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642-385 dumps
Following Cisco 642-385 Dumps 81QAs Are All New Published By Pass4itsure
Question: 32
Which of the following are the main goals of Broadcasting Board of Governors (BBG)’s strategic plan 2008-2013? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It employs modern communication techniques and technologies.
B. It builds on our reach and impact within the muslim world.
C. It engages the world in conversation about England.
D. It enhances program delivery across all platforms.
642-385 exam 
Answer: A,B,D
Question: 33
Which of the following types of IT organizational structures states that all IT decision-making and the IT budget are in one place, much easier to manage, and require much less effort to organize?
A. Decentralized
B. Federated
C. Project-based
D. Centralized
Answer: D
Question: 34
A service provider guarantees for end-to-end network traffic performance to a customer. Which of the following types of agreement is this?
A. LA
B. VPN
C. NDA
D. SLA
642-385 dumps 
Answer: D
Question: 35
Which of the following domains of COBIT covers areas such as the execution of the applications within the IT system and its results as well as the support processes that enable the effective and efficient execution of these IT systems?
A. Deliver and Support
B. Acquire and Implement
C. Monitor and Evaluate
D. Plan and Organize
Answer: A
Question: 36
Gary has identified a project risk that could injure project team members. He does not want to accept any risk where someone could become injured on this project so he hires a professional vendor to complete this portion of the project work. This workaround to the risk event is known as what type of risk response?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Acceptance
D. Transference
642-385 pdf 
Answer: D
Question: 37
Management has asked you to perform a risk audit and report back on the results. Bonny, a project team member asks you what a risk audit is. What do you tell Bonny?
A. A risk audit is a review of the effectiveness of the risk responses in dealing with identified risks and their root causes, as well as the effectiveness of the risk management process.
B. A risk audit is a review of all the risks that have yet to occur and what their probability of happening are.
C. A risk audit is an audit of all the risks that have occurred in the project and what their true impact on cost and time has been.
D. A risk audit is a review of all the risk probability and impact for the risks, which are still present in the project but which have not yet occurred.
Answer: A
Question: 38
Wendy is the project manager of the FBL project for your company. She has identified several risks within her project and has created a risk contingency reserve of $45,000 total. Her project is nearly complete and many of the risks have not happened in the project. What should Wendy do with the funds in the contingency reserve?
A. The funds for the risks that have passed and have not happened are transferred to the project budget.
B. The funds remain in the contingency reserve until all of the risks have passed.
C. The funds remain in the contingency reserve until the project is closed.
D. The funds for the risks that have passed and have not happened are released.
642-385 vce 
Answer: D
Question: 39
Which of the following frameworks defines ERM as a process, effected by an entity’s board of directors, management, and other personnel, applied in strategy setting and across the enterprise?
A. COBIT
B. COSO ERM framework
C. Casualty Actuarial Society framework
D. Val IT
Answer: B
Question: 40
The IT strategy formulation process consists of four steps to provide guidance to all who are involved. Which of the following steps are performed in the IT strategy formulation process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Decide how to get from here to there.
B. Evaluate changes.
C. Assess process maturity.
D. Map out the big picture.
642-385 exam 
Answer: A,B,D
Question: 41
Which of the following concepts is a semi-standard structured report supported by proven design methods and automation tools that can be used by managers to keep track of the execution of activities by staff within their control and monitor the consequences arising from these actions?
A. Total Security Management
B. Balanced Scorecard (BSC)
C. Total Quality Management
D. Six Sigma
Answer: B
Question: 42
Elizabeth is a project manager for her organization and she finds risk management to be very difficult for her to manage. She asks you, a lead project manager, at what stage in the project will risk management become easier. What answer best resolves the difficulty of risk management practices and the effort required?
A. Risk management only becomes easier the more often it is practiced.
B. Risk management only becomes easier when the project is closed.
C. Risk management is an iterative process and never becomes easier.
D. Risk management only becomes easier when the project moves into project execution.
642-385 dumps 
Answer: A
Question: 43
Which of the following stages of the Forrester’s IT Governance Maturity Model describes that the IT governance processes are applied across the enterprise where all business units/entities conform to the same set of IT governance processes, and IT investment decisions are based on the enterprise view?
A. Stage 3-Consistent
B. Stage 4-Best practices
C. Stage 1-Ad hoc
D. Stage 2-Fragmented
Answer: A
Question: 44
You are the project manager of the HJK project for your organization. You and the project team have created risk responses for many of the risk events in the project. A teaming agreement is an example
of what risk response?
A. Mitigation
B. Sharing
C. Transference
D. Acceptance
642-385 pdf 
Answer: B
Question: 45
Which of the following is the main objective of business process outsourcing?
A. Realigning business process with business strategy
B. Permitting the enterprise to focus on core main competences
C. Optimizing business processes
D. Increasing the automation of business processes
Answer: B
Question: 46
In which of the following phases of the SDLC does the software and other components of the system faithfully incorporate the design specifications and provide proper documentation and training?
A. Design
B. Initiation
C. Programming and training
D. Evaluation and acceptance
642-385 vce 
Answer: C
Question: 47
You are the project manager of a newly formed project to create a new manufacturing facility. You are working with a business analyst to identify, document, and prioritize stakeholders’ needs for the facility. You’ll also need to quantify any subjective terms and needs to define the project scope. What is this process called?
A. Requirements analysis
B. Project scope statement creation
C. Requirements gathering
D. Stakeholder analysis
Answer: D
Question: 48
IT Governance is used by the management to regulate the Information Systems, to accomplish its objectives. IT governance forms an integral part of corporate governance. Which of the following elements are required to implement a good IT governance framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Communication
B. Structure
C. Project
D. Process
642-385 exam 
Answer: A,B,D
Question: 49
Which of the following roles is responsible for review and risk analysis of all contracts on a regular basis?
A. The Service Catalogue Manager
B. The Supplier Manager
C. The Configuration Manager
D. The IT Service Continuity Manager
Answer: B
Question: 50
All projects that are presented in your organization must go through a board to review the return on investment, risk, and worthiness of a project. All projects are considered but not all projects are initiated. What is the name of the process that this board is completing in your organization?
A. Project selection committee
B. Change governance
C. Project portfolio management
D. Project portfolio management board
642-385 dumps 
Answer: C
Question: 51
Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management enables portfolio managers to include or exclude investments, change start and end-dates, adjust budgets and reevaluate priorities?
A. Integrated Capability
B. Portfolio Planning Analysis
C. Portfolio What-If Planning
D. Portfolio Management
Answer: C
Question: 52
Fred is the project manager of the PKL project. He is working with his project team to complete the quantitative risk analysis process as a part of risk management planning. Fred understands that once the quantitative risk analysis process is complete, the process will need to be completed again in at least two other times in the project. When will the quantitative risk analysis process need to be repeated?
A. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the risk response planning and as a part of monitoring and controlling.
B. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the plan risk response planning and as part of procurement.
C. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after new risks are identified and as pa of monitoring and controlling.
D. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the cost management planning an as a part of monitoring and controlling.
642-385 pdf 
Answer: A
Question: 53
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. There has been a delay in your project work that is adversely affecting the project schedule. You decided, with your stakeholders’ approval, to fast track the project work to get the project done faster. When you fast track the project which of the following are likely to increase?
A. Costs
B. Risks
C. Human resource needs
D. Quality control concerns
Answer: B
Question: 54
Which of the following processes ensures that all vital assets and resources of the organization are safeguarded?
A. Defining Resource Requirements process
B. Cost estimating process
C. Vendor contract administration process
D. Risk management process
642-385 vce 
Answer: D
Question: 56
In software development, which of the following analysis is used to document the services and functions that have been accidentally left out, deliberately eliminated or still need to be developed?
A. Vulnerability analysis
B. Cost-benefit analysis
C. Requirement analysis

D. Gap analysis
642-385 exam 
Answer: D
Question: 57
The entry points to Service Strategy are referred to as “the Four Ps”. They identify the different forms a service strategy may take. Which of the following is a correct list of the ‘Four Ps’?
A. People, Products, Partners, and Profit
B. People, Potential, Products, and Performance
C. Potential, Preparation, Performance, and Profit
D. Perspective, Position, Plan, and Pattern
Answer: D
Question: 58
Melody is the project manager for her organization. She has created a risk response to conduct more tests on the software her project is creating. The identified risk that prompted this response was that the software is mission-critical and must be flawless before it can be put into product. What type of a risk response has Melody used in this scenario?
A. Transference
B. Enhance
C. Avoidance
D. Mitigation
642-385 dumps 
Answer: D
Question: 59
Which of the following are the roles of a CIO in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Standardizes architecture & technology.
B. Defines value creation roles within IT.
C. Provides IT infrastructure to facilitate knowledge & information creation/sharing.
D. Establishes business priorities & allocates resources for IT performance.
Answer: A,B,C

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QUESTION 1.Which one of the following choices lists the four steps of interaction with a database?
A.Connect, Read, Write, Disconnect
B.Connect, Send a command, Write, Disconnect
C.Connect, Query, Read/Write, Disconnect
D.Connect, Send a command, Display results, Disconnect
300-170 exam Correct:D
QUESTION 2.Which one of the following variables is used if no variable was specified in a pattern match, substitution operator or print statement?
A.$nul
B.$#
C.$_
D.$*
Correct:C
QUESTION 3.Which choice demonstrates the correct syntax for the DELETE command?
A.DELETE MyDatabase WHERE VALUES state=Kentucky AND color=blue
B.DELETE MyDatabase WHERE state=Kentucky AND color=blue
C.DELETE FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=Kentucky AND color=blue
D.DELETE state=Kentucky AND color=blue FROM MyDatabase
300-170 dumps Correct:C
QUESTION 4.Consider the following HTML code: < INPUT TYPE=text NAME=state VALUE=>> Given this code, which one of the following choices best describes how the data should be written to a file?
A.print OUTPUT, “state” . param(“State: “);
B.print OUTPUT “State: ” . param(“state”);
C.print OUTPUT, “State: ” . (“state”);
D.OUTPUT “state” . param(“State: “);
Correct:B
QUESTION 5.Which choice best demonstrates how the print statement may be used to print HTML code?
A.print HTML>>;
B.print ;
C.print (“HTML”);
D.print (“”);
300-170 pdf Correct:D
QUESTION 6.Consider the following code: open(INFILE, “myfile”); Given this code, which one of the following choices demonstrates reading in scalar context?
A.$file = INFILE>;
B.$file < INFILE>;
C.%file = INFILE>;
[email protected] <= INFILE>;
Correct:A
QUESTION 7.Consider the following code: open( INPUT, “Chapter1”); Given this code, which one of the following choices demonstrates reading in list context?
A.%file = INPUT ;
[email protected] = INPUT ;
[email protected]%file < INPUT ;

D.$file = INPUT ;
300-170 vce Correct:B
QUESTION 8.Which set of operators is used to read and write to a file in random-access mode?
A.< >
B.< >>
C.+< +>
D.-<< ->>
Correct:C
QUESTION 9.The do method duplicates the function of which of the following methods?
A.param and execute
B.post and prepare
C.prepare and execute
D.post and execute
300-170 exam Correct:C
QUESTION 10.Which one of the following statements allows for variable substitution?
A.$sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
B.$sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
C.$sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
D.$sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
Correct:A
QUESTION 11.Antonio is naming a Perl variable. Which choice includes characters he may use?
A._, &, *
B.+, #,
$ C.$,
@, % D.%,
#, @
300-170 dumps Correct:C
QUESTION 12.Which choice best describes how to access individual elements of an array?
A.Use an index starting with 1
B.Use an index starting with 0
C.Use a pointer
D.Use a key value
Correct:B
QUESTION 13.Before allowing a user to submit data with a Web form, which of the following tasks should be performed?
A.The data should be validated by the script.
B.The data should be validated by the programmer.
C.The data should be compared to valid data stored in a list.
D.The data should be passed through the validate() method.
300-170 pdf Correct:A
QUESTION 14.The CGI.pm module can be used to perform which one of the following tasks?
A.GET or POST data
B.Load external variables
C.Read large amounts of text into the script
D.Access environment variables

Correct:D
QUESTION 15.What is the main danger in using cookies and hidden fields?
A.They can be deleted.
B.They can be edited.
C.They can be blocked by the browser.
D.They can be viewed.
300-170 vce Correct:B
QUESTION 16.The start_html method of CGI.pm yields which one of the following results?
A.”content-type:A\n\n”
B. HTML
C. FORM METHOD=A ACTION=B ENCODING=C
D. NPUT TYPE=”submit” VALUE=A
Correct:B
QUESTION 17.Which method is used in a Perl script to access the variables POSTed by an HTML form?
A.prepare();
B.param();
C.header ();
D.post();
300-170 exam Correct:B
QUESTION 18.The file mode specifies which one of the following?
A.The access permissions
B.The inode number
C.The file’s owner
D.How the file is opened
Correct:D
QUESTION 19.List context versus scalar context is determined by which one of the following?
A.The compiler
B.The debugger
C.The interpreter
D.The environment
300-170 dumps Correct:C
QUESTION 20.Which one of the following choices best describes data tainting?
A.Tainted data can be used by eval, system, or exec.
B.Tainted data cannot be accessed by the script.
C.Variables containing external data cannot be used outside the script.
D.Data tainting is enabled using the D switch.
Correct:C
QUESTION 21
When is the earliest point at which the reduce method of a given Reducer can be called?
A. As soon as at least one mapper has finished processing its input split.
B. As soon as a mapper has emitted at least one record.
C. Not until all mappers have finished processing all records.
D. It depends on the InputFormat used for the job.
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Which describes how a client reads a file from HDFS?
A. The client queries the NameNode for the block location(s).The NameNode returns the block location(s) to the client. The client reads the data directory off the DataNode(s).
B. The client queries all DataNodes in parallel. The DataNode that contains the requested data responds
directly to the client. The client reads the data directly off the DataNode.
C. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s).The NameNode then queries the DataNodes for block locations. The DataNodes respond to the NameNode, and the NameNode redirects the client to the DataNode that holds the requested data block(s).The client then reads the data directly off the DataNode.
D. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s).The NameNode contacts the DataNode that holds the requested data block. Data is transferred from the DataNode to the NameNode, and then from the NameNode to the client.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
You are developing a combiner that takes as input Text keys, IntWritable values, and emits Text keys, IntWritable values. Which interface should your class implement?
A. Combiner <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
B. Mapper <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
C. Reducer <Text, Text, IntWritable, IntWritable>
D. Reducer <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
E. Combiner <Text, Text, IntWritable, IntWritable>
300-170 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Indentify the utility that allows you to create and run MapReduce jobs with any executable or script as the mapper and/or the reducer?
A. Oozie
B. Sqoop
C. Flume
D. Hadoop Streaming
E. mapred
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
How are keys and values presented and passed to the reducers during a standard sort and shuffle phase of MapReduce?
A. Keys are presented to reducer in sorted order; values for a given key are not sorted.
B. Keys are presented to reducer in sorted order; values for a given key are sorted in ascending order.
C. Keys are presented to a reducer in random order; values for a given key are not sorted.
D. Keys are presented to a reducer in random order; values for a given key are sorted in ascending order.
300-170 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Assuming default settings, which best describes the order of data provided to a reducer s reduce method:
A. The keys given to a reducer aren t in a predictable order, but the values associated with those keys always are.
B. Both the keys and values passed to a reducer always appear in sorted order.
C. Neither keys nor values are in any predictable order.
D. The keys given to a reducer are in sorted order but the values associated with each key are in no predictable order
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
You wrote a map function that throws a runtime exception when it encounters a control character in input data. The input supplied to your mapper contains twelve such characters totals, spread across five file splits. The first four file splits each have two control characters and the last split has four control characters. Indentify the number of failed task attempts you can expect when you run the job with mapred.max.map.attempts set to 4:
A. You will have forty-eight failed task attempts
B. You will have seventeen failed task attempts
C. You will have five failed task attempts
D. You will have twelve failed task attempts
E. You will have twenty failed task attempts
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 28
You want to populate an associative array in order to perform a map-side join. You ?v decided to put this information in a text file, place that file into the Distributed Cache and read it in your Mapper before any records are processed. Indentify which method in the Mapper you should use to implement code for reading the file and populating the associative array?
A. combine
B. map
C. init
D. configure
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
You ve written a MapReduce job that will process 500 million input records and generated 500 million key value pairs. The data is not uniformly distributed. Your MapReduce job will create a significant amount of intermediate data that it needs to transfer between mappers and reduces which is a potential bottleneck.
A custom implementation of which interface is most likely to reduce the amount of intermediate data transferred across the network?
A. Partitioner
B. OutputFormat

C. WritableComparable
D. Writable
E. InputFormat
F. Combiner
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 30
Can you use MapReduce to perform a relational join on two large tables sharing a key? Assume that the two tables are formatted as comma-separated files in HDFS.
A. Yes.
B. Yes, but only if one of the tables fits into memory
C. Yes, so long as both tables fit into memory.
D. No, MapReduce cannot perform relational operations.
E. No, but it can be done with either Pig or Hive.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
You have just executed a MapReduce job. Where is intermediate data written to after being emitted from the Mapper s map method?
A. Intermediate data in streamed across the network from Mapper to the Reduce and is never written to disk.
B. Into in-memory buffers on the TaskTracker node running the Mapper that spill over and are written into HDFS.
C. Into in-memory buffers that spill over to the local file system of the TaskTracker node running the Mapper.
D. Into in-memory buffers that spill over to the local file system (outside HDFS) of the TaskTracker node running the Reducer
E. Into in-memory buffers on the TaskTracker node running the Reducer that spill over and are written into HDFS.
300-170 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
You want to understand more about how users browse your public website, such as which pages they visit prior to placing an order. You have a farm of 200 web servers hosting your website. How will you gather this data for your analysis?
A. Ingest the server web logs into HDFS using Flume.
B. Write a MapReduce job, with the web servers for mappers, and the Hadoop cluster nodes for reduces.
C. Import all users clicks from your OLTP databases into Hadoop, using Sqoop.
D. Channel these clickstreams inot Hadoop using Hadoop Streaming.
E. Sample the weblogs from the web servers, copying them into Hadoop using curl.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
MapReduce v2 (MRv2/YARN) is designed to address which two issues?
A. Single point of failure in the NameNode.
B. Resource pressure on the JobTracker.
C. HDFS latency.
D. Ability to run frameworks other than MapReduce, such as MPI.
E. Reduce complexity of the MapReduce APIs.

F. Standardize on a single MapReduce API.
300-170 exam Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 34
You need to run the same job many times with minor variations. Rather than hardcoding all job configuration options in your drive code, you ve decided to have your Driver subclass org.apache.hadoop.conf.Configured and implement the org.apache.hadoop.util.Tool interface. Indentify which invocation correctly passes.mapred.job.name with a value of Example to Hadoop?
A. hadoop mapred.job.name=Example MyDriver input output
B. hadoop MyDriver mapred.job.name=Example input output
C. hadoop MyDrive D mapred.job.name=Example input output
D. hadoop setproperty mapred.job.name=Example MyDriver input output
E. hadoop setproperty ( mapred.job.name=Example ) MyDriver input output
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
300-165 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
If Bob wanted to create a Management High Availability configuration, what is the minimum number of Security Management servers required in order to achieve his goal?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool would David use to accomplish his goal?
A. Smart Provisioning
B. Smart Blade
C. Smart Dashboard
D. Smart LSM
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
From the following output of cphaprob state, which Cluster XL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Cluster XL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all Cluster XL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization

D. Transparent upgrades
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing – Unicast
B. Load Balancing – Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing – Multicast
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an HTTP rule with a weight of 40, and the Default Rule with a weight of 10. If the only traffic passing through your QoS Module is HTTP traffic, what percent of bandwidth will be allocated to the HTTP traffic?
A. 80%
B. 40%
C. 100%
D. 50%
300-165 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What command will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unload local
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
How do you verify the Check Point kernel running on a firewall?
A. fw ctl get kernel
B. fw ctl pstat
C. fw kernel
D. fw ver -k
300-165 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
The process ________________ compiles $FWDIR/conf/*.W files into machine language.
A. fw gen
B. cpd
C. fwd
D. fwm
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which of the following is NOT part of the policy installation process?
A. Code compilation
B. Code generation
C. Initiation
D. Validation
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
When, during policy installation, does the atomic load task run?
A. It is the first task during policy installation.
B. It is the last task during policy installation.
C. Before CPD runs on the Gateway.
D. Immediately after fwm load runs on the Smart Center.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
What process is responsible for transferring the policy file from Smart Center to the Gateway?
A. FWD
B. FWM
C. CPRID
D. CPD
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
What firewall kernel table stores information about port allocations for Hide NAT connections?
A. NAT_dst_any_list
B. host_ip_addrs
C. NAT_src_any_list
D. fwx_alloc
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Where do you define NAT properties so that NAT is performed either client side or server side?
A. In Smart Dashboard under Gateway setting
B. In Smart Dashboard under Global Properties > NAT definition
C. In Smart Dashboard in the NAT Rules
D. In file $DFWDIR/lib/table.def
300-165 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
The process ___________ is responsible for all other security server processes run on the Gateway.
A. FWD
B. CPLMD
C. FWM
D. CPD

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
The process ________ is responsible for GUI Client communication with the Smart Center.
A. FWD
B. FWM
C. CPD
D. CPLMD
300-165 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
The process ________ is responsible for Policy compilation.
A. FWM
B. Fwcmp
C. CPLMD
D. CPD
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
The process ________ is responsible for Management High Availability synchronization.
A. CPLMD
B. FWM
C. Fwsync
D. CPD
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
_________ is the called process that starts when opening Smart View Tracker application.
A. logtrackerd
B. fwlogd
C. CPLMD
D. FWM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Anytime a client initiates a connection to a server, the firewall kernel signals the FWD process using a trap. FWD spawns the ________ child service, which runs the security server.
A. FWD
B. FWSD
C. In.httpd
D. FWSSD
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Security server configuration settings are stored in _______________ .
A. $FWDIR/conf/AMT.conf

B. $FWDIR/conf/fwrl.conf
C. $FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf
D. $FWDIR/conf/fwopsec.conf
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from running on-demand reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
300-165 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 24 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You want to add another Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports Job Server service. Using the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager, which three tasks must you perform? (Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B, C, D
QUESTION 25 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central Management Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
300-165 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 26 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server? (Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION 27 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups? (Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
300-165 dumps Answer: B, C
QUESTION 28 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space required for the drive holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB

C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C
QUESTION 29 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
300-165 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 30 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter (WCA)? (Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A, B
QUESTION 31 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from the initial Install type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
300-165 vce Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION 32 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal Reports Job Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A
QUESTION 33 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes scheduled List of Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
300-165 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 34 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of the Desktop

Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A
QUESTION 35 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server take when the Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
300-165 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 36 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A, C, D, E
QUESTION 37 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
300-165 pdf Answer: A, B, C, E
QUESTION 38 You are configuring a SQL Server database restore job.You want the restore operation to roll back any uncommitted transactions.Which Recovery Completion State option should you use?
A.Leave torn page repairs offline.
B.Leave database read-only and able to restore additional transaction logs.
C.Leave database operational.No additional transaction logs can be restored.
D.Leave database non-operational, but able to restore additional transaction logs.
Answer: C
QUESTION 39 What is one disadvantage of performing both full and incremental Exchange Server backups every day?
A.High media usage
B.More recovery points
C.Short restore window
D.Corruption detection during offline backups
300-165 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 40 When you configure the Agent for Open Files, what do you select to determine how the agent detects if an open file is ready to be backed up by the backup client?
A.Sync method B.Timing
option C.Execution delay
D.Compare/restore priority
Answer: A
QUESTION 41 Which option is a database level or global level backup method for SQL Server databases?
A.Incremental
B.Time-based
C.Differential
D.Partial
300-165 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 42 In the Job Status Manager, jobs can display various statuses on the Job Queue tab.Examples of valid statuses include: (Choose three)
A.HOLD
B.READY
C.ACTIVE
D.CLOSED
E.PENDING
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION 43 If you configure the Windows client agent to use System Security:
A.The client agent runs under the local system account.
B.The client agent impersonates the administrator at all times.
C.The system enables you to set individual passwords for security.
D.The backup, compare, and restore operations are performed under Windows security.

300-165 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 44 Which information can you obtain using CA ARCserve Backup storage resource management (SRM) reports?
A.Deduplication benefits B.Processor
architecture and speed C.Status of your
virtualized environments
D.Media having encrypted or unencrypted sessions
Answer: B
QUESTION 45 You have media containing a backup session that is not included in the CA ARCserve Backup database.To get the media information into the database, which utility should you use?
A.Copy Utility
B.Merge Utility
C.Diagnostic Utility
D.Media Assure & Scan utility
300-165 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 46 You want to enable a Backup Operator and a Restore Operator to operate jobs submitted by any operator.Which CA ARCserve Backup extended permission should you select?
A.Job Operations
B.Submit Job Options
C.Security Administrator
D.Ownership Checking Exemption Privilege
Answer: D
QUESTION 47 If you need to read and restore blocks of data quickly by bypassing the file system, which restore method should you use?
A.Restore by Backup Media
B.Recover Virtual Machine
C.Restore by Image
D.Restore by Tree
300-165 vce Answer: C

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Following Microsoft 70-480 Dumps 247QAs Are All New Published By Pass4itsure
Question No : 23 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)  You are creating a function by using JavaScript. The function accepts an object as the parameter and returns a string that identifies the data type of the object. You have the following requirements:
The function must return “Number” if the object is a number.
The function must return “String” if the object is a string.
The function must return “Unknown” if the object is neither a number nor a string. You need to implement the function to meet the requirements. How should you build the code segment? (To answer, select the appropriate options from the drop-down lists in the answer area.)

70-480 dumps
70-480 dumps
70-480 dumps
Question No : 24 – (Topic 1) You need to test the value of the following variable in JavaScript. var length = “75”; A block of code must execute if the length equals 75 regardless of the data type. You need to use the statement that meets this requirement. Which lines of code should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. if (length = = = 75)
B. if (length = = 75)
C. if (length! = 75)
D. if (length = = “75”)
70-480 exam Answer: B,D
Question No : 25 – (Topic 1)  You are developing an application that uses a third-party JavaScript library named doWork(). The library occasionally throws an “object is null or undefined” error with an error code of -2146823281.
The application must:
Extract and handle the exceptions thrown by doWork() Continue normal program execution if other exceptions occur You need to implement the requirements. Which code segment should you use?
70-480 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C
Question No : 26 – (Topic 1)  You are troubleshooting a web page that includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-480 dumps

What is displayed in the alert from line 11?
A. Div
B. Function
C. Button
D. Document
70-480 dumps Answer: C
Question No : 27 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a web application that consumes services from a third-party application. A web worker processes the third-party application requests in the background. A page in the application instantiates the web worker process. You need to establish two-way communications between the web worker process and the page.
Which two actions will achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. From the web worker, use the onconnect event handler of the main page to capture events.
B. From the main page, use the onmessage event handler of the web worker to capture
events.
C. From the web worker, use the onmessage event handler of the main page to capture
events.
D. From the main page, use the onconnect event handler of the web worker to capture
events.
Answer: B,C
Reference:
Question No : 28 – (Topic 1)  You are developing an HTML5 web application that displays customer mailing address information. The application loads addresses from a web service by using AJAX. The following code defines a Customer object and loads address data.
70-480 dumps

You need to implement the loadAddress function. Which code segment should you use?
70-480 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-480 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION: 29
Other than an activity, which rule type can be used to populate a declare page? (Choose One)
A. Data Transform
B. Report Definition
C. Decision Table
D. Database
E. All of the above can be used to populate a declare page
Answer: B
QUESTION: 30
When creating a list-type report, which attribute can we NOT specify about the data returned by the report? (Choose One)
A. The format of the data
B. The sort order of the data
C. Whether the data appears on a chart
D. Whether the data should appear in the report or not
70-480 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 31 A manager can create a report in which of the following categories? (Choose One)
A. Only a standard category
B. Only a shared category
C. Only a personal category
D. A shared category or a personal category
E. A standard category or a personal category
F. A standard category, a shared category, or a personal category
Answer: D
QUESTION: 32
Which of the following can be used to define a column in a report? (Choose Two)
A. Another report
B. A SQL function
C. A Java function
D. An exposed property
E. A class join
70-480 exam Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 33
Which of the following definitions is incorrectly matched with one of the 6R’s of PRPC? (Choose One)
A. ResolvinG.Complete the work, then update downstream systems promptly through automated process and automated support of users
B. ReceivinG.Accept and capture the essential data describing work from multiple sources
C. ReportinG.Communicate status, requests for information, and progress to the work originator and to other interested people involved in the work
D. ResearchinG.Support analysis and decision-making by providing access to external systems and databases
Answer: C
QUESTION: 34
(True or False) A business process describes and controls how business is conducted.

A. True
B. False
70-480 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 35
The elements that make up a Business Process Management application include (Choose Three)
A. process
B. user interface
C. forms
D. logic and decisions
E. analyzing
F. routing
Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 36
Which of the following are true statements regarding a work type? (Choose Three)
A. A work type represents a fundamental unit of work to be processed and resolved
B. A work type is a template used to create a work item
C. A work type can be assigned to a user
D. A work type defines the process used to complete, or resolve, work
E. A work type has a unique status
70-480 pdf Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 37
By default, which types of information are automatically added to the history of a work item? (Choose Four)
A. Changes to work status
B. Audit notes
C. Changes to property values
D. Assignment instructions
E. The work type used to create the work item
F. The user who created the work item

Answer: A, B, D, F
QUESTION: 38
What is the key difference between BPM application development and traditional
application development? (Choose One)
A. A BPM application is process-centric (all elements of the application depend upon the process)
B. In a BPM application, elements of the application – such as UI, logic, and data – cannot be modular
C. A traditional application cannot be used in an N-tier environment
D. A traditional application allows for direct execution of the business process, while a
BPM application does not
70-480 vce Answer: A

QUESTION: 40 A ‘strongly typed’ programming language is subject to which two rules? (Choose two.)
A. Every data object must belong to one unique type.
B. All data objects are strongly associated to a local scope.
C. Data object names must be in strong Hungarian notation.
D. Data objects must be of the same type during assignments unless actively overridden.
Answer:AD
QUESTION: 41 Which two most accurately describe the added value of using MDA based transformations? (Choose two.)

A. PIM/PSM distinction
B. PIM/PSM template usage
C. Transformation recording
D. Transformation verification
E. Transformation automation
70-480 exam Answer:AC
QUESTION: 42 What transformation method is a component-based product line architecture most likely to use?
A. QVT
B. Manual C.
Patterns D.
Factoring
E. Automatic
Answer: E
QUESTION: 43 Which statement is true about a PIM?
A. It is always an application-level model.
B. It is sometimes called a domain model.
C. It may be transformed to a PSM using cascaded transformations.
D. It is a set of subsystems that provides functionality through interfaces.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 44 Which statement is true about an interoperability transformation?
A. It is a transformation applied to interoperability connectors.
B. It includes transformation specifications for two different platforms.
C. It is a transformation that distributes a PSM to a multiprocessor system.
D. It transforms two PIMs to a PSM that is interoperable on a single platform.
70-480 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 45 Which statement is NOT true about a PSM?

A. It may abstract away some of the platform details
B. It always includes a detailed model of the platform.
C. It must always be able to produce an implementation.
D. It must always include all details necessary to produce an implementation.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 46 What must include all of the information needed to construct a system and to put it into operation?
A. Platform
B. Viewpoint
C. Implementation
D. Platform Specific Model
70-480 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 47 Which two statements correctly describe the MDA Pattern? (Choose two.)
A. It includes a PIM that is independent of all platforms.
B. A PIM on one context may be a PSM in another context.
C. It includes a PIM that is independent of a specific class of platforms.
D. Once transformed into a PSM, a model will always be viewed as a PSM.
Answer: BC
QUESTION: 48 What are two characteristics of manual transformation in the MDA? (Choose two.)
A. It requires a record of the manual transformation.
B. It is a radical departure from traditional software design methods.
C. It makes an explicit distinction between a platform independent model and the transformed platform specific model.
QUESTION: 49 It adds very little to standard software design practices in use today, but provides a method to incorporate legacy software under the MDA name.
70-480 vce Answer:AC

QUESTION: 50 Most Remote Procedure Calls (RPCs) listen on ports?
A. all well-known ports
B. any port below 512
C. dynamically assigned ports, usually below port 1024
D. dynamically assigned ports, usually above port 1023
Answer: D
QUESTION: 51  In order to mine DHCP client addressing problems, it would be best to mine.
A. RDP and its associated port
B. Bootpc and Bootps (DHCP) and the last known address of the client
C. the last known address of the client
D. the port on the server that the client was attempting to reach
70-480 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 52 Consider this mining filter. Which description most accurately describes what it does?
A. It includes packets in either direction only between network 192.168.1.0/24 and network 10.2.1.0/24.
B. It includes packets sent from network 192.168.1.0/24 to network 10.2.1.0/24.
C. It includes packets in either direction between network 192.168.1.0/24 and other all other networks,
except 10.2.1.0/24.
D. Nothing. No packets would pass this filter.
Answer:A
QUESTION: 53  Reviewing initial data and noting significant trends is part of a process used to.
A. testing a hypothesis
B. isolate an application for conversion

C. profile network usage
D. all of the above
70-480 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 54 If you have captured network traffic and misuse of a network is uncovered, it is usually best to:
A. Confront the individual and record your conversation.
B. Hand the information over to a network security officer or manager.
C. Take the initiative and perform your own investigation.
D. Not inform anyone.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 55 Remote Procedure Calls may change their listening port number when the service is disabled and restarted.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
70-480 pdf Answer:A
QUESTION: 56 Which of the following uses Remote Procedure Calls?
A. Grep
B. Linux and Unix
C. Windows
D. VLANs
E. DNS
Answer: BC
QUESTION: 57 A list of up to 10 of the last file names accessed on an FTP server may be viewed.
A. in the data mining interface (Quick Select) on Files tab
B. in the data mining interface (Quick Select) by creating a custom tab and adding a Files column
C. in the analysis interface in an Expert Application layer object

D. in the analysis interface in an Expert Service layer object
70-480 vce Answer: D
QUESTION: 58  While troubleshooting firewall issues, it is useful to compare:
A. Stream data on the inside, since anything blocked will be on the inside.
B. Stream data on the outside, since anything blocked will be on the outside.
C. Stream data on the inside and outside of the firewall to see what is getting through.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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Following Cisco 210-065 Dumps 281QAs Are All New Published By Pass4itsure

QUESTION 105
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps

An administrator is attempting to register a Cisco TelePresence endpoint to a Cisco VCS. The Cisco VCS uses local authentication and a single username for all endpoints. Where is the first place that the administrator should go to resolve the issue?
A. VCS andgt; Configuration andgt; Authentication andgt; Devices andgt; Local Database
B. Endpoint andgt; Configuration andgt; System Configuration andgt; Profile 1 andgt; Authentication
C. VCS andgt; Configuration andgt; Authentication andgt; Outbound Connection Credentials
D. Endpoint andgt; Configuration andgt; System Configuration andgt; SIP andgt; Profile 1 andgt; Authentication 1
E. VCS andgt; Configuration andgt; Registration andgt; Allow List
F. VCS andgt; Configuration andgt; Registration andgt; Deny List
210-065 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 106
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps

Which tab can be used in order to check the call statistics for the Cisco TelePresence Codec C60?
A. Diagnostics
B. Configuration
C. Call Control

D. Maintenance
E. The GUI cannot be used to view call statistics.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 107
When making a cost-time trade-off in CPM analysis, the first activity that should be crashed is the activity:
A. With the largest amount of slack.
B. With the lowest unit crash cost.
C. On the critical path with the maximum possible time reduction.
D. On the critical path with the lowest unit crash cost.
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When making a cost-time trade-off, the first activity to be crashed (have its completion time accelerated) is one on the critical path. To select an activity on another path would not reduce the total time of completion. The initial activity chosen should be the one with the completion time that can be accelerated at the lowest possible cost per unit of time saved.
QUESTION 108
In PERT, slack is the:
A. Uncertainty associated with time estimates.
B. Difference between the latest starting time and earliest finishing time.
C. Path that has the largest amount of time associated with it.
D. Number of days an activity can be delayed without forcing a delay for the entire project.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Slack is the amount of time that commencement of an activity can be delayed without forcing a delay of the entire project.
QUESTION 109
The network below describes the interrelationships of several activities necessary to complete a project. The arrows represent the activities. The numbers between the arrows indicate the number of months to complete each activity. The shortest time to complete the project is:
A. 5 months.
B. 6 months.
C. 8 months.
D. 14 months.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The critical (longest) path through the network from node (A) to node (F) is path A-C-D-F. All other paths are shorter than path A-C-D-F, so the activities along those paths can be completed before the activities along path A-C-D-F. Thus, the shortest time to complete the project is 8 months (3 + 3 + 2).
QUESTION 110
A shortest-route algorithm is used in network models to:
A. Identify bottlenecks in a network and hence identify the longest path.
B. Minimize total travel time from one site to each of the other sites in a transportation system.
C. Maximize throughput in networks with distinct entry (source node) and exit (sink node) points.
D. Identify the set of connecting branches having the shortest combined length.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Network models are used to solve managerial problems pertaining to project scheduling, information systems design, and transportation systems design. Networks consisting of nodesand arcs may be created to represent in graphic form problems related to transportation, assignment, and transshipment. The shortest-route, minimal spanning tree, and maximal flow problems are other applications of network models. A shortest-route algorithm minimizes total travel time from one site to each of the other sites in a transportation system.
QUESTION 111
The following information and diagram apply to a project: The earliest completion time for the project is:
A. 11 days.
B. 14 days.
C. 15 days.
D. 20 days.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The two paths through the network are A-C-E (5+4 + 6= 15days)andB-D-E (3 + 2 + 6 = 11 days). The critical or longest path is thus A-C-E. Hence, the earliest completion time is 15 days.
QUESTION 112
Which of the following terms is not used in project management?
A. Dummy activity.
B. Latest finish.
C. Optimistic time.
D. Lumpy demand.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project management concerns managing teams assigned to special projects. Lumpy demand refers to periodic demand for a product or service that increases in large, lumpy increments.
QUESTION 113
Activity scheduling information for the installation of a new computer system is given below. For this project, the critical path is:
A. A-C
B. B-E
C. A-D-E
D. B-D-C
210-065 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The critical path is the longest path because it defines the minimum duration of the project. A-D-E (4 + 6 + 5 = 15 days) is the critical path.
QUESTION 114
In a critical path analysis, if slack time in an activity exists, the activity:
A. Is not essential to the overall project.

B. Is a backup activity to replace a main activity should it fail.
C. Could be delayed without delaying the overall project.
D. Involves essentially no time to complete.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Slack is the free time associated with activities not on the critical path. Slack represents unused resources that can be diverted to the critical path.
QUESTION 115
Various tools are employed to control large scale projects. They include all of the following except:
A. PERT.
B. CPM.
C. Statistical process control.
D. Gantt charts.
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Statistical process (quality) control is not used to control large scale projects. Statistical quality control is a method of determining whether the shipment or production run of units lies within acceptable limits. It is also used to determine whether production processes are out of control.
QUESTION 116
Which of the following statements is false regarding the efficient and economical achievement of the organization’s objectives?
A. Economical performance accomplishes objectives with minimal use of resources with no regard to risk exposure.
B. Efficient performance accomplishes objectives in a timely manner.
C. Economical performance accomplishes objectives with minimal use of resources commensurate with the risk exposure.
D. Efficient performance accomplishes objectives in an accurate and economical manner.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Efficient performance accomplishes objectives and goals in an accurate, timely, and economical fashion. Economical performance accomplishes objectives and goals with minimal use of resources (i.e., cost) commensurate with risk exposure. Thus, to achieve economical performance when accomplishing objectives, the minimal cost should correspond to the degree of risk exposure.
QUESTION 117
Queuing models are concerned with balancing the cost of waiting in the queue with the:
A. Cost of providing service.
B. Number of customers in the queue.
C. Average waiting time in the queue.
D. Usage rate for the service being rendered.
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Queuing (waiting-line) models minimize, for a given rate of arrivals, the sum of (1) the cost of providing service (including facility costs and operating costs) and (2) the cost of idle resources waiting in line. The latter may be a direct cost, if paid employees are waiting, or an opportunity cost in the case of waiting customers. This minimization occurs at the point where the cost of waiting is balanced by the cost of providing service.
QUESTION 118
The operating condition that cannot be identified by using a queuing model is the:
A. Average percentage of time that a service facility is idle.
B. Probability of a specified number of units in the queue.
C. Actual amount of time each unit spends in the queue.
D. Average number of units in the system and the mean length of the queue.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Queuing models determine the operating characteristics of a waiting line: the probability that no units are in the system, the average units in the line, the average units in the system, the average time a unit waits, the average time a unit is in the system, the probability that a unit must wait, and the probability of a given number of units in the system. However, the actual time spent in the queue cannot be determined from the model.
QUESTION 119
A bank has changed from a system in which lines are formed in front of each teller to a one-line, multiple-server system. When a teller is free, the person at the head of the line goes to that teller. Implementing the new system will:
A. Decrease the bank’s wage expenses because the new system uses fewer tellers.
B. Decrease time customers spend in the line.

C. Increase accuracy in teller reconciliations at the end of the day because fewer customers are served by each teller.
D. Improve on-the-job training for tellers because each will perform different duties.
210-065 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When all customers must wait in a single queue, a decrease inwaiting time is possible givenmultiple servers. An added effect is to increase customer satisfaction.
QUESTION 120
The drive-through service at a fast-food restaurant consists of driving up to place an order, advancing to a window to pay for the order, and then advancing to another window to receive the items ordered. This type of waiting-line system is:
A. Single channel, single phase.
B. Single channel, multiple phase.
C. Multiple channel, single phase.
D. Multiple channel, multiple phase.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The drive-through represents a single queue (channel}. Because this waiting line has three services in series, it may be said to be multiple phase. Another example is the typical factory assembly line. This terminology (channel, phase), however, is not used by all writers on queuing theory.
QUESTION 121
A post office serves customers in a single line at one service window. During peak periods, the rate of arrivals has a Poisson distribution with an average of 100 customers per hour and service times that are exponentially distributed with an average of 60 seconds per customer. From this, one can conclude that the:
A. Queue will expand to infinity.
B. Server will be idle one-sixth of the time.
C. Average rate is 100 customers per hour.
D. Average customer waiting time is 2.5 minutes.
210-065 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
One hundred customers arrive in line per hour and only 60 are serviced per hour. Accordingly, the queue will expand to infinity during peak periods.
QUESTION 122
The arrival times in a waiting-line (queuing) model follow which probability distribution?
A. Binomial.
B. Chi-square.
C. Poisson.
D. Exponential.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Queuing models assume that arrivals follow a Poisson process: The events (arrivals) are independent, any number of events must be possible in the interval of time, the probability of an event is proportional to the length of the interval, and the probability of more than one event is negligible if the interval is sufficiently small.

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QUESTION 21
Which two VPN types can you monitor and control with Cisco Prime Security Manager? (Choose two.)
A. AnyConnect SSL
B. site-to-site
C. clientless SSL
D. IPsec remote-access
300-209 exam Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 22
Which three options are default settings for NTP parameters on a Cisco ASA? (Choose three.)
A. NTP authentication is enabled.
B. NTP authentication is disabled.
C. NTP logging is enabled.
D. NTP logging is disabled.
E. NTP traffic is not restricted.
F. NTP traffic is restricted.
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 23
You have installed a web server on a private network. Which type of NAT must you implement to enable access to the web server for public Internet users?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. network object NAT
D. twice NAT
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit
300-209 dumps

Which type of ACL is shown in this configuration?
A. IPv4
B. IPv6
C. unified
D. IDFW
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps

Which statement about this access list is true?
A. This access list does not work without 6to4 NAT
B. IPv6 to IPv4 traffic permitted on the Cisco ASA by default
C. This access list is valid and works without additional configuration
D. This access list is not valid and does not work at all
E. We can pass only IPv6 to IPv6 and IPv4 to IPv4 traffic
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which kind of Layer 2 attack targets the STP root bridge election process and allows an attacker to control the flow of traffic?
A. man-in-the-middle
B. denial of service
C. distributed denial of service
D. CAM overflow
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
CORRECT TEXT A. Please check the steps in explanation part below
300-209 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps

What is the effect of this configuration?
A. The firewall will inspect IP traffic only between networks 192.168.1.0 and 192.168.2.0.
B. The firewall will inspect all IP traffic except traffic to 192.168.1.0 and 192.168.2.0.

C. The firewall will inspect traffic only if it is defined within a standard ACL.
D. The firewall will inspect all IP traffic.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which statement about the configuration of the Cisco ASA NetFlow v9 (NSEL) is true ?
A. To view bandwidth usage for the NetFlow record, you must enable QoS features
B. Use sysopt command to enable NSEL on a specific interface
C. NSEL can be used without a collector configured
D. NSEL tracks the flow continuously and provides updates every 10 seconds
E. You must define a flow-export event type under a policy
300-209 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 30
By default, not all services in the default inspection class are inspected. Which Cisco ASA CLI command do you use to determine which inspect actions are applied to the default inspection class?
A. show policy-map global_policy
B. show policy-map inspection_default
C. show class-map inspection_default
D. show class-map default-inspection-traffic
E. show service-policy global
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION: 31
You have created the following WSDL definition to describe a PO service that accepts
purchase orders submitted by customers:
  However, when you try to use this WSDL definition, your system returns an error message stating that it is invalid due to a problem with namespaces. Which of the following revised WSDL definitions correct the problem?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
300-209 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 32
You are in the process of designing a service that manages content in a database of medical images. The service is able to add, update and delete images in the database.
Each of these three functions requires a separate message exchange with the service.
Therefore, the XML schema for this service provides an “addimage” element, an “updateimage” element and a “deleteimage” elements for the request messages, and
separate “addlmageResponse,” “updateimageResponse” and “deletelmageResponse”
elements for the response messages. Which of the following describes the minimum
number of WSDL “message”, “operation”, “portType”, “binding”, and “service”
elements that the WSDL definition must have for this service?
A. 6 “message” elements, 3 “operation” elements,1 “portType” element, 1 “binding” element, 1 “service” element
B. 3 “message” elements. 3 “operation” elements,1 “portType” element, 1 “binding”
element, 1 “service” element
C. 6 “message” elements, 6 “operation” elements, 3 “portType” elements, 1 “binding”
element, 1 “service” element
D. 6 “message” elements, 3 “operation” elements, 3 “portType” elements, 3 “binding”
elements, 1 “service” element
Answer: A
QUESTION: 33
You have developed a Library service that provides an “AddBook” operation that is able to add a book record to a library system. This operation accepts a message based on an “AddBookRequest” element that contains book record details, such as its author and title. It then responds with a message based on the “AddBookResponse” element that acknowledges that the book was successfully added. Below is the current WSDL definition:

You are asked to extend this WSDL definition in order to add a new “DeleteBook” operation that is able to receive a request message based on the “DeleteBookRequest” element and reply with a response message based on the “DeleteBookResponse” element. Which of the following describes the minimum number of message, operation and “portType” elements that will need to be added in order to fulfill these requirements?
A. 2 “message” elements, 2 “operation” elements, 1 “portType” element
B. 2 “message” elements, 2 “operation” elements, zero “portType” elements
C. 1 “message” elements, 1 “operation” element, 1 “portType” element
D. 2 “message” elements, 1 “operation” element, zero “portType” elements
300-209 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 34
You are building the Balance Request service that allows customers to request their current account balance. You have developed the following schema (called “balanceRequest.xsd”) to define the elements used in the messages exchanged by the
service:
 The “balanceRequest” element is to be used as the basis of the request message sent by a customer to the service. The “balanceResponse” element is to be used as the basis of the response message sent out by the service. Which of the following WSDL definitions correctly describes this service?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C
QUESTION: 35
You have written the following XML schema to describe a message that contains
employee payroll information:
  Your company’s enterprise architecture team reviewed your schema to ensure that it conforms to internal design standards used for XML development. They have notified you that although your XML schema is technically correct, it must use the “xsd” prefix for the XML Schema namespace, rather than making it the default namespace. Which of the following revised XML schemas complies to this internal design standard while retaining its original meaning?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
300-209 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 36
A new requirement comes your way to create a Pay service that needs to be able to
retrieve employee payroll information. To fulfill this requirement, you first define the following XML schema (called “Pay.xsd”) that describes the structure of the messages that will need to be exchanged by the Pay service: The “PayLookup” element is intended to represent the request message received by the Pay service. It contains the “empNumber” child element that will provide the employee number used by the Pay service to carry out the search. The “PayLookupResponse” element is intended to represent the response message returned by the Pay service after it has collected the requested employee payroll data. This element contains the same “empNumber” child element along with a “annualSalary” child element and a “yearToDateSalary” child element. Your next task is to incorporate this schema into the Pay service’s WSDL definition. Which of the following correctly maps elements declared in the XML schema to WSDL elements?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A
QUESTION: 37
You work for a local police department and you just finished building a new Crime
Search service that allows police detectives to search a criminal database based on personal traits. The service returns identifying information for people that best meets
the search criteria. The schema for the service is shown here: A police department in a neighboring region wants to start using the Crime Search service. To help them build a service consumer program that will be able to interact with the service, they have requested that you provide them with two sample XML documents that show typical input and output message data. Which of the following pairs of XML elements will validate with the schema shown above?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
300-209 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 38
You are building the Quote Request service that allows other services to request the
current value of a stock. You have developed the following WSDL definition for this service:
  The “message” element named “QuoteRequestMessage” represents the request message sent to the service and the “message” element named “QuoteResponseMessage” represents the response message that the service responds with. Your next task is to
define the concrete description for this WSDL definition and you start with the “binding” element. This of the following represents the correct “binding” element for this WSDL definition?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B
QUESTION: 39
You are asked to create an XML schema for a Postal service that accepts an address and returns the corresponding postal code. You are given the following specific instructions as to how the XML schema should be designed:
– The XML schema requires two elements named “PostalCodeLookup” and “PostalCodeResponse”.
– The “PostalCodeLookup” element must contain child elements named “address1”,
“address2,” “city”, “stateOrRegion” and “country”,in that order. Each of these elements must have the type string.
– The “PostalCodeResponse” element must contain only the postal code as a string and this element must not have any child elements. Which of the following XML schemas fulfills the requirements while also following the instructions?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

300-209 dumps Answer: C

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QUESTION 86
An audit manager has just returned from an executive training program and has suggested that the audit department develop a mathematical model to help identify factors that may be causing changes in the cost of production. According to the manager, the model should recognize that the company currently has three separate production (cost) centers. Which of the following approaches would best provide the analysis suggested by the audit manager?
A. Develop a classical variables sampling estimate of cost of production per department, with the sample stratified by the dollar value of each product produced.
B. Develop a 3-year ratio analysis of the cost of production compared to the cost of raw inventory across the three departments.
C. Develop a multiple regression analysis of production costs, including such variables as raw material inventory costs, number of employees in the department, and overtime pay.
D. Develop a linear regression analysis relating the cost of production to the cost of goods sold.
70-761 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Regression analysis extends correlation to find an equation for the linear relationship among variables. The behavior of a dependent variable, such as cost of production, is explained in terms of one or more independent variables (for example, raw material costs, employees, overtime). Thus, multiple regression analysis determines functional relationships among quantitative variables.
QUESTION 87
A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers: The technique used in analyzing the problem is best described as:
A. Simulation theory.
B. Integrated autoregressive-moving average (ARIMA) modeling.
C. Linear programming.
D. Differential calculus.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer (A) is correct. Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical/mathematical models using a computer. Despite the power of mathematics, many
problems cannot be solved by known analytical methods because of the behavior of the variables and the complexity of their interactions. However, the performance of a quantitative model under uncertainty may be investigated by randomly selecting values for each of the variables in the model (based on the probability distribution of each variable) and then calculating the value of the solution. If this process is performed a large number of times, the distribution of results from the model will be obtained.
QUESTION 88
A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers:
The process of making sure that the model measures what it is supposed to measure is called:
A. Statistical inference.
B. Hypothesis testing.
C. Confidence coefficient analysis.
D. Validation.
70-761 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Validation is a step in the simulation procedure. Some assurance is needed that the results of the experiment will be realistic. This assurance requires validation of the model –often using historical data. If the model gives results equivalent to what actually happened, the model is historically valid. There is still some risk, however, that changes could make the model invalid for the future.
QUESTION 89
The marketing department of a company is deciding on the price to charge for a key product. In setting this price, marketing needs to consider the price that a major competitor will charge for a similar product because the competitor’s price will affect the demand for the company’s product. Similarly, in setting its price, the competitor will consider what the company will charge. What is an appropriate mathematical technique for analyzing such a decision?
A. Game theory.
B. Probability theory.
C. Linear programming.
D. Sensitivity analysis.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Game (or decision) theory is a mathematical approach to decision making when confronted with an enemy or competitor. Games are classified according to the number of players and the algebraic sum of the payoffs. In a two-person game, if the payoff is given by the loser to the winner, the algebraic sum is zero and the game is called a zero-sum game. If it is possible for both players to profit, however, the game is a positive-sum game. Mathematical models have been developed to select optimal strategies for certain simple games.
QUESTION 90
Because of the large number of factors that could affect the demand for its new product, interactions among these factors, and the probabilities associated with different values of these factors, the marketing department would like to develop a computerized model for projecting demand for this product. By using a random number procedure to generate values for the different factors .it will be able to estimate the distribution of demand for this new product. This method of estimating the distribution of demand for the new product is called:
A. Monte Carlo simulation.
B. Linear programming.
C. Correlation analysis.
D. Differential analysis.
70-761 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulations that use a random-number procedure to generate values for the inputs areMonte Carlo simulations.
QUESTION 91
A large fishing operation has information on the interval, time, and probabilities of shrimp schools staying beneath their fishing boats. In order to use this information to predict when and where to send their boats, which of the following techniques should be used?
A. Simulation.
B. Least squares.

C. Queuing theory.
D. Exponential smoothing.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical and mathematical models using a computer. Because of the behavior of the many variables involved and the complexity of their interactions, many problems cannot be solved using simple algebraic formulas. The availability of computer spreadsheets makes the construction of simulation models a practical alternative for all entities.
QUESTION 92
A cost-volume-profit model developed in a dynamic environment determined that the estimated parameters used may vary between limits. Subsequent testing of
the model with respect to all possible values of the estimated parameters is termed:
A. A sensitivity analysis.
B. Statistical estimation.
C. Statistical hypothesis testing.
D. A time-series study.
70-761 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
After a problem has been formulated into any mathematical model, it may be subjected to sensitivity analysis. Sensitivity analysis examines how the model’s
outcomes change as the parameters change.
QUESTION 93
A company is deciding whether to purchase an automated machine to manufacture one of its products. Expected net cash flows from this decision depend on several factors, interactions among those factors, and the probabilities associated with different levels of those factors. The method that the company should use to evaluate the distribution of net cash flows from this decision and changes in net cash flows resulting from changes in levels of various factors is:
A. Simulation and sensitivity analysis.
B. Linear programming.
C. Correlation analysis.
D. Differential analysis.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical and mathematical models using a computer. Sensitivity analysis examines how the model’s outcomes change as the parameters change.

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps

The network associate is configuring OSPF on the Core router. All the connections to the branches should be participating in OSPF. The link to the ISP should NOT participate in OSPF and should only be advertised as the default route. What set of commands will properly configure the Core router?
A. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
B. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.13 0.0.0.242 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
C. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.16 0.0.0.15 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
D. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.32 0.0.0.31 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
200-105 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
There are two ways to inject a default route into a normal area.1. If the ASBR already has the default route in its routing table, you can advertise theexisting 0.0.0.0/0 into the OSPF domain with th
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps

Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?
A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.
C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1.
D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.128, and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.
E. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation/Reference:
First, notice that the more-specific routes will always be favored over less-specific routes regardless of the administrative distance set for a protocol. In this case, because we use OSPF for three
QUESTION 3
Scenario Refer to the topology. Your company has connected the routers R1. R2. and R3 with serial links. R2 and R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2, respectively. SW1 and SW2 are also connected to the routers R4 and R5. The EIGRP routing protocol is configured. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers. Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
200-105 dumps

200-105 dumps

200-105 dumps

200-105 dumps200-105 dumps

Which path does traffic take from R1 to R5?
A. The traffic goes through R2.
B. The traffic goes through R3.
C. The traffic is equally load-balanced over R2 and R3.
D. The traffic is unequally load-balanced over R2 and R3.
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?
A. 0000.5E00.01A3
B. 0007.B400.AE01
C. 0000.0C07.AC15
D. 0007.5E00.B301
Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which identification number is valid for an extended ACL?
A. 1
B. 64
C. 99
D. 100
E. 299
F. 1099
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows andquot;PVC STATUS = INACTIVEandquot;. What does this mean?
A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes.
B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address of the remote router.
C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger a call to the remote router.
D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC.
E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.
200-105 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The PVC STATUS displays the status of the PVC. The DCE device creates and sends the report to the DTE devices. There are 4 statuses: ACTIVE: the PVC is operational and can transmit dataI
QUESTION 8
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
200-105 exam Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation/Reference:
Each packet that is forwarded within a router or switch is examined for a set of IP packet attributes. These attributes are
the IP packet identity or fingerprint of the packet and determine if the
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps

A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the
problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.

E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
Whenever a node needs to send data to another node on a network, it must first know where to send it. If the node cannot directly connect to the destination node, it has to send it via other nodes a

200-105 dumps

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Exam Code: 70-246
Exam Name: Monitoring and Operating a Private Cloud with System Center 2012
Q&As: 153

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Question: 1
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure. You create a host group named HostGroup1. You move several Hyper-V hosts to HostGroup1. You plan to manage Windows updates for the hosts in HostGroup1 by using VMM. An administrator creates a baseline as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-246 dumps

You discover that the updates defined in the baseline are not applied to the hosts in HostGroup1. You need to ensure that the required updates are deployed to the hosts in HostGroup1. What should you do?
A. Copy the required updates to the VMM library server.
B. Synchronize the Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server.
C. Modify the properties of HostGroup1.
D. Modify the properties of the baseline.
70-246 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
You can see from the exhibit, the baseline the administrator created is not applied. To apply a baseline, you modify the properties of the baseline to select the hosts and groups. Source information: How to Configure Update Baselines in VMM VMM provides two sample built-in updates baselines that you can use to apply security updates and critical updates to the computers in your VMM environment. Before you can use a baseline,
 you must assign it to host groups, host clusters, or individual managed computers. The following procedure explains how to assign computers to the sample security baseline. To assign computers to a built-in update baseline Open the Library workspace. On the Library pane, expand Update Catalog and Baselines, and then click Update Baselines. The Baselines pane displays the two built-in baselines: Sample Baseline for Security Updates and
Sample Baseline for Critical Updates. On the Baselines pane, click Sample Baseline for Security Updates. On the Home page, in the Properties group, click Properties. The Properties dialog box for the Sample Baseline for Security Updates opens. Note On the left of the dialog box, click Updates to open the Updates page. On the Updates page, optionally add or remove update baselines from the baselines that are listed. The Sample Baseline for Security Updates includes all security updates. To ensure that all security
updates are remediated, do not remove any baselines. Click Assignment Scope to open the Assignment Scope page and then, select host groups, host clusters, and computers to add to the baseline. Computers are represented by the roles they perform in VMM. When you select a role, such as VMM server, all the roles that the computer performs in VMM are selected. For example, if your VMM management server is also a library server, selecting your VMM management server under VMM Server causes the same computer under Library Servers to be selected. To apply a baseline to all hosts, select the All Hosts root host group. Click OK to save your changes.

Question: 2
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The Service Manager management server is installed on a server named Server1. The Configuration Manager site server is installed on a server named Server2. You create a baseline and several configuration items. You need to configure Service Manager to create incidents for each Service Manager configuration item that is non-complaint with the baseline. What should you create?
A. a task and a Desired Configuration Management Event Workflow
B. a channel and a subscription
C. a connector and a Desired Configuration Management Event Workflow
D. a subscription, a connector, and a task
Answer: C
Explanation:
A connector is required to bring data from Configuration Manager into Service Manager. From there, you create a Desired Configuration management Event Workflow. Using Connectors to Import Data into System Center 2012 – Service Manager
Question: 3
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The network contains 50 virtual machines that run Windows 7. Each virtual machine has an application named Appl.exe installed. A new version of Appl.exe is released. You need to identify which virtual machines have the outdated version of App1.exe installed. What should you do?
A. From Operations Manager, create a monitor.
B. From Configuration Manager, deploy a Desired Configuration Management baseline.
C. From Service Manager, create a Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) connector.
D. From Virtual Machine Manager (VMM), deploy a service template.
70-246 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
Desired configuration management in Configuration Manager 2007 allows you to assess the compliance of computers with regard to a number of configurations, such as whether the correct Microsoft Windows operating system versions are installed and configured appropriately, whether all required applications are installed and configured correctly, whether optional applications are configured appropriately, and whether prohibited applications are installed. Additionally, you can check for compliance with software updates and security settings.

Question: 4
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. You deploy Data Protection Manager (DPM) to a server named DPM1. A server named Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed and hosts a virtual machine named VM1. From DPM1, you perform a full backup of Server1. You discover that you are unable to restore individual files from VM1. You need to ensure that you can restore individual files from VM1 by using the DPM Administrator console. What should you do first?
A. On VM1, install Windows Server Backup.
B. On DPM1, attach the VHD of VM1.
C. On DPM1, install the Hyper-V server role.
D. On VM1, install the integration features.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In either case, DPM utilizes the Hyper-V VSS writer to synchronize block-level differences within the VHDs using a process called an “Express Full”, which identifies which blocks have changed in the entire VHD and then sends just the updated blocks or fragments. This provides a complete and consistent image of the virtual hard disk files on the DPM server or appliance. DPM maintains up to
  512 shadow copies of the full VHD set by storing only the block-level differences between any two images.

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Exam Code: 700-172
Exam Name: FlexPod Sales
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION NO: 1
You work as a Network Auditor for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. While auditing the company’s network, you are facing problems in searching the faults and other entities that belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?
A. Residual risk
B. Secondary risk
C. Detection risk
D. Inherent risk
700-172 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
Detection risks are the risks that an auditor will not be able to find what they are looking to detect. Hence, it becomes tedious to report negative results when material conditions (faults) actually exist. Detection risk includes two types of risk: Sampling risk: This risk occurs when an auditor falsely accepts or erroneously rejects an audit sample. Nonsampling risk: This risk occurs when an auditor fails to detect a condition because of not applying the appropriate procedure or using procedures inconsistent with the audit objectives (detection faults). Answer: A is incorrect. Residual risk is the risk or danger of an action or an event, a method or a (technical) process that, although being abreast with science, still conceives these dangers, even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied (scientifically conceivable measures). The formula to calculate residual risk is (inherent risk) x (control risk) where inherent risk is (threats vulnerability). In the economic context, residual means “the quantity left over at the end of a process; a remainder”. Answer: D is incorrect. Inherent risk, in auditing, is the risk that the account
or section being audited is materially misstated without considering internal controls due to error or fraud. The assessment of inherent risk depends on the professional judgment of the auditor, and it is done after assessing the business environment of the entity being audited. Answer: B is incorrect. A secondary risk is a risk that arises as a straight consequence of implementing a risk response. The secondary risk is an outcome of dealing with the original risk. Secondary risks are not as rigorous or important as primary risks, but can turn out to be so if not estimated and planned properly.
QUESTION NO: 2
The National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP) is the
minimum standard process for the certification and accreditation of computer and telecommunications systems that handle U.S. national security information. Which of the following
 participants are required in a NIACAP security assessment? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Certification agent
B. Designated Approving Authority
C. IS program manager
D. Information Assurance Manager
E. User representative
700-172 dumps Answer: A,B,C,E
Explanation:
The NIACAP roles are nearly the same as the DITSCAP roles. Four minimum
participants (roles) are required to perform a NIACAP security assessment: IS program manager:
The IS program manager is the primary authorization advocate. He is responsible for the
Information Systems (IS) throughout the life cycle of the system development. Designated
Approving Authority (DAA): The Designated Approving Authority (DAA), in the United States Department of Defense, is the official with the authority to formally assume responsibility for operating a system at an acceptable level of risk. Certification agent: The certification agent is also referred to as the certifier. He provides the technical expertise to conduct the certification throughout the system life cycle. User representative: The user representative focuses on system availability, access, integrity, functionality, performance, and confidentiality in a Certification and Accreditation (C&A) process. Answer: D is incorrect. Information Assurance Manager (IAM) is one of the key participants in the DIACAP process.
QUESTION NO: 3 DRAG DROP
Drop the appropriate value to complete the formula.
Answer:
Explanation:

A Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the value in dollar ($) that is assigned to a single event. The SLE can be calculated by the following formula: SLE = Asset Value ($) X Exposure Factor (EF) The Exposure Factor (EF) represents the % of assets loss caused by a threat. The EF is required to calculate the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE). The Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) can be calculated by multiplying the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) with the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) X Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) is a number that represents the estimated frequency in which a threat is expected to occur. It is calculated based upon the probability of the event occurring and the number of employees that could make that event occur.
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following penetration testing techniques automatically tests every phone line in an exchange and tries to locate modems that are attached to the network?
A. Demon dialing
B. Sniffing
C. Social engineering
D. Dumpster diving
700-172 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
The demon dialing technique automatically tests every phone line in an exchange and tries to locate modems that are attached to the network. Information about these modems can then be used to attempt external unauthorized access. Answer: B is incorrect. In sniffing, a protocol analyzer is used to capture data packets that are later decoded to collect information such as passwords or infrastructure configurations. Answer: D is incorrect. Dumpster diving technique is used for searching paper disposal areas for unshredded or otherwise improperly disposed-of reports. Answer: C is incorrect. Social engineering is the most commonly used technique of all, getting information (like passwords) just by asking for them.

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