an error on compilation because the cursor variable parameter was specified before
you defined it.
D. The package executes successfully, but does not pass the required data to the host variable because the cursor is
closed before the PRINT statement runs.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
This result cache is enabled for the database instance. Examine this code for a PL/SQL function:

1z0-148 exam questions-q7

Which two actions would ensure that the same result will be consistently returned for any session when the same input
value is passed to the function?
A. Add a parameter, fmt, and change the RETURN statement to: RETURN TO_CHAR (date_hired, fmt);
B. Set the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter to FORCE.
C. Increase the value for the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_SIZE parameter.
D. Change the return type of GET_HIRE_DATE to DATE and have each session invoke the TO_CHAR function.
E. Set the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_RESULT parameter to 0.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
View the Exhibit and examine the settings for the PLSQL_CODE_TYPE parameter.
After sometime, the user recompiles the procedure DISPLAY_SAL_INFO by issuing the following command:
SQL> ALTER PROCEDURE display_sal_info COMPILE;
Which statement would be true in this scenario?

1z0-148 exam questions-q8

A. The procedure would be invalidated.
B. The procedure would remain as NATIVE code type.
C. The procedure would be changed to INTERPRETED code type.
D. The command would produce an error and the procedure must be compiled using the PLSQL_CODE_TYPE attribute
with value INTERPRETED.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Examine these statements:

1z0-148 exam questions-q9

Which two corrections will allow this anonymous block to execute successfully?
A. Add wk# .NEXT; before the 7thline.
B. Add i PLS_INTEGER; before the 3rdline.
C. Add wk#. EXTEND (1); before the 5thline.
D. Change line #2 to wk# tp_test# := tp_test# (tp_rec# ());
E. Replace lines 5 and 6 with wk# (i) := tp_rec# (i, i);
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 10
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table that exists in your schema. Name Null? Type
EMPLOYEE_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(6)
FIRST_NAME VARCHAR2(20)
LAST_NAME NOT NULL VARCHAR2(25)
JOB_ID NOT NULL VARCHAR2(10)
SALARY NUMBER(8,2)
COMMISSION_PCT NUMBER(2,2)
DEPARTMENT_ID NUMBER(4)
You successfully create a GET_MAX procedure to find the maximum salary in the department of a specified employee.
You then code a PL/SQL block to display the maximum salary in the departments of the first five employees in the
EMPLOYEES table.
View the Exhibit. Examine the procedure and the block of PL/SQL code.
What is the outcome of executing the block of PL/SQL code?

1z0-148 exam questions-q10

A. It executes successfully and gives the required output.
B. It gives an error because ROWNUM cannot be used in cursor definitions.
C. It gives an error because usage of the %ROWCOUNT attribute is not valid.
D. It executes successfully, but does not give the required output because the procedure call resets the %ROWCOUNT
value.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Identify three guidelines for the DBMS_ASSERT package. (Choose three.)
A. Prefix all calls to DBMS_ASSERT with the SYS schema name.
B. Embed DBMS_ASSERT verification routines inside the injectable string.
C. Escape single quotes when you use the ENQUOTE_LITERAL procedure.
D. Define and raise exceptions explicitly to handle DBMS_ASSERT exceptions.
E. Prefix all calls to DBMS_ASSERT with a schema name that owns the subprogram that uses the DBMS_ASSERT
package.
Correct Answer: ACD


QUESTION 12
Examine this code:
CREATE PROCEDURE list_products_dynamic(p_product_name VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL) AS
TYPE cv_pordtyp IS REF CUSRSOR;
cv cv_prodtyp;
v_prodname prod_info.name%TYPE;
v_listprice prod_info.price%TYPE;BEGIN
OPEN cv FOR \\’SELECT name, price FROM prod_info WHERE name LIKE “%\\’ ||p_product_name || \\’%\\'”;
LOOP
FETCH cv INFO v_prodname, v_listprice;
EXIT WHEN cv%NOTFOUND;
DBMS_OUTPU.PUT_LINE (\\’Product Info:\\’||v_prodname||\\’,\\’||v_listprice);
END LOOP;
CLOSE cv; END
Which two are valid correlations to the code to avoid or mitigate SQL Injection?
A. CREATE PROCEDURE list_products_dynamic (p_product_name VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL) AS TYPE
cv_pordtyp IS REF CURSOR; cv cv_prodtyp; v_prodname prod_info.name%TYPE; v_listprice prod_info.price%TYPE;
v_bind VARCHAR2 (400); BEGIN v_bind := ‘%’ | | p_product_name | | ‘%’; OPEN cv FOR ‘SELECT name, price
FROM prod_info WHERE name LIKE :b’ USING v_bind; LOOP FETCH cv INTO v_prodname, v_listprice; EXIT WHEN
cv%NOTFOUND; DBMS_OUTPU.PUT_LINE (‘Product Info: ‘ | | v_prodname | | ‘,’ | | v_listprice); END LOOP; CLOSE
cv; END;
B. CREATE PROCEDURE list_products_dynamic (p_product_name VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL) AS v_bind
VARCHAR2 (400); BEGIN v_bind := ‘%’ | | p_prodname | | ‘%’; FOR rec IN (‘SELECT name, price FROM prod_info
WHERE name like ‘ | | v_bind) LOOP DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE (‘Product Info: ’ | | rec.name | | ‘,’ | | rec.price);
END LOOP; END;
C. CREATE PROCEDURE list_products_dynamic (p_product_name VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL) AS TYPE
cv_pordtyp IS REF CURSOR; cv cv_prodtyp; v_prodname prod_info.name%TYPE; v_listprice prod_info.price%TYPE;
v_bind VARCHAR2 (400); BEGIN v_bind := ’’’%’ | | p_product_name | | ‘%’’’; OPEN cv FOR ‘SELECT name, price
FROM prod_info WHERE name LIKE ’ | | v_bind; LOOP FETCH cv INTO v_prodname, v_listprice; EXIT WHEN
cv%NOTFOUND; DBMS_OUTPU.PUT_LINE (‘Product Info: ‘ | | v_prodname | | ‘,’ | | v_listprice); END LOOP; CLOSE
cv; END;
D. CREATE PROCEDURE list_products_dynamic (p_product_name VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL) AS TYPE
cv_pordtyp IS REF CURSOR; cv cv_prodtyp; v_prodname prod_info.name%TYPE; v_listprice prod_info.price%TYPE;
v_bind VARCHAR2 (400); BEGIN v_bind := ‘%’ | | p_product_name | | ‘%’; OPEN cv FOR ‘SELECT name, price
FROM prod_info WHERE name LIKE ’ | | v_bind; LOOP FETCH cv INTO v_prodname, v_listprice; EXIT WHEN
cv%NOTFOUND; DBMS_OUTPU.PUT_LINE (‘Product Info: ‘ | | v_prodname | | ‘,’ | | v_listprice); END LOOP; CLOSE
cv; END;
E. CREATE PROCEDURE list_products_dynamic (p_product_name VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL) AS TYPE
cv_pordtyp IS REF CURSOR; cv cv_prodtyp; v_prodname prod_info.name%TYPE;
v_listprice prod_info.price%TYPE;
v_bind VARCHAR2 (400);
BEGIN
v_bind := DBMS_ASSERT.ENQUOTE_LITERAL (‘%’ | | p_product_name | | ‘%’);
OPEN cv FOR ‘SELECT name, price FROM prod_info WHERE name LIKE ’ | | v_bind;
LOOP
FETCH cv INTO v_prodname, v_listprice;
EXIT WHEN cv%NOTFOUND;
DBMS_OUTPU.PUT_LINE (‘Product Info: ‘ | | v_prodname | | ‘,’ | | v_listprice);
END LOOP;
CLOSE cv;
END;
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
Which two statements are true about the query results stored in the query result cache? (Choose two.)
A. If any of the tables used to build a query is modified by an ongoing transaction in the current session, the query result
is not cached.
B. A query result based on a read-consistent snapshot of data that is older than the latest committed version of the data
is not cached.
C. Adding the RESULT_CACHE hint to inline views enables optimizations between the outer query and the inline view,
and the query result is cached.
D. A query result for a query that has a bind variable is stored in the cache and is reused if the query is equivalent even
when the bind variable has a different value.
Correct Answer: AB

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Welcome to Oracle 1Z0-144 practice test online

QUESTION 1
Examine the following snippet of PL/SQL code:

1z0-144 exam questions-q1

Identify OPEN statements for opening the cursor that fetches the result set consisting of employees with JOB_ID as
`ST_CLERK\\’ and SALARY greater than 3000. (Choose three.)
A. OPEN c1 (NULL, 3000);
B. OPEN c1 (emp_job, 3000);
C. OPEN c1 (3000, emp_salary);
D. OPEN c1 (`ST_CLERK\\’, 3000)
E. OPEN c1 (emp_job, emp_salary);
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 2
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the SALGRADE table.

1z0-144 exam questions-q2

What is the outcome?
A. It is created successfully.
B. It gives an error because the return clause condition is invalid.
C. It gives an error because the usage of the host variables is invalid.
D. It gives an error because the data type of the return clause is invalid.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
ORDER_TOTAL is a column in the ORDERS table with the data type and size as NUMBER (8, 2). Examine the
following code:

1z0-144 exam questions-q3

Which statement is correct about the above code?
A. It gives an error in line 3.
B. It gives an error in line 4.
C. It gives an error in line 6.
D. It executes successfully and displays the output.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about triggers? (Choose two.)
A. All the triggers that are created on a table cannot be disabled simultaneously.
B. Any user who has the alter privilege on a table can create a trigger using that table.
C. Oracle provides a two-phase commit process whether a trigger updates tables in the local database or remote tables
in a distributed database.
D. Triggers become invalid if a dependent object, such as 3 stored subprogram that is invoked from the trigger body is
modified, and have to be manually recompiled before the next invocation.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which statements are true about PL/SQL procedures? (Choose two.)
A. Users with definer\\’s rights who are granted access to a procedure that updates a table must be granted access to
the table itself.
B. Reuse of parsed PL/SQL code that becomes available in the shared SQL area of the server avoids the parsing
overhead of SQL statements at run time.
C. Depending on the number of calls, multiple copies of the procedure are loaded into memory for execution by multiple
users to speed up performance.
D. A PL/SQL procedure executing on the Oracle database can call an external procedure or function that is written in a
different programming language, such as C or Java.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 6
Examine the following code: Which statement is true about the execution of the above code?

1z0-144 exam questions-q6

A. It executes and displays null.
B. It executes and the condition returns true.
C. It executes and control goes to the else statement.
D. It fails because no value is assigned to the v_myage variable.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Examine the following PL/SQL code:

1z0-144 exam questions-q7

The serveroutput is on for the session. Which statement is true about the execution of the code?
A. It displays NULL if no employee with employee_id 123 exists.
B. It produces the ORA-01403: no data found error if no employee with employee_id 123 exists.
C. It displays an error because the SELECT * INTO clause cannot be used to populate the PL/SQL record type.
D. The code executes successfully even if no employee with employee_id 123 exists and displays Record Not Found.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
View Exhibit 1 and examine the structure of the EMP and DEPT tables.

1z0-144 exam questions-q8

View Exhibit 2 and examine the trigger code that is defined on the DEPT table to enforce the UPDATE and DELETE
RESTRICT referential actions on the primary key of the DEPT table.

1z0-144 exam questions-q8-2

What is the outcome on compilation?
A. It compiles and executes successfully.
B. It gives an error on compilation because it is not a row-level trigger.
C. It gives an error on compilation because the EXCEPTION section is used in the trigger.
D. It compiles successfully but gives an error on execution because it is not a row-level trigger.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is the correct definition of the persistent state of a packaged variable?
A. It is a private variable defined in a procedure or function within a package body whose value is consistent within a
user session.
B. It is a public variable in a package specification whose value is consistent within a user session.
C. It is a private variable in a package body whose value is consistent across all current active sessions.
D. It is a public variable in a package specification whose value is always consistent across all current active sessions.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
View the Exhibit to examine the PL/SQL code.

1z0-144 exam questions-q10

SERVEROUTPUT is on for the session.
Which statement is true about the execution of the code?
A. The execution fails because of the misplaced else clause.
B. The execution is successful even if there is no employee with EMPLOYEE_ID 115.
C. The execution fails and throws exceptions if no employee with EMPLOYEE_ID 115 is found.
D. The execution is successful, but it displays an incorrect output if no employee with EMPLOYEE_ID 115 is found.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
Examine the following package specification.
SQL>CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE emp_pkf IS PROCEDURE search_emp (empdet NUMBER); PROCEDURE
search_emp (empdet DATE); PROCEDURE search_emp (empdet NUMBER); RETURN VERCHAR2 PROCEDURE
search_emp (empdet NUMBER); RETURN DATE END emp_pkg /
The package is compiled successfully
Why would it generate an error at run tune?
A. Because function cannot be overload.
B. Because function cannot differ only in return type.
C. Because all the functions and procedures in the package cannot have the same number of parameters with the same
parameter name.
D. Because the search EMP (EMPDET NUMBER) procedure and the SEARCH_DEPT (EMPDET NUMBER) cannot
have identical parameter names and data types.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
View Exhibit 1 and examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table.

1z0-144 exam questions-q12

User SCOTT needs to generate a text report that contains the names of all employees and their salaries.
Examine the following commands issued by the DBA:
SQL>CREATE DIRECTORY my_dir AS \\’/temp/my_files\\’;
SQL>GRANT WRITE ON DIRECTORY my_dir TO scott;
View Exhibit 2 and examine the procedure code.

1z0-144 exam questions-q12-2

You issue the following command:
SQL>EXEC sal_status (\\’MY_DIR\\’, `EMPREPORT.TXT\\’)
What is the outcome?
A. It executes successfully and creates the report.
B. It gives an error because the text file should be opened in append mode.
C. It gives an error because the “no data found” condition is not handled to come out of the loop.
D. It gives an error because user SCOTT should be granted both read and write privileges to the directory alias.
E. It executes but no data is written to the text file because the FFLUSH subprogram is not used to write all the data
buffered in memory to a file.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You execute the following block of code: Which statement is true about the outcome?

1z0-144 exam questions-q13

A. Both output statements show different values.
B. Both output statements show exactly the same values.
C. It gives an error because the nested blocks are not labeled.
D. It gives an error because the V_CUSTOMER variable cannot have different types in the nested blocks.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
You are managing this configuration:
1.
CDB1 is a container database.
2.
PDB1 and PDB2 are two pluggable databases in CDB1.
3.
USER1.EMP is a table in PDB1 and USER2.DEPT is a table in PDB2. CDB1 user SYS executes these commands
after connecting successfully to PDB2:

1z0-083 exam questions-q1

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. The inserts on USER1.EMP remain uncommitted when the session connected to PDB2.
B. The inserts on USER1.EMP were committed when the session inserted a row into USER2.DEPT.
C. The insert on USER2.DEPT fails because of the active transaction in the parent container.
D. The insert on USER2.DEPT is a recursive autonomous transaction by the child session and is committed.
E. The inserts on USER1.EMP were rolled back when the session connected to PDB2.
F. The insert on USER2.DEPT is uncommitted.
G. The inserts on USER1.EMP were committed when the session connected to PDB2.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Which three are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose three.)
A. By default, AWR snapshots are taken every 60 minutes.
B. Its collection level is determined by the value of the STATISTICS_LEVEL database parameter.
C. By default, AWR snapshots are retained for 7 days.
D. The taking of AWR snapshots can be disabled.
E. AWR data is stored in the SYSTEM tablespace.
Correct Answer: ABD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28320/initparams240.htm#REFRN10214

QUESTION 3
Which two are true about Oracle Optimizer Statistics, their use, and their collection? (Choose two.)
A. The number of table rows is considered when evaluating the cost of accessing a table using an index.
B. Index balanced B*Tree height is considered when evaluating the cost of using an index.
C. The Statistics Advisor can help recommend the best way to gather statistics.
D. Statistics collected using DBMS_STATS always yield the best optimizer result.
E. The Statistics Advisor generates actions for all recommendations.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/tgsql/optimizer-statistics-advisor.html#GUIDD81A7708-FDA0-45BB-A6E2-103858B047AE

QUESTION 4
Examine this configuration:
1.
CDB1 is an Oracle Database 12c Release 2 database containing pluggable databases PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2.
2.
PDB$SEED is open READ ONLY
3.
PDB1 is open READ WRITE
4.
PDB2 is MOUNTED.
5.
ORACLE_HOME is /u01/app/oracle/product/18.1.0/dbhome_1.
You execute these commands before upgrading the database to the current release:

1z0-083 exam questions-q4

For which databases will fixup scripts be created?
A. CDB1, PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2
B. PDB$SEED, PDB1, and PDB2 only
C. CDB1 and PDB$SEED only
D. CDB1, PDB1, and PDB2 only
E. CDB1, PDB$SEED, and PDB1 only
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 5
Which two are true about server-generated alerts? (Choose two.)
A. Stateful alerts must be created by a DBA after resolving the problem.
B. Stateless alerts can be purged manually from the alert history.
C. Stateless alerts can be cleared manually.
D. Stateless alerts are automatically cleared.
E. Stateful alerts are purged automatically from the alert history.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://jameshuangsj.wordpress.com/2019/12/01/clears-stateless-alerts-in-oem-by-using-emcli/

QUESTION 6
Examine this configuration:
1.
CDB1 is a container database.
2.
PDB1 and PDB2 are pluggable databases in CDB1.
3.
PDB1 and PDB2 are OPEN in READ WRITE mode.
You execute these commands successfully:

1z0-083 exam questions-q6

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. Uncommitted transactions in PDB1 have been rolled back.
B. PDB1 is closed.
C. Uncommitted transactions in CDB1 and PDB1 have been rolled back.
D. CDB1 is shut down.
E. CDB1 is in MOUNT state
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Which three can be done using Oracle Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) starting from Oracle Database 19c?
(Choose three.)
A. cloning a remote container database in interactive mode
B. cloning a remote pluggable database in silent mode
C. relocating a remote pluggable database in interactive mode
D. relocating a remote container database in silent mode
E. cloning a remote container database in silent mode
F. relocating a remote pluggable database in silent mode
G. relocating a remote container database in interactive mode
Correct Answer: CEF
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/clone-pdbs-using-dbca-silent-mode/index.html?learningpath=trueandappuser=nobodyandappsession=170971049395andcontentid=26693andactivityname=Clone%
20PDBs% 20using%20DBCA%20in%20Silent%20Modeandeventid=6352

QUESTION 8
Which two are true about RMAN backups when using a media manager to write backups to tape when there are only
two tape drives? (Choose two.)
A. SBT tape compression can be used even if no RMAN compression is configured.
B. Any backup set written to the SBT device in this configuration can contain a maximum of two backup pieces.
C. Any backup written to the SBT device in this configuration can contain a maximum of two backup sets.
D. SBT tape compression and RMAN backup compression should be used in parallel.
E. The SBT device should be configured to use PARALLELISM 2 to allow both tape drive to be used simultaneously.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 9
Which two are true about the Oracle dataabse methodology? (Choose two.)
A. The Oracle Database time model should be used to find the database and instance areas most in need of tuning.
B. Tuning activities should stop once the user is satisfied with performance.
C. Tuning activities should stop once agreed service levels for performance have been met.
D. The database instance memory should always be tuned before tuning any file systems.
E. SQL statements should always be tuned before tuning any file systems.
F. The alert log should be used to find the database and instance areas most in need of tuning.
Correct Answer: CF
Reference: https://flylib.com/books/en/4.322.1.9/1/

QUESTION 10
You must transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace from one database to another.
The UNIVERSITY tablespace is currently open read/write.
The source and destination platforms have different endian formats.
Examine this list of actions:
1.
Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read-only on the source system.
2.
Export the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using EXPDP.
3.
Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data fies to the destination platform format using RMAN on the source system.
4.
Copy the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination system.
5.
Copy the Data Pump dump set to the destination system.
6.
Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination platform format using RMAN on the destination
system.
7.
Import the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using IMPDP.
8.
Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read/write on the destination system.
Which is the minimum number of actions required, in the correct order, to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace?
A. 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8
B. 1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 8
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
E. 2, 4, 5, 6, 7
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Examine the command for creating pluggable database PDB2 in container database CDB2.

1z0-083 exam questions-q11

Select three options, any one of which is required for it to execute successfully. (Choose three.)
A. Add the FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause to the statement and set the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter.
B. Add only the CREATE_FILE_DEST clause to the statement.
C. Set only the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter.
D. Set the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT parameter and enable OMF.
E. Enable only OMF.
F. Add the FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause to the statement and enable Oracle Managed Files (OMF)
Correct Answer: BDE


QUESTION 12
A user complains about poor database performance.
You want to verify if the user\\’s session has waited for certain types of I/O activity.
Which view displays all waits waited on by a session at least once?
A. V$SESSION_EVENT
B. V$SESSTAT
C. V$SESSION_WAIT
D. V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS
E. V$SESSION
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E29597_01/server.1111/e16638/instance_tune.htm

QUESTION 13
Examine this configuration:
1.
CDB1 is a container database.
2.
COMMON_USER_PREFIX is C##.
3.
PDB1 is a pluggable database contained in CDB1.
4.
APP1_ROOT is an application container contained in CDB1.
5.
APP1_PDB1 is an application PDB contained in APP1_ROOT.
You execute these commands successfully:

1z0-083 exam questions-q13

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. APP1_USER1 can be created in PDB1.
B. APP1_USER1 can be created in CDB1.
C. APP1_USER1 can have different privileges in each Application PDB contained in APP1_ROOT.
D. C##_APP_USER1 can be created in CDB1.
E. P1_USER1 can be created in CDB1.
F. C##_USER1 will have the same privileges and roles granted in all PDBs in CDB1.
Correct Answer: CF

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QUESTION 1
How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions?
A. It enables HSRP to elect another switch in the group as the active HSRP switch.
B. It ensures fast failover in the case of link failure.
C. It enables data forwarding along known routes following a switchover, white the routing protocol reconverges.
D. It enables HSRP to failover to the standby RP on the same device.
Correct Answer: D

350-401 exam questions-q1

QUESTION 2
What is the role of the RP in PIM sparse mode?
A. The RP responds to the PIM join messes with the source of requested multicast group
B. The RP maintains default aging timeouts for all multicast streams requested by the receivers.
C. The RP acts as a control-plane node and does not receive or forward multicast packets.
D. The RP is the multicast that is the root of the PIM-SM shared multicast distribution tree.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

350-401 exam questions-q3

The WLC administrator sees that the controller to which a roaming client associates has Mobility Role Anchor
configured under Clients > Detail. Which type of roaming is supported?
A. Indirect
B. Layer 3 intercontroller
C. Layer 2 intercontroller
D. Intercontroller
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which LISP device is responsible for publishing EID-to-RLOC mappings for a site?
A. ETR
B. MS
C. ITR
D. MR
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/locator-id-separation-protocollisp/white_paper_c11-652502.html


QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of an RP in PIM?
A. send join messages toward a multicast source SPT
B. ensure the shortest path from the multicast source to the receiver.
C. receive IGMP joins from multicast receivers.
D. secure the communication channel between the multicast sender and receiver.
Correct Answer: D

350-401 exam questions-q5

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

350-401 exam questions-q6

A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR
election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0.
Which configuration set accomplishes this goal?
A. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point
B. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast
C. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out
D. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf priority 1
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf priority 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to this output. What is the logging severity level?
R1#Feb 14 37:15:12:429: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN Line protocol on interface GigabitEthernet0/1. Change state to
up
A. Notification
B. Alert
C. Critical
D. Emergency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
When a wired client connects to an edge switch in an SDA fabric, which component decides whether the client has
access to the network?
A. control-plane node
B. Identity Service Engine
C. RADIUS server
D. edge node
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
Which access controls list allows only TCP traffic with a destination port range of 22-433, excluding port 80?
A. Deny tcp any any eq 80 Permit tco any any gt 21 it 444
B. Permit tcp any any ne 80
C. Permit tco any any range 22 443 Deny tcp any any eq 80
D. Deny tcp any any ne 80 Permit tcp any any range 22 443
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What are two benefit of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in data center environment? (Choose two.)
A. Increased security
B. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements
C. reduced IP and MAC address requirements
D. speedy deployment
E. smaller Layer 2 domain
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two.)
A. core switch
B. vBond controller
C. edge node
D. access switch
E. border node
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion?
A. It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate.
B. It buffers and queue packets above the committed rate.
C. It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery.
D. It drops packets randomly from lower priority queues.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/quality-of-service-qos/qos-policing/19645-policevsshape.html


QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.
Select and Place:

350-401 exam questions-q13

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1072 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1072 exam

QUESTION 1
Your application consists of three Oracle Cloud Infrastructure compute instances running behind a public load balancer.
You have configured the load balancer to perform health checks on these instances, but one of the three instances fails
to pass the configured health check. Which of the following action will the load balancer perform?
A. Stop sending traffic to the instance that failed health check
B. B. Terminate the instance that failed health check
C. C. Stop the instances that failed health check
D. D. Remove the instance that failed the health check from the backend set
Correct Answer: A
health check A test to confirm the availability of backend servers. A health check can be a request or a connection
attempt. Based on a time interval you specify, the load balancer applies the health check policy to continuously monitor
backend servers. If a server fails the health check, the load balancer takes the server temporarily out of rotation. If the
server subsequently passes the health check, the load balancer returns it to the rotation.
You configure your health check policy when you create a backend set. You can configure TCP-level or HTTP-level
health checks for your backend servers.

TCP-level health checks attempt to make a TCP connection with the backend servers and validate the response based
on the connection status.

HTTP-level health checks send requests to the backend servers at a specific URI and validate the response based on
the status code or entity data (body) returned. The service provides application-specific health check capabilities to help
you increase availability and reduce your application maintenance window.


QUESTION 2
You have a working application in the US East region. The app is a 3-tier app with a database backend – you take
regular backups of the database into OCI Object Storage in the US East region. For Business continuity; you are
leveraging OCI Object Storage cross-region copy feature to copy database backups to the US West region. Which of
the following three steps do you need to execute to meet your requirement?
A. Write an IAM policy and authorize the Object Storage service to manage objects on your behalf
B. Specify an existing destination bucket
C. Specify the bucket visibility for both the source and destination buckets
D. D. Provide a destination object name
E. E. Provide an option to choose bulk copying of objects
F. F. Choose an overwrite rule
Correct Answer: ABF
You can copy objects to other buckets in the same region and to buckets in other regions.
You must have the required access to both the source and destination buckets when performing an object copy. You
must also have permissions to manage objects in the source and destination buckets.
Because Object Storage is a regional service, you must authorize the Object Storage service for each region carrying
out copy operations on your behalf. For example, you might authorize the Object Storage service in region US East
(Ashburn) to manage objects on your behalf. Once you authorize the Object Storage service, you can copy an object
stored in a US East (Ashburn) bucket to a bucket in another region.
You can use overwrite rules to control the copying of objects based on their entity tag (ETag) values.
Specify an existing target bucket for the copy request. The copy operation does not automatically create buckets.

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage Service? (Choose two.)
A. It provides higher IOPS than Block Storage.
B. It can be directly attached or detached from a compute instance.
C. Data is stored redundantly only in a single AD.
D. Data is stored redundantly across multiple availability domains (ADs).
E. It provides strong consistency.
Correct Answer: DE
STRONG CONSISTENCYWhen a read request is made, Object Storage always serves the most recent copy of the
data that was written to the system.DURABILITYObject Storage is a regional service. Data is stored redundantly across
multiple storage servers. Object Storage actively monitors data integrity using checksums and automatically detects and
repairs corrupt data. Object Storage actively monitors and ensures data redundancy. If a redundancy loss is detected,
Object Storage automatically creates more data copies. For more details about Object Storage durability, see the Oracle
Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage FAQ.CUSTOM METADATAYou can define your own extensive metadata as key-value pairs for any purpose. For example, you can create descriptive tags for objects, retrieve those tags, and sort
through the data. You can assign custom metadata to objects and buckets using the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI or
SDK. See Software Development Kits and Command Line Interface for details.ENCRYPTIONObject Storage employs
256-bit Advanced Encryption Standard (AES-256) to encrypt object data on the server. Each object is encrypted with its
own key. Data encryption keys are encrypted with a master encryption key that is frequently rotated. Encryption is
enabled by default and cannot be turned off.

QUESTION 4
A customer wants to do development on-premise while leveraging services such as Java Cloud, Mobile Developer
Cloud, and App Builder Services. The customer would also like to scale out the application, stretching from on-premises
to the cloud by using a common API.
Which two Infrastructure options can the customer leverage to do this? (Choose two.)
A. Oracle Cloud at Customer
B. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Classic
C. Oracle Cloud Ravello service
D. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which option lists Virtual Cloud Networks (VCNs) that can be peered?
A. VCN A (172.16.0.0/24) and VCN B (172.16.0.0/28)
B. VCN A (10.0.0.0/16) and VCN B (10.1.0.0/16)
C. VCN A (10.0.2.0/16) and VCN B (10.0.2.0/25)
D. VCN A (10.0.0.0/16) and VCN B (10.0.16.0/24)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are about to upload log file (5 TiB size) to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure object storage and have decided to use
multipart upload capability for a more efficient and resilient upload. Which two statements are true about multipart
upload? (Choose two.)
A. Individual object parts can be as small as 10 MiB or as large as 50 GiB
B. While a multipart upload is still active, you cannot add parts even if the total number of parts is less than 10,000
C. The maximum size for an uploaded object is 10 TiB
D. You do not have to commit the upload after you have uploaded all the object parts
Correct Answer: AC
With multipart upload, you split the object you want to upload into individual parts. Individual parts can be as large as 50
GiB or as small as 10 MiB. (Object Storage waives the minimum part size restriction for the last uploaded part.) Decide
what part number you want to use for each part. Part numbers can range from 1 to 10,000. You do not need to assign
contiguous numbers, but Object Storage constructs the object by ordering part numbers in ascending order.
The maximum size for an uploaded object is 10 TiB
While a multipart upload is still active, you can keep adding parts as long as the total number is less than 10,000.

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about encryption on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)? (Choose two.)
A. By default, object storage and block storage are encrypted at rest.
B. A customer is responsible for data encryption in all services of OCI.
C. By default, DB Systems offers an encrypted database.
D. By default, NVMe drives are encrypted but the block volume service is not.
Correct Answer: AC
References: https://cloud.oracle.com/storage/object-storage/features


QUESTION 8
You have an instance running in a development compartment that needs to make API calls against other OCI services,
but you do not want to configure user credentials or store a configuration file on the instance. How can you meet this
requirement?
A. Create a dynamic group with matching rules to include your instance
B. B. Instances can automatically make calls to other OCI services
C. C. Instances are secure and cannot make calls to other OCI services
D. D. Create a dynamic group with matching rules to include your instance and write a policy for this dynamic group
Correct Answer: D
Dynamic groups allow you to group Oracle Cloud Infrastructure computer instances as “principal” actors (similar to user
groups).
When you create a dynamic group, rather than adding members explicitly to the group, you instead define a set of
matching rules to define the group members. For example, a rule could specify that all instances in a particular
compartment are members of the dynamic group. The members can change dynamically as instances are launched and
terminated in that compartment.
A dynamic group has no permissions until you write at least one policy that gives that dynamic group permission to
either the tenancy or a compartment. When writing the policy, you can specify the dynamic group by using either the
unique name or the dynamic group\\’s OCID. Per the preceding note, even if you specify the dynamic group name in the
policy, IAM internally uses the OCID to determine the dynamic group.

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1072-20 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1072-20 exam

QUESTION 1
Which service is NOT supported by Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI?
A. load balancer
B. compute
C. database
D. block volumes
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/API/Concepts/cliconcepts.htm#services


QUESTION 2
Why are two subnets required to create a public load balancer when additional subnets are often used for back-end
servers? (Choose two.)
A. Routing is simpler when the load balancer is not in the same subnet as the back-end server.
B. Performance is higher when more subnets are used.
C. Additional subnets for back-end servers allow for separate route tables for these servers.
D. Additional subnets for back-end servers allow for separate security lists for these servers.
Correct Answer: BD
References:
http://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/obe/cloud/ocis/load-balancer/load-balancer.html


QUESTION 3
Which two choices are true for Autonomous Data Warehouse (ADW)? (Choose two.)
A. Billing stops only when the ADW is terminated
B. Billing stops for both CPU usage and storage usage when ADW is stopped
C. Billing for computing stops when ADW is stopped
D. Billing for storage continues when ADW is stopped
Correct Answer: CD
When Autonomous Database instance is stopped, CPU billing is halted based on full-hour cycles of usage Billing for storage continues as long as the service instance
exists. and When the Autonomous Database instance is started, the CPU billing is initiated

QUESTION 4
You have the following compartment structure in your tenancy. Root compartment->Training- >Training-subl ->Trainingsub2 You create a policy in the root compartment to allow the default admin for the account (Administrators) to manage
block volumes in compartment Training-sub2.
What policy would you write to meet this requirement?
A. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in the root compartment
B. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in compartment Training-sub1: Training- sub2
C. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in compartment Training: Training-sub 1 : Training-sub2
D. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in compartment Training-sub2
Correct Answer: C
a policy statement must specify the compartment for which access is being granted (or the tenancy). Where you create
the policy determines who can update the policy. If you attach the policy to the compartment or its parent, you can
simply specify the compartment name. If you attach the policy further up the hierarchy, you must specify the path. The
format of the path is each compartment name (or OCID) in the path, separated by a colon::: . . . For example, assume
you have a three-level compartment hierarchy, shown here:

Pass4itsure 1z0-1072-20 exam questions-q4

You want to create a policy to allow NetworkAdmins to manage VCNs in CompartmentC. If you want to attach this policy
to CompartmentC or to its parent, CompartmentB, write this policy statement:
Allow group NewtworkAdmins to manage virtual-network-family in compartment CompartmentC However, if you want to
attach this policy to CompartmentA (so that only administrators of CompartmentA can modify it), write this policy
statement that specifies the path:
Allow group NewtworkAdmins to manage virtual-network-family in compartment CompartmentB:CompartmentC
To attach this policy to the tenancy, write this policy statement that specifies the path from CompartmentA to
CompartmentC:
Allow group NewtworkAdmins to manage virtual-network-family in compartment
CompartmentA:CompartmentB:CompartmentC

 

QUESTION 5
Which five are the required parameters to launch an instance in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure? (Choose five.)
A. subnet
B. Availability Domain
C. Virtual Cloud Network
D. host name
E. instance shape
F. image operating system
G. private IP address
Correct Answer: ABCEF
References: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/Compute/Concepts/computeoverview.htm


QUESTION 6
A company currently uses Microsoft Active Directory as its identity provider. The company recently subscribed to Oracle
Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) to leverage the cloud platform for test and development. As the administrator, you configured
the OCI tenancy to be federated with Microsoft Active Directory. Now you need to give access to developers so that
they can start creating resources in their OCI accounts.
Which step will you perform to make sure you are not duplicating user creation inside of OCI tenancy?
A. Create a group for developers on OCI and map the group to a similar group in Microsoft Active Directory during the
federation process.
B. Create a new user account in OCI for each user, and then create policies to provide access to developers.
C. Create a group for developers on OCI, export all the developers from Microsoft Active Directory, and then import
them into the Identity and Access Management (IAM) group.
D. Create a single user account in OCI, and then create policies to provide access to developers to this single account.
Correct Answer: A
When working with your IdP, your administrator defines groups and assigns each user to one or more groups according
to the type of access the user needs. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure also uses the concept of groups (in conjunction with
IAM policies) to define the type of access a user has. As part of setting up the relationship with the IdP, your
administrator can map each IdP group to a similarly defined IAM group, so that your company can re-use the IdP group
definitions when authorizing user access to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure resources.

QUESTION 7
The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Block Volume service lets you expand the size of the block and boot volumes. Which three
options below can you use to increase the size of your block volumes?
A. Clone an existing volume to a new, larger volume
B. You can only expand block volumes and not boot volumes
C. Expand an existing volume in place with offline resizing
D. Take a backup of your existing volume and restore from the volume back up to a larger volume
E. Expand an existing volume in place with online resizing
Correct Answer: ACD
The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Block Volume service lets you expand the size of block volumes and boot volumes. You
have three options to increase the size of your volumes:
Expand an existing volume in place with offline resizing. See Resizing a Volume Using the Console for the steps to do
this.
Restore from a volume backup to a larger volume. See Restoring a Backup to a New Volume and Restoring a Boot
Volume.
Clone an existing volume to a new, larger volume. See Cloning a Volume and Cloning a Boot Volume.

QUESTION 8
A company currently uses Microsoft Active Directory as its identity provider. The company recently purchased Oracle
Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) to leverage the cloud platform for its test and development operations. As the administrator,
you are now tasked with giving access only to developers so that they can start creating resources in their OCI
accounts. Which step will you perform to achieve this requirement?
A. Create a group for developers on OCI and map the group to a similar group in Microsoft Active Directory during the
federation process.
B. Federate all Microsoft Active Directory groups with OCI to allow users to use their existing credentials.
C. Create a new user account for each user and then create policies to provide access to developers.
D. Create a group for developers on OCI, export all the developers from Microsoft Active Directory, and then import
them into the Identity and Access Management (IAM) group.
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1073 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1073 exam

QUESTION 1
You face a supply request exception due to some reason. You realize that you need to make some changes to the
Manage Supply Request Exceptions page. Which action will you perform?
A. The supply request cannot be updated. The only way is to resolve the error in the source application and resubmit
the request.
B. Update the supply request and submit it. The errors will be resolved automatically.
C. The supply request can be updated using a third-party application only.
D. Update the supply request and make user errors are resolved before resubmitting it.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Your customer is a very large organization spanning across multiple countires. Their legal requirements, Human
Resource Policies, and Functional Currencies for Ledger are different for each country. Your customer wants to
maintain 10
different companies in the system.
Which combination meets this requirement?
A. 10 Enterprises, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger
B. 10 Enterprises, 1 Division, where each division has 10 legal entities and 1 ledger
C. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger D. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions,
where each division has its own ledger with common legal entity across all divisions
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
While negotiating the terms of the consignment agreement, the buyer and the supplier mutually agree to set the aging
onset point as receipt and the aging period as five days. The terms also say that the consumption advice will be
generated daily.
In which three scenarios will the goods be transferred from the supplier\\’s ownership to buyer\\’s ownership?
A. You received the goods today and you transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to owned transaction” task.
B. You received the goods today and after three days you transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to consigned
transaction” task.
C. You received the goods today and for the next one week you do not plan any action on the same.
D. You received the goods today and after six days you decide to transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to consigned transaction” task.
E. You received the goods today and you decide to issue the goods after three days without transferring the ownership.
F. You received the goods today and after four days you return the material to the supplier.
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 4
Identify three statements that are true about reservations in back-to-back processing.
A. Changes to reservation in Oracle Logistics Cloud leads to exceptions, which are displayed in the Supply Chain
Orchestration work area.
B. Reservation supplies that can be reserved are Purchase Orders, Transfer Orders, Work Orders, and On Hand
inventory.
C. Reservations cannot be created for back-to-back On Hand supply orders.
D. Partial fulfillment of reservations is supported.
E. One reservation is created for a demand and supply.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 5
In the Back-to-Back (B2B) Order to Cash flow, ordered items are purchased from a suplier. The Sourcing Rules have
been defined for the item and the buy flow has been initiated. The sales order line is shown as Awaiting Shipping and
the
supply line status is “In Purchasing” with the supply order generated but the purchase requisition not generating.
What is the reason?
A. Supply order is generated with exceptions.
B. The sourcing rule is incorrect.
C. Preparer is not valid.
D. Buy requests originate from Order Management.
E. No Blanket Purchase Agreement (BPA) exists for this supplier-item combination.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Your customer is managing a large sales team divided in two different geographies in the USA. They have the East
Coast sales team and the Central sales team. Both teams are handled by one manager and perform the same function.
Your customer wants to track the expenses of the two teams separately; however, they do not consider them different
as they are handled by one manager only.
How will you fulfill the requirement?
A. Define them as two separate departments and a single cost center.
B. Define them as one department and one cost center.
C. It is not possible to fulfill the requirement.
D. Define them as a single department and two separate cost centers.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
An inventory transaction is imported to the system through an FBDI template. Which transaction state denotes that an
inventory transaction is created in the Oracle Cloud Inventory Management application?
A. Validated
B. Created
C. Deferred
D. New
E. Staged
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A customer has one Business Unit, two Legal Entities, and each have eight warehouses (defined as Inventory Orgs).
While trying to set up Cost Organizations for each of these Legal Entities, you were unable to perform the mandatory
step of
assigning the Profit Center Business Unit for one set of eight Inventory Organizations; however, you could do it for the
other set.
What is the reason for this?
A. There is no Inventory Validation Organization defined.
B. There is no Business Unit associated with the Legal Entity.
C. The General Ledger is not associated with Business Unit.
D. The Business Unit is not enabled for Costing.
E. The Legal Entity Setup is incomplete.
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1080-20 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1080-20 exam

QUESTION 1
In Financials, you want to see asset related expenses such as depreciation, amortization, and insurance. Which
describes the steps you can take to set this up? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Set up the Equipment Expense Reporting Capex data map to map asset related expenses to Financials.
B. On the Configure page for Capital, select the option to map Capital accounts to financial accounts. Then for each
Capital account, select a financial account to map to.
C. On the Configure page for Financials, when enabling features, include a custom dimension to store asset related
information.
D. On the Configure page for Financials, select Asset Accounts to set up the accounts from Capital that map to
Financials.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgeting-cloud/epbca/GUID-71622AFDC1F0-4D40-A36F-85FA8AA305B6.pdf (8-6)

 

QUESTION 2
Which migration category is required to restore dimensional security? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Planning
B. Groups and Memberships
C. Reporting
D. Calculation Manager
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E57185_01/EASOH/ss_sec_mode.html

 

QUESTION 3
In Data Management, what are the steps you need to perform to synchronize the application metadata in the target
application? (Choose the best answer.)
A. In Data Management, navigate to Application Dimensions and click Refresh Dimensions.
B. In Data Management, navigate to Import Format and select your Planning application. Click Refresh Dimensions.
C. In Data Management, navigate to Target Application and select your Planning application. Click Refresh Members.
D. In Data Management, to Target Application and select your Planning application. Click Refresh Metadata.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/enterprise-performance-managementcommon/erpia/erpi_reg_target_app.html


QUESTION 4
What three tasks can you perform in the Data Management Workbench? (Choose three.)
A. Export
B. Validate
C. Maintain Process Tables
D. Import
E. Delete Integration
Correct Answer: ABD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/enterprise-performance-managementcommon/erpia/using_the_data_load_workbench.html

 

QUESTION 5
Which three do you need to enable in order to perform indirect cash flow statement planning? (Choose three.)
A. Expense
B. Cash Flow Statement
C. Income Statement
D. Balance Sheet
E. Revenue
Correct Answer: ABE
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgetingcloud/epbca/fin_enabling_cash_flow_100x49cf9a89.html

 

QUESTION 6
In order to be able to configure Additional Earnings in the Benefits and Taxes wizard, into which dimension do you have
to import members? Choose the best answer.
A. Pay Type
B. Property
C. Component
D. Account
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgetingcloud/epbca/wf_configuring_workforce__106xdb232ea8.html


QUESTION 7
Several users continuously use custom-created formulas in Excel to supplement their Planning form inputs. What is
another design alternative to reduce offline Excel maintenance? Choose the best answer.
A. Cell commentary
B. Reports
C. Ad hoc forms
D. Smart forms
E. Smart push
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E57185_01/SMVUG/ch13s12s02.html

 

QUESTION 8
Which three can be automated with EPMAutomate? (Choose three.)
A. Import user security
B. Run a Business Rule
C. Import a file into the Planning inbox
D. Migrate a backup between test and production
E. Send an email to users
Correct Answer: BCD

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ITIL Certification ITILFND Exam Questions Answers

ITIL ITILFND practice exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all services that
are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A. Service level management
B. Service catalogue management
C. Demand management
D. Service transition
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which is a definition of a risk cause?
A. The impact of a risk on the stage and project tolerance
B. The source of a risk
C. The overall effect of a risk on the Business Case
D. How likely a risk is to occur in a given project situation
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
What is a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve, without the
customer having to manage specific costs and risks?
A. Service management
B. Continual improvement
C. A service
D. An IT asset
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which of the following would commonly be in a contract underpinning an IT service?
(1)
Marketing information
(2)Contract description and scope
(3)Responsibilities and dependencies
A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
None of the above
Correct Answer: C
 

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?
A. To prevent problems and their resultant Incidents
B. To manage problems throughout their lifecycle
C. To restore service to a user
D. To eliminate recurring incidents
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a data centre?
A. Technical management
B. Service desk
C. Application management
D. Facilities management
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
What is the BEST description of the CSI register?
A. It is a record of all authorized changes and their planned implementation dates
B. It is a record of proposed improvement opportunities and the benefits that will be achieved
C. It is a record of new services to be approved by a customer, including proposed implementation dates
D. It is a record of completed improvements and the relevant customer satisfaction metric
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?
A. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI) or IT service
B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT service
C. The unknown cause of one or more incidents that have an impact on an IT service
D. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an incident or problem
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
Which statement BEST describes the value of the service transition stage to the business?
A. It supports the creation of a catalogue of services?
B. It leads to gradual and continual improvement in service quality
C. It ensures the production of more successful service designs
D. It results in higher volumes of successful change
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two elements of financial management for IT services are mandatory?
A. Budgeting and charging
B. Accounting and charging
C. Budgeting and accounting
D. Costing and charging
Correct Answer: C

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Palo Alto Networks Palo Alto Certifications and Accreditations PCNSA ITILFND Exam Questions Answers

Palo Alto Networks Palo Alto Certifications and Accreditations PCNSA practice exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are correct about App-ID content updates? (Choose two.)
A. Updated application content may change how security policy rules are enforced
B. After an application content update, new applications must be manually classified prior to use
C. Existing security policy rules are not affected by application content updates
D. After an application content update, new applications are automatically identified and classified
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 2
Which interface type is part of a Layer 3 zone with a Palo Alto Networks firewall?
A. Management
B. High Availability
C. Aggregate
D. Aggregation
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Which Palo Alto Networks firewall security platform provides network security for mobile endpoints by inspecting traffic
deployed as internet gateways?
A. GlobalProtect
B. AutoFocus
C. Aperture
D. Panorama
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
Match the Palo Alto Networks Security Operating Platform architecture to its description.
Select and Place:

vcekey PCNSA exam questions-q4

QUESTION 5
Which administrator receives a global notification for a new malware that infects hosts. The infection will result in the
infected host attempting to contact and command-and-control (C2) server.
Which security profile components will detect and prevent this threat after the firewall`s signature database has been
updated?
A. antivirus profile applied to outbound security policies
B. data filtering profile applied to inbound security policies
C. data filtering profile applied to outbound security policies
D. vulnerability profile applied to inbound security policies
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
What are two differences between an implicit dependency and an explicit dependency in App-ID? (Choose two.)
A. An implicit dependency does not require the dependent application to be added in the security policy
B. An implicit dependency requires the dependent application to be added in the security policy
C. An explicit dependency does not require the dependent application to be added in the security policy
D. An explicit dependency requires the dependent application to be added in the security policy
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 7
An internal host wants to connect to servers of the internet through using source NAT. Which policy is required to
enable source NAT on the firewall?
A. NAT policy with source zone and destination zone specified
B. post-NAT policy with external source and any destination address
C. NAT policy with no source of destination zone selected
D. pre-NAT policy with external source and any destination address
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which type of security rule will match traffic between the Inside zone and Outside zone, within the Inside zone, and
within the Outside zone?
A. global
B. intrazone
C. interzone
D. universal
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://knowledgebase.paloaltonetworks.com/KCSArticleDetail?id=kA10g000000ClomCAC

QUESTION 9
Which two configuration settings shown are not the default? (Choose two.)

vcekey PCNSA exam questions-q9

A. Enable Security Log
B. Server Log Monitor Frequency (sec)
C. Enable Session
D. Enable Probing
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://docs.paloaltonetworks.com/pan-os/8-0/pan-os-web-interface-help/user-identification/device-useridentification-user-mapping/enable-server-monitoring


QUESTION 10
Which path in PAN-OS 9.0 displays the list of port-based security policy rules?
A. Policies> Security> Rule Usage> No App Specified
B. Policies> Security> Rule Usage> Port only specified
C. Policies> Security> Rule Usage> Port-based Rules
D. Policies> Security> Rule Usage> Unused Apps
Correct Answer: C

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ISC Certification SSCP Exam Questions Answers

ISC SSCP practice exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is less likely to accompany a contingency plan, either within the plan itself or in the form of an
appendix?
A. Contact information for all personnel.
B. Vendor contact information, including offsite storage and alternate site.
C. Equipment and system requirements lists of the hardware, software, firmware and other resources required to
support system operations.
D. The Business Impact Analysis.
Correct Answer: A
Why is this the correct answer? Simply because it is WRONG, you would have contact information for your emergency
personnel within the plan but NOT for ALL of your personnel. Be careful of words such as ALL.
According to NIST\\’s Special publication 800-34, contingency plan appendices provide key details not contained in the
main body of the plan. The appendices should reflect the specific technical, operational, and management contingency
requirements of the given system. Contact information for recovery team personnel (not all personnel) and for vendor
should be included, as well as detailed system requirements to allow for supporting of system operations. The Business
Impact Analysis (BIA) should also be included as an appendix for reference should the plan be activated.
Reference(s) used for this question:
SWANSON, Marianne, and al., National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), NIST Special Publication
800-34, Contingency Planning Guide for Information Technology Systems


QUESTION 2
In a stateful inspection firewall, data packets are captured by an inspection engine that is operating at the:
A. Network or Transport Layer.
B. Application Layer.
C. Inspection Layer.
D. Data Link Layer.
Correct Answer: A
Most stateful packet inspection firewalls work at the network or transport layers. For the TCP/IP protcol, this allows the
firewall to make decisions both on IP addresses, protocols and TCP/UDP port numbers
Application layer is incorrect. This is too high in the OSI stack for this type of firewall.
Inspection layer is incorrect. There is no such layer in the OSI stack.
“Data link layer” is incorrect. This is too low in the OSI stack for this type of firewall.
References:
CBK, p. 466
AIO3, pp. 485 – 486


QUESTION 3
A momentary high voltage is a:
A. spike
B. blackout
C. surge
D. fault
Correct Answer: A
Too much voltage for a short period of time is a spike.
Too much voltage for a long period of time is a surge.
Not enough voltage for a short period of time is a sag or dip
Not enough voltage for a long period of time is brownout
A short power interruption is a fault
A long power interruption is a blackout
You MUST know all of the power issues above for the purpose of the exam.
From: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, 3rd. Edition McGraw- Hill/Osborne, 2005, page 368.


QUESTION 4
What protocol is used on the Local Area Network (LAN) to obtain an IP address from it\\’s known MAC address?
A. Reverse address resolution protocol (RARP)
B. Address resolution protocol (ARP)
C. Data link layer
D. Network address translation (NAT)
Correct Answer: A
The reverse address resolution protocol (RARP) sends out a packet including a MAC address and a request to be
informed of the IP address that should be assigned to that MAC.
Diskless workstations do not have a full operating system but have just enough code to know how to boot up and
broadcast for an IP address, and they may have a pointer to the server that holds the operating system. The diskless
workstation knows its hardware address, so it broadcasts this information so that a listening server can assign it the
correct IP address.
As with ARP, Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) frames go to all systems on the subnet, but only the RARP
server responds. Once the RARP server receives this request, it looks in its table to see which IP address matches the
broadcast hardware address. The server then sends a message that contains its IP address back to the requesting
computer. The system now has an IP address and can function on the network.
The Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) was created after RARP to enhance the functionality that RARP provides for diskless
workstations. The diskless workstation can receive its IP address, the name server address for future name resolutions,
and the default gateway address from the BOOTP server. BOOTP usually provides more functionality to diskless
workstations than does RARP.
The evolution of this protocol has unfolded as follows: RARP evolved into BOOTP, which evolved into DHCP.
The following are incorrect answers:
NAT is a tool that is used for masking true IP addresses by employing internal addresses. ARP does the opposite of
RARP, it finds the MAC address that maps with an existing IP address.
Data Link layer The Data Link layer is not a protocol; it is represented at layer 2 of the OSI model. In the TCP/IP model,
the Data Link and Physical layers are combined into the Network Access layer, which is sometimes called the Link
layer
or the Network Interface layer. Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition, Telecommunications and Network Security,
Page 584-585 and also 598. For Kindle users see Kindle Locations 12348-12357. McGraw-Hill.
and
KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security,
John Wiley and Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 87).
 

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is an IP address that is private (i.e. reserved for internal networks, and not a valid address to use
on the Internet)?
A. 172.12.42.5
B. 172.140.42.5
C. 172.31.42.5
D. 172.15.42.5
Correct Answer: C
This is a valid Class B reserved address. For Class B networks, the reserved addresses are 172.16.0.0 –
172.31.255.255.
The private IP address ranges are defined within RFC 1918:
RFC 1918 private ip address range
 

 

vcekey SSCP exam questions-q5

The following answers are incorrect:
172.12.42.5 Is incorrect because it is not a Class B reserved address.
172.140.42.5 Is incorrect because it is not a Class B reserved address.
172.15.42.5 Is incorrect because it is not a Class B reserved address.


QUESTION 6
What enables users to validate each other\\’s certificate when they are certified under different certification hierarchies?
A. Cross-certification
B. Multiple certificates
C. Redundant certification authorities
D. Root certification authorities
Correct Answer: A
Cross-certification is the act or process by which two CAs each certifiy a public key of the other, issuing a public-key
certificate to that other CA, enabling users that are certified under different certification hierarchies to validate each
other\\’s certificate.
Source: SHIREY, Robert W., RFC2828: Internet Security Glossary, may 2000.


QUESTION 7
Risk analysis is MOST useful when applied during which phase of the system development process?
A. Project initiation and Planning
B. Functional Requirements definition
C. System Design Specification
D. Development and Implementation
Correct Answer: A
In most projects the conditions for failure are established at the beginning of the project. Thus risk management should
be established at the commencement of the project with a risk assessment during project initiation.
As it is clearly stated in the ISC2 book: Security should be included at the first phase of development and throughout all
of the phases of the system development life cycle. This is a key concept to understand for the purpose for the exam.
The most useful time is to undertake it at project initiation, although it is often valuable to update the current risk analysis
at later stages.
Attempting to retrofit security after the SDLC is completed would cost a lot more money and might be impossible in
some cases. Look at the family of browsers we use today, for the past 8 years they always claim that it is the most
secure
version that has been released and within days vulnerabilities will be found.
Risks should be monitored throughout the SDLC of the project and reassessed when appropriate.
The phases of the SDLC can very from one source to another one. It could be as simple as Concept, Design, and
Implementation. It could also be expanded to include more phases such as this list proposed within the ISC2 Official
Study
book:
Project Initiation and Planning
Functional Requirements Definition
System Design Specification
Development and Implementation
Documentations and Common Program Controls
Testing and Evaluation Control, certification and accreditation (CandA)
Transition to production (Implementation)
And there are two phases that will extend beyond the SDLC, they are:
Operation and Maintenance Support (OandM)
Revisions and System Replacement (Disposal)
Source: Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual,
chapter 6: Business Application System Development, Acquisition, Implementation and Maintenance (page 291).
and The Official ISC2 Guide to the CISSP CBK , Second Edition, Page 182-185

QUESTION 8
Which of the following questions is less likely to help in assessing physical and environmental protection?
A. Are entry codes changed periodically?
B. Are appropriate fire suppression and prevention devices installed and working?
C. Are there processes to ensure that unauthorized individuals cannot read, copy, alter, or steal printed or electronic
information?
D. Is physical access to data transmission lines controlled?
Correct Answer: C
Physical security and environmental security are part of operational controls, and are measures taken to protect
systems, buildings, and related supporting infrastructures against threats associated with their physical environment. All
the questions above are useful in assessing physical and environmental protection except for the one regarding
processes that ensuring that unauthorized individuals cannot access information, which is more a production control.
Source: SWANSON, Marianne, NIST Special Publication 800-26, Security Self-Assessment Guide for Information
Technology Systems, November 2001 (Pages A-21 to A-24).


QUESTION 9
External consistency ensures that the data stored in the database is:
A. in-consistent with the real world.
B. remains consistant when sent from one system to another.
C. consistent with the logical world.
D. consistent with the real world.
Correct Answer: D
External consistency ensures that the data stored in the database is consistent with the real world.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, page 33.


QUESTION 10
Which of the following was developed by the National Computer Security Center (NCSC) for the US Department of
Defense ?
A. TCSEC
B. ITSEC
C. DIACAP
D. NIACAP
Correct Answer: A
The Answer: TCSEC; The TCSEC, frequently referred to as the Orange Book, is the centerpiece of the DoD Rainbow
Series publications.
Initially issued by the National Computer Security Center (NCSC) an arm of the National Security Agency in 1983 and
then updated in 1985, TCSEC was replaced with the development of the Common Criteria international standard
originally
published in 2005.
References:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security,
pages 197-199.
Wikepedia
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/TCSEC

 

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