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QUESTION 1
An administrator is tasked to reduce the company’s datacenter power utilization. Currently there are 500
physical servers in the datacenter and 600 virtual servers with five additional available host servers. Which
of the following should the administrator perform?
A. Migrate servers using V2V technology
B. Perform an offline migration of virtual servers
C. Migrate servers using V2P technology
D. Migrate servers using P2V technology
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
An administrator is tasked with installing an application patch on a virtual server. The administrator needs
the ability to restore the server to its previous state quickly if the patch corrupts the system. Which of the
following should the administrator do to accomplish this task?
A. Install the patch on a development server
B. Create a full backup
C. Create a snapshot
D. Install the patch on a test server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following cloud delivery models presents the LEAST vulnerabilities to a company’s existing
network?
A. Hybrid
B. Community
C. Public
D. Private
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following uses the business model of shared resources in a cloud environment?
A. Elasticity
B. Self-serve
C. Cloud bursting
D. Multi-tenancy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is used to locate a specific area of storage in a cloud environment?
A. Object ID
B. SAN
C. Replicas
D. Metadata
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following can be done after an administrator deploys a virtual server to ensure that the server
vNIC can communicate to the physical network?
A. Bridge the vNIC
B. Set the vNIC speed to half-duplex
C. Add an addition vNIC
D. Set the vNIC speed to full-duplex
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
After an administrator successfully migrated the last physical application server to a virtual environment,
the help desk reported slow performance. Which of the following should the administrator have done
FIRST before migrating this server?
A. Apply operating system patches to the application server after the migration.
B. Contact the vendor to see if the application is supported in a virtual environment.
C. Take a backup of the application server after the migration.
D. Migrate the application server in a test environment and have users test it.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following would be used to establish a dedicated connection in a hybrid cloud environment?
A. CHAP
B. AES
C. PKI
D. VPN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An administrator deployed a DaaS cloud delivery model for a financial institution and implemented a data
encryption technology using AES cryptography. Which of the following should the administrator implement
NEXT?
A. Access controls
B. RC5
C. SSL
D. Zoning
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An administrator deployed ten application servers from a single VM template. A senior administrator
notices that these ten VMs are not using their resources efficiently. Which of the following is MOST likely
the issue with the new servers?
A. The dynamic resource pool is malfunctioning.
B. The server is missing security patches.
C. The VM servers were not properly configured.
D. There are insufficient resources available on the host.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which of the following storage technologies is file-based?A. WAN
B. DAS
C. SAN
D. NAS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which of the following storage technologies can leverage switches in its implementation?
A. HBA
B. DAS
C. SCSI
D. SAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following RAID configuration would be used to accomplish disk mirroring with two disks?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which of the following only uses Fibre Channel to implement a storage infrastructure?
A. NFS
B. SAN
C. NAS
D. SMB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which of the following solutions primarily relies on private cloud resources but may use public cloud
resources based on capacity requirements?
A. Rapid deployment
B. Cloud bursting
C. Multi-tenancy
D. Pay-as-you-grow
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
An employee is asked to run an instance of a Linux OS while booted up in a Windows OS. Which of the
following types of virtualization would be used to meet this requirement?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Bare Metal
D. NativeCorrect Answer: B

QUESTION 17
A small startup wins a contest giving them advertising time during a major sporting event. Which of the
following cloud characteristics should be in place to handle the possible spike in demand?
A. Shared disk space
B. Elasticity
C. Scalability
D. Shared memory
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which of the following components should be virtualized and added to cloud infrastructure to ensure virtual
servers are only able to access the volumes assigned to them?
A. NAS
B. DAS
C. LUN
D. HBA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which of the following can be used to protect data integrity when information is being written to a SAN
from multiple clients?
A. Port Zoning
B. SAN Zoning
C. LUN Masking
D. Multipathing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Several servers are connected to a SAN using three storage devices and FCoE for transmissions. These
servers only need to access one SAN device. All servers, the SAN, and the HBA are virtualized. Which of
the following should be used to ensure access is controlled appropriately between devices? (Select TWO).
A. LUN Masking
B. Hard Zoning
C. Supernetting
D. Soft Zoning
E. Subnetting
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 21
An administrator is called in to determine why a virtual desktop has been unable to connect to the
corporate network. Which of the following should be run to determine if the adapter is enabled? (Select
TWO).
A. ipconfig
B. netstat
C. ping
D. ifconfigE. iwconfig
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 22
Which of the following should be installed on VMs to report and take action against potential threats?
A. NIDS
B. HIPS
C. NIPS
D. HIDS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which of the following will explain why only some of the CPU cycles are available to a virtualized server
using two virtualized processors?
A. Extra processing is needed to store encryption keys used for secure transmission between the server
and the network.
B. Additional processing is used to run ports and services not turned off through the process of server
hardening.
C. Some processing is required for operational overhead on the processor and between the physical and
virtualized processors.
D. Significant processing is used to create and maintain the cache on multi-core processors.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which of the following would be used to prove the existence of vulnerabilities on a network?
A. Penetration testing
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. Business impact analysis
D. Risk assessment
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which of the following is MOST likely to be retrieved from an individually addressable blob?
A. An object ID
B. A hash
C. A sequence number
D. An image
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which of the following is true about a Type II hypervisor?
A. It requires a primary hypervisor to function properly.
B. It implements stronger security controls than a Type I supervisor at the same patch level.
C. It provides slower performance than a Type I hypervisor installed on the same hardware.
D. It provides direct hardware access through the use of specialized drivers.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
An enterprise hypervisor offers which of the following benefits over a workstation hypervisor?
A. Ability to create templates
B. Ability to provision more than 2 vCPUs
C. Snapshots
D. Live storage migration
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
In order to enhance security on a SAN, which of the following should be configured?
A. ZFS
B. LUN
C. VSAN
D. Zoning
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
An administrator has provisioned a LUN on a SAN and wants to be able to connect a VM to the new
storage using SCSI commands sent across the LAN. Which of the following should be configured on the
VM?
A. Virtual NIC
B. Virtual HBA
C. Virtual SAN
D. LUN masking
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
A company has tasked an administrator with virtualizing the server farm and wants to adhere to the
principle of n+1. The administrator has analyzed the resource consumption of the current server farm and
observes the following:
5 application servers consuming 12 GB RAM each.
4 web servers consuming 2 GB RAM each.
10 terminal servers consuming 6 GB RAM each.
Which of the following is the MINIMUM necessary to meet the requirements of the new host cluster?
A. 1 host with 196GB RAM
B. 2 hosts with 64GB RAM each
C. 3 hosts with 128GB RAM each
D. 4 hosts with 24GB RAM each
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
An administrator has installed a new NAS and is now attempting to optimize the servers for best
performance when communicating with the NAS. Modifying which of the following would MOST likely
enhance throughput?
A. Page file
B. Multipath I/O
C. N_Port settings
D. Jumbo frames
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Which of the following would provide the ability to perform transparent page sharing?
A. Type I hypervisor
B. Logical arrays
C. Type II hypervisor
D. Journal file system
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
A system administrator has a server that has lost one of its connections to an adjacent server room. The
server can still be accessed remotely through its single network interface; however, it has lost access to
some of its drives. Which of the following is MOST likely correct?
A. The system has exceeded its disk latency threshold and has disabled its NIC.
B. The system has memory issues which are causing the OS to incorrectly define drives.
C. The system is having intermittent network issues.
D. The system is having an HBA failure or disconnection.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Which of the following BEST describes a copy of data?
A. Access control
B. Replicas
C. Metadata
D. Extended metadata
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
After receiving a report from the helpdesk that a database application is exhibiting degraded performance,
the storage administrator detected an issue. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue that was
discovered resulting in the degraded performance?
A. NIC failure
B. Power supply failure
C. Disk failure
D. HBA failure
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which of the following is used to handle non-sensitive information in a datacenter and can be moved to the
public cloud to free up local resources and meet high demands?
A. Chargeback
B. Cloud bursting
C. Automation
D. Rapid deployment
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Which of the following is a type of hypervisor that runs on another operating system instead of running
directly on the host’s hardware?
A. Type II
B. Indirect access
C. Direct access
D. Type I
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
One of the administrators of a cloud service provider has been asked to assist one of its newest customers
to deploy a multi-tier application (web, application, and database). The architecture design does not
specify where each service should reside and the customer is asking for a recommendation. Which of the
following should be recommended?
A. Application server should be placed in the DMZ
B. Database server should be placed in the DMZ
C. DMZ are only used for single-tier infrastructure
D. Web server should be placed in the DMZ
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
An IT professional is considering the migration of an on-line store to the cloud due to high variation in
demand. Which of the following cloud characteristics is key?
A. Elasticity
B. Security
C. Scalability
D. Standardization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
A shipment company is looking to streamline some of their business activity. They are considering the
automation of a number of electronic services. The company handles confidential documents and
confidential data. Which of the following service options would the company choose?
A. Automated business process tools delivered by a public cloud provider
B. Community cloud
C. On-demand/self-service private cloud
D. On-demand/self-service public cloud
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 41
In the process of streamlining the IT activity, a company has considered the delivery of a number of
services from a cloud. The best identified candidates were the newly acquired CRM and Help- Desk
platforms. Which of the following would be their choice considering the company offers a 24/7 help line/self
service portal to both their internal users and customers?
A. SaaS deployed on Public Cloud
B. PaaS deployed on Private Cloud
C. BPaaS deployed on a Hybrid Cloud
D. IaaS deployed on a Hybrid Cloud
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
Which of the following would be used to mitigate the risk of an unauthorized party authenticating into the
network?
A. Install a software-based firewall
B. Establish a baseline and review logs daily
C. Install antivirus software
D. Disable the administrator account
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 43
A company that provides Software as a Service wants to prevent the application code from being modified.
Which of the following techniques should be used to accomplish this task?
A. Obfuscation
B. Encryption
C. Auditing
D. Signing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 44
An administrator is planning to implement multipathing for iSCSI-connected storage. Which of the following
is required for this configuration?
A. Multiple gateways configured on the subnet
B. At least one HBA on the server
C. Multiple HBAs on the server
D. Multiple IP addresses on the storage device
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 45
Which of the following is a disk interface type that has the BEST performance?
A. NAS
B. SAN
C. SAS
D. SSD
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 46
Which of the following can be used to enable additional network interfaces on a router?
A. SNMP
B. WMI
C. Syslog
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 47
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is selecting a hardware network solution that will optimize the WAN
between company locations in North America and Europe. Which of the following can be changed by third-
party hardware?A. IP latency
B. TCP flow control
C. Ethernet bandwidth
D. UDP latency
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 48
A number of virtual servers suddenly crash, but the physical host is accessible and performing within the
baseline. Which of the following should be done to troubleshoot the issue?
A. Review the dump files on the physical host to determine the reason(s) for the failure.
B. Check the SAN configuration and ensure storage is available.
C. Change from thin to thick-provisioned virtual disks for the virtual machines.
D. Re-enable the physical NIC on the affected hosts.
Correct Answer: B

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Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are working on an Azure Machine Learning experiment. You have the dataset configured as shown in the following table.
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B. Tune Model Hyperparameters
C. Normalize Data
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G. Clip Values
H. Clean Missing Data
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E. Implement feature ranking.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
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C. Replace the missing values in Column3 with a mean value.
D. Remove the rows that have the missing values in Column3.
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a correct entry in the /etc/hosts file?
A. localhost 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain
B. localhost.localdomain localhost 127.0.0.1
C. localhost localhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1
D. 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain localhost
E. localhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1 localhost
LX0-104 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements is valid in the file /etc/nsswitch.conf?
A. multi on
B. 192.168.168.4 dns-server
C. hosts: files dns
D. include /etc/nsswitch.d/
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is NTP?
A. A more secure protocol replacement for FTP.
B. A protocol for synchronizing time on computers.
C. A routing aid for finding next hops on a network.
D. A simple tunnelling protocol for computers behind firewalls.
LX0-104 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following files, when existing, affect the behavior of the Bash shell? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. ~/.bashconf
B. ~/.bashrc
C. ~/.bashdefaults
D. ~/.bash_etc
E. ~/.bash_profile
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements is true regarding the /etc/shadow file?
A. /etc/shadow may not be readable or writable by user root.
B. Only root is allowed to read and write /etc/shadow.
C. All users have full read and write access to /etc/shadow.
D. All users have full read access to /etc/shadow.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Why should a regular user edit his personal crontab by using the command crontab instead of just editing his crontab file manually?
A. Because user specific crontab entries are stored in a common database and must be extracted before editing.
B. Because crontab starts the cron daemon in case it is not running due to no other crontab entries existing.
C. Because user specific crontab entries are stored in a special directory which is maintained by the cron daemon and
not writable for regular users.
D. Because crontab collects information about all users crontabs and recommends similar commands used by other users of the system.
LX0-104 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is true regarding the mail queue of a mail server? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. The messages in the queue must be readable by all users as the queue may contain messages for several users.
B. According to the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard (FHS) the queue is located at /var/mail/spool.
C. There is exactly one mail queue per user which holds all new messages for that user before they are moved to other
folders by the user\’s mail client.
D. The queue holds all messages that are processed by the mail server but have not yet been completely delivered.
E. The content of the mail queue can be queried by the command mailq.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 8
Which of the following files holds the configuration for journald when running systemd?
A. /etc/systemd/journalctl.conf
B. /etc/systemd/journald.conf
C. /etc/systemd/systemd-journald.conf
D. /etc/systemd/systemd-journalctl.conf
E. /usr/lib/systemd/journalctl.conf
LX0-104 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following commands can be used to associate open TCP ports with the processes that opened the ports?
A. ptrace
B. strace
C. debug
D. nessus
E. lsof
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
When the command echo $? outputs 1, which of the following statements are true?
A. It is the process ID of the echo command.
B. It is the process ID of the current shell.
C. It is the exit value of the command executed immediately before echo.
D. It is the exit value of the echo command.
LX0-104 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What entry can be added to the syslog.conf file to have all syslog messages generated by a system displayed on
console 12?
A. *.* /dev/tty12
B. /var/log/messages | /dev/tty12
C. | /dev/tty12
D. syslog tty12
E. mail.* /dev/tty12
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following details can be found in an entry of a user specific crontab? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. The verbal description of the job.
B. The syslog facility to where the output of the job should be sent.
C. The time when the cron job should run.
D. The command that should be started by the cron job.
E. The name of the user which should run the job.
LX0-104 dumps Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 13
Which of the following commands are used to manage the environment and shell variables within a shell process? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. export
B. init
C. reset
D. set
E. tset
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
What is true about the ntpdate command?
A. It is the primary management command for the NTP time server.
B. It updates the local system\’s date (i.e. day, month and year) but not the time (i.e. hours, minutes, seconds).
C. It queries one or more NTP time servers and adjusts the system time accordingly.
D. It sends the local system time to one or many remote NTP time servers for redistribution.
E. It can be used by any user to set the user clock independently of the system clock.
LX0-104 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which of the following resources can be directly limited for a given user using ulimit? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Maximum seconds of CPU time spent.
B. Maximum number of open file descriptors.
C. Maximum number of processes available.
D. Maximum number of concurrent login sessions.
E. Maximum seconds of login duration per session.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 16
Each entry in a crontab must end with what character?
A. Tab
B. Space
C. Backslash
D. Newline
LX0-104 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which of the following are valid IPv4 network masks? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.255.65
C. 255.255.0.255
D. 0.0.0.1
E. 255.255.255.248
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 18
Which of the following fields can be found in the /etc/group file? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. The list of users that belong to the group.
B. The home directory of the group.
C. The name of the group.
D. The description of the group.
E. The password of the group.
LX0-104 exam Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 19
Which commands can be used to change a user\’s account aging information? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. usermod
B. passwd
C. chattr
D. chage
E. chsh
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 20
Which configuration file would be edited to change the default options for outbound SSH sessions?
A. /etc/ssh/sshd_config
B. /etc/ssh/ssh
C. /etc/ssh/client
D. /etc/ssh/ssh_config
E. /etc/ssh/ssh_client
LX0-104 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
What is not contained in the locale setting of the operating system?
A. currency symbol
B. language
C. timezone
D. thousands separator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following keywords can be used in the file /etc/resolv.conf? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. substitute
B. nameserver
C. search
D. lookup
E. method
LX0-104 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 23
With syslog, what is a facility?
A. Facilities are different connection interfaces to syslog. Each facility has its own device in /dev/syslog/.
B. From syslog\’s point of view, each Unix process that issues messages is a facility.
C. Facilities describe the severity of a log message such as emerg or info.
D. When using remote logging, the hostname of the server that generated a message is called facility.
E. Facilities describe categories or groups of messages such as mail or auth.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 24
Which of the following IPv4 networks are reserved by IANA for private address assignment and private routing? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. 127.0.0.0/8
B. 10.0.0.0/8
C. 169.255.0.0/16
D. 172.16.0.0/12
E. 192.168.0.0/16
LX0-104 vce Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 25
On a machine running several X servers, how are the different instances of the X11 server identified?
A. By a fixed UUID that is defined in the X11 configuration file.
B. By a unique IPv6 address from the fe80::/64 subnet.
C. By the name of the user that runs the X server like x11:bob.
D. By a device name like /dev/X11/xservers/1.
E. By a display name like:1.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 26
Which of the following tools used for DNS debugging, reports not only the response from the name server but also details about the query?
A. dnsq
B. dig
C. hostname
D. dnslookup
E. zoneinfo
LX0-104 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which of the following commands gets the GnuPG public key with the id 63B4835B from the keyserver example.com?
A. gpg –keyserver hkp://example.com –recv-key 63B4835B
B. gpg –search-key hkp://[email protected]
C. gpg –keyserver gpg://example.com –get-key 63B4835B
D. gpg –keyserver hkp://example.com –add-key 63B4835B
E. gpg –keyserver gpg://example.com –key 63B4835B
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
What is the main difference between the batch and at commands?
A. The batch command will run multiple times. The at command will only run once.
B. The commands of a batch job run sequentially one after another while the commands in at jobs may run in parallel.
C. The at command reads commands from standard input. The batch command requires a command line argument.
D. The at command e-mails results to the user. The batch command logs results to syslog.
LX0-104 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
How is a display manager started?
A. It is started by a user using the command startx.
B. It is started like any other system service by the init system.
C. It is started by inetd when a remote hosts connects to the X11 port.
D. It is started automatically when a X11 user logs in to the system console.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
You plan to deploy 20 Client Access servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed. You need to prepare the certificate required for the planned deployment. The solution must ensure that the same certificate can be used on all of the Client Access servers. What should you do first?
A. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the privatekeyexportable parameter.
B. On all of the Client Access servers, run the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.
C. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the binaryencoded parameter.
D. On one of the Client Access servers, start the Certificates console and run the Certificate Import Wizard.
70-342 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Contoso, Ltd., and Fabrikam, Inc., are partner companies. Each company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization in a data center that is connected to the Internet. All of the Exchange servers in both of the organizations have the Client Access server role and the Mailbox role installed. The data centers connect to each other by using a redundant high-speed WAN link. The following mail exchanger (MX) records are configured:
* Contoso.com MX 10 mail.contoso.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 10 mail.fabrikam.com
You need to recommend a solution for inbound mail flow.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
* Users in both companies must receive email from the Internet if either of the Internet links fails.
* Mail from the Internet to contoso.com must be received by mail.contoso.com if the Internet link at the Contoso data center is available.
* Mail from the Internet to fabrikam.com must be received by mail.fabrikam.com if the Internet link at the Fabrikam data center is available.
Which two actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Create the following DNS records:
* Contoso.com MX 20 mail.fabrikam.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 20 mail.contoso.com
B. Create the following DNS records:
* Contoso.com MX 10 mail.fabrikam.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 10 mail.contoso.com
C. For each organization, configure an internal relay domain and a Send connector.
D. For each organization, configure an external relay domain and a Receive connector.
E. Create the following DNS records:
* Contoso.com MX 5 mail.fabrikam.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 5 mail.contoso.com
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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A. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to Lossless
B. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to BestAvailabilty
C. The activation preference of DB1\EX2
D. The activation preference of DB1\EX1
70-342 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your company has a data center in New York and a data center in Miami. The company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains a database availability group (DAG). The DAG contains servers in both data centers. The company plans to deploy Outlook Anywhere to all users. You configure the following: All of the Exchange Server 2013 virtual directories in the New York data center use a host name of mail.contoso.com.
All of the Exchange Server 2013 virtual directories in the Miami data center use a host name of miami.mail.contoso.com. In each data center, a certificate from an enterprise certification authority (CA) is configured to contain the following: A certificate principal name of mail.contoso.com Subject alternate names of mail.contoso.com and miami.mail.contoso.com You need to recommend which task must be performed to meet the following requirements: Users always must attempt to connect first to a server in the data center where their mailbox is located. Users must be able to access their mailbox if a single data center fails. What should you recommend?
A. Change the external host name of the Miami data center to mail.contoso.com.
B. Modify the ExternalUrl of the Autodiscover virtual directory of the Client Access servers.
C. Run the Set-OutlookProvider cmdlet.
D. Run the Add-AvailabilityAddressSpace cmdlet.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Your company has offices in Tokyo, Bangkok, and Shanghai. All connections to the Internet are routed through an Internet connection in the Tokyo office. All of the offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. The network contains 10 servers that have Exchange Server 2010 installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You plan to deploy 10 servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
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Each site has an IP-PBX that provides telephony services for the mailboxes in that site by using unsecured SIP over TCP 5070. The IP-PBX uses the same port to connect to multiple SIP peers. You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that the Unified Messaging (UM) features are available to the mailboxes if a single server fails.
Which three actions should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
B. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
C. Install the Client Access server role on the Exchange Server 2013 servers in the Shanghai and Bangkok offices.
D. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
E. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
70-342 pdf Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 6
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains five servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to create a Lync Server SIP Unified Messaging (UM) dial plan to enable voice integration between Lync Server and Exchange Server. Which three Exchange servers should you associate to the UM dial plans? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. EX1
B. EX2
C. EX3
D. EX4
E. EX5
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 7
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization. You successfully migrate the public folders from a previous version of Exchange Server. You discover that one of the public folder mailboxes almost reached its quota size. You need to move some of the public folders in the public folder mailbox to another public folder mailbox. What should you run?
A. Split-PublicFolderMailbox.ps1
B. Set-MailPublicFolder
C. Update-PublicFolderMailbox
D. Set-PublicFolderMailbox
70-342 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Microsoft Office 365. The network does not have Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.0 installed. A user named User1 reports that he cannot access his mailbox because his account is locked out.
You verify that the mailbox of User1 is hosted on Office 365. You need to unlock the account of User1. Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MailUser
B. Set-MSolUser
C. Set-Mailbox
D. Set-ADUser
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Office 365. The mail flow between Office 365 and the on-premises Exchange Server environment is routed through an Exchange Server 2010 Edge Transport server. Your company is assigned a new set of public IP addresses. A network administrator updates the external firewall address and all of the associated DNS records. Office 365 users report that they cannot receive email messages from on-premises users. You discover that outgoing email messages to Office 365 are in the Office 365 SMTP queue on an Edge server. You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages successfully to the Office 365 users. Which tool should you use?
A. The Exchange Management Console
B. The Exchange Control Panel in Office 365
C. The Exchange Admin Center
D. The Exchange Remote Connectivity Analyzer
70-342 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com. The organization contains five Mailbox servers. You need to prevent a user named User8 from permanently deleting an email message in his mailbox. What should you do on the mailbox of User8?
A. Configure an in-place hold.
B. Create an Archive mailbox.
C. Configure a retention hold.
D. Create a Retention tag.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 25
When configuring intercluster URI dialing, an engineer gets the error message andquot;Local cluster cannot connect to the ILS networkandquot;. Which three reasons for this error are true? (Choose three.)
A. The SIP route patterns have not been properly configured.
B. The Tomcat certificates do not match.
C. The Cisco Unified Resource Identifier service needs a restart.
D. The ILS authentication password does not match.
E. The cluster ID does not match.
F. One cluster is using TLS certificate, and the other is using Password.
300-075 exam Correct Answer: CDF

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Which option is a benefit of implementing CFUR?
A. CFUR is designed to initiate TEHO to reduce toll charges.
B. CFUR can prevent phones from unregistering.
C. CFUR can reroute calls placed to a temporarily unregistered destination phone.
D. CFUR eliminates the need for COR on an ISR.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which option best describes a service that assembles a network model from configured locations and link data in one or more clusters?
A. LBM
B. Weight
C. LBM Hub
D. Shadow
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Scenario:
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300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
Both of the Cisco TelePresence Video for Windows clients are able to log into the server but can\’t make any calls. After reviewing the exhibits, which of the following reasons could be causing this failure?
A. Wrong username and/or password.
B. Wrong SIP domain name.
C. The TMSPE is not working.
D. The bandwidth is incorrectly configured.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which statement about setting up FindMe in Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server is true?
A. Users are allowed to delete or change the address of their principal devices.
B. Endpoints should register with an alias that is the same as an existing FindMe ID.
C. If VCS is using Cisco TMS provisioning, users manage their FindMe accounts via VCS.
D. A VCS cluster name must be configured.
300-075 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Scenario There are two call control systems in this item. The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 7965 and 9971 Video IP Phones. The Cisco VCS and TMS control the Cisco TelePresence Conductor, the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for Windows. Use the exhibits to answer the following questions. DNS Servers
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
Which three configuration tasks need to be completed on the router to support the registration of Cisco Jabber clients? (Choose three.)
A. The DNS server has the wrong IP address.
B. The internal DNS Service (SRV) records need to be updated on the DNS Server.
C. Flush the DNS Cache on the client.
D. The DNS AOR records are wrong.
E. Add the appropriate DNS SRV for the Internet entries on the DNS Server.
300-075 exam Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
An engineer receives a ticket to troubleshoot a one-way audio issue with these symptoms:
User A can hear user and vice versa.
User A can hear user C, however user cannot hear user A.
User can heat user C, however user cannot hear user .
Which two properties are the most likely reasons for this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco EX60 default gateway of user is missing from the network configuration.
B. The NAT device is allowing only RTP/RTCP ports from the internal network to the DMZ.
C. The Cisco EX60 of user is not responding to requests coming from the TMS server.
D. The Cisco VCS Expressway is not responding to the SIP INVITE coming from the Cisco VCS Control.
E. The router does not have a route back from the DMZ to the internal network.
300-075 dumps Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 32
Scenario:
The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 9971 Video IP Phone. The Cisco VCS and TMS control the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for Windows
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300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
Which device configuration option will allow an administrator to control bandwidth between calls placed between branches?
A. Media Resource Group List
B. Device Pool
C. Location
D. AAR Group
E. Regions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
When you use the Query wizard to configure the trace and log central feature to collect install logs, if you have servers in a cluster in a different time zone, which time is used?
A. TLC adjusts the time change appropriately.
B. TLC uses its local time for all systems.
C. TLC queries for the time zone as part of configuration.
D. TLC produces an error and must be run remotely.
300-075 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
The Cisco Unified Communications system of a company has five types of devices: Cisco Jabber Desktop
CP-7965
DX-650
EX-60
MX-200
Which two types of devices are affected when an engineer changes the DSCP for Video Calls service parameter? (Choose two.)
A. DX-650
B. Cisco Jabber Desktop
C. CP-7965
D. EX-60
E. MX-200
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 35
What is the default DSCP/PHB for TelePresence video conferencing packets in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. EF/46
B. CS6/48
C. AF41/34
D. CS3/24
E. CS4/32
300-075 exam Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 36
How many Cisco Unified Mobility destinations can be configured per user?
A. 1
B. 10
C. 4
D. 6
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Which task must you perform before deleting a transcoder?
A. Delete the dependency records.
B. Unassign it from a media resource group.
C. Use the Reset option.
D. Remove the device pool.
E. Remove the subunit.
F. Delete the common device configuration.
300-075 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
Company X has deployed a VCS Control with a local zone and a traversal client zone. To facilitate external calls, VCS Expressway is deployed and traversal server zone is set up there. Video endpoints inside Company X have registered, but are unable to receive calls from outside endpoints. Which option could be the cause of this issue?
A. The traversal zone on the VCS Control does not have a search rule configured.
B. The access control list on the VCS Control must be updated with the IP for the external users.
C. When a traversal zone is set up on VCS Control only outbound calls are possible.
D. The local zone on the VCS Control does not have a search rule configured.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 39
Widgets.com\’s Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server allows SIP and H.323 registrations. Which local zone search rule configuration allows SIP registered endpoints to connect to H.323 endpoints that register with an H.323 E.164 number only?
A.
B.
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C.
D.
300-075 dumps
QUESTION 40
Company A has deployed a VCS Control and is attempting to register a third-party endpoint. The engineer has confirmed that no traffic is being blocked for the endpoint and it is receiving a valid IP address. Which option could be the cause of this registration failure?
A. Third-party endpoints are not compatible with VCS Control, only with VCS Expressway.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is required in addition to the VCS Control.
C. An incorrect SIP domain is configured on the VCS Control for the endpoint.
D. The VCS Control must be deployed together with VCS Expressway before endpoints can register to either one.
300-075 exam Correct Answer: C

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1.How many zone set(s) can be active at the same time?
A.1
B.3
C.10
D.unlimited
000-002 exam Answer:A

2.Which protocol is used to discover a CIMOM?
A.SLP
B.UDP
C.TPC
D.SNMP
Answer:A

3.Which IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center server directories and subdirectories need to be backed up on UNIX in case of a disaster?
A./opt/IBM/TPC
B./usr/IBM/Tivoli/tip and /usr/IBM/TPC
C./opt/IBM/Tivoli/tip, /opt/IBM/replication, and /opt/IBM/TPC
D./usr/IBM/Tivoli/tip, /usr/IBM/replication, and /opt/IBM/TPC
000-002 dumps Answer:C

4.What are the default server components that will get installed when a typical installation with Servers is selected?
A.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Data and Device
B.Tivoli Integrated Portal, Storage Resource agent, and IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Data Server
C.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Data and Device, and IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Replication
D.Tivoli Integrated Portal, IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Replication, and IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Data and Device
Answer:D

5.Which two items must be configured in IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center (Tivoli Storage Productivity Center) to send an alert to Tivoli Enterprise Center/OMNIbus? (Choose two.)
A.the default domain name
B.a fully qualified Tivoli Enterprise Console/OMNIbus Server
C.the IP address where Tivoli Enterprise Console/OMNIbus can be found
D.the Tivoli Enterprise Console/OMNIbus User ID and Password to gain access
E.the port number to which Tivoli Storage Productivity Center will direct Tivoli Enterprise
Console/OMNIbus events
000-002 pdf Answer:B E

6.The customer is requesting performance monitoring of NetApp storage subsystems. Which agent is required?
A.NetApp CIM agent (ONTAP SMI-S agent)
B.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Data agent
C.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Storage Resource agent
D.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Data agent and NetApp CIM agent
Answer:A

7.What are the correct steps to create a zone set?
A.Go to Fabric Manager->Fabrics->Zone Configuration->Change->Add under Zone Sets->Provide Zone Set name->Select Zone(s) for Zone Set ->Finish.
B.Go to Disk Manager->Fabrics->Select Fabric->Zone Configuration->Change->Add under Zone Sets->Provide Zone Set name->Select Zone(s) for Zone Set ->Finish.
C.Go to Data Manager->Fabrics->Select Fabric->Zone Configuration->Change->Add under Zone Sets->Provide Zone Set name->Select Zone(s) for Zone Set ->Finish.
D.Go to Fabric Manager->Fabrics->Select Fabric->Zone Configuration->Change->Add under Zone Sets->Provide Zone Set name->Select Zone(s) for Zone Set ->Finish.
000-002 vce Answer:D

8.After SMI-S agent of the fabric has completed its discovery, what is the next step before creating zone or zone set?
A.Run Probe.
B.Run Discovery.
C.Do not do anything else.
D.Run Performance Monitor job.
Answer:A

9.Where does a user go to run a CIMOM Discovery on the IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center GUI?
A.Administrative Services->Discovery->CIMOM
B.Administrative Services->Discovery->CIM agent
C.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center -> CIMOM Discovery
D.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center -> Discovery -> CIMOM
000-002 exam Answer:A

10.What are two methods to determine if a CIM agent contains the devices that it manages, after it has been added successfully on IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center GUI? (Choose two.)
A.Administrative Services->Discovery->CIMOM/Agents->Show Managed Devices
B.Administrative Services->Data Sources->CIMOM/Agents->Show Managed Devices
C.Administrative Services->Data Sources->CIMOM/Agents->Select CIMOM->Show Managed Devices
D.Administrative Services->Discovery->CIMOM->Select CIMOM discovery log->Show Managed Devices
E.Administrative Services->Discovery->CIMOM->Select CIMOM discovery log->expand on the CIMOM log
Answer:C E

11.What is the minimum interval for data gathering by a switch performance monitor job?
A.1 minute
B.5 minutes
C.10 minutes
D.15 minutes
000-002 dumps Answer:B

12.Which device currently supports for Single Sign-on with IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.1?
A.SVC 4.3.1
B.DS8000 Release 4.2
C.DS5000 (Firmware 7.50.12.00)
D.Brocade switches managed by DCFM
Answer:B

13.When submitting a storage optimization report job, will data be physically moved from one storage pool to another?
A.Yes. Data will be physically moved to target pool.
B.No. No physical data move will be done; it will only be simulated.
C.Yes. Data will be physically moved to target pool but only when in the same format (CKD or FB).
D.Yes. Data will be physically moved to target pool, but only when in the same type of subsystem.
000-002 pdf Answer:B

14.Given a successful installation of IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center, which directory contains the current Device server logs?
A.\log
B.\data\log
C.\device\log
D.\data\server
Answer:C

15.How can a user validate that the data agents are registered successfully on the IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center GUI tree?
A.Data Manager-> Data/Storage Resource agents
B.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center-> agents
C.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center-> Data agents
D.Administrative Services->Data Sources->Data/Storage Resource agents
000-002 vce Answer:D

16.In the IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center GUI, where can it be verified if a switch is enabled for performance monitoring?
A.Fabric Manager -> Fabrics
B.Administrative Services -> Data Sources -> CIMOM agents
C.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center -> Topology -> Switches
D.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center -> Configuration Utility, Fabric Manager tab
Answer:D

17.Which information is collected from computers during the probe job?
A.information about disks and disk controllers
B.health information about fabric components
C.information about file types and their ownership
D.information about operating system resources (swap-space, memory, and so on)
000-002 exam Answer:A

18.Which IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.1 (Tivoli Storage Productivity Center) license is required for using the storage performance optimizer?
A.Basic Editon
B.Standard Edition
C.Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Disk
D.Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Data
Answer:B

19.Policies are enforced when defined conditions are detected by a monitoring job. What are two requirements to be used in the Policy management function to manage and enforce policies? (Choose  two.)
A.quotas
B.constraints
C.Security levels
D.System enforcer
E.Data Management tool
000-002 dumps Answer:A B

20.Which group does the installer’s user ID have to belong to when installing DB2 on a Windows platform?
A.TCPADMIN
B.DB2 Users Group
C.Administrator Group
D.Windows Systems Group
Answer:C

21.For computer and file system groups in Data Manager, a Group By Cluster check box is displayed. What happens if this option is selected?
A.The Available pane displays a cluster name next to any clustered computers and cluster resource groups.
B.The Available pane automatically filters and hides any cluster aware computers from being displayed in the list.
C.The Available pane provides an additional option of being able to filter and hide cluster aware computers from being displayed in the list.
D.The Available pane displaying any computer or cluster resource group that belongs to a PowerHA or MSCS Cluster is grouped under its cluster name.
000-002 pdf Answer:D

22.What are two prerequisites for IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center to launch external tools? (Choose two.)
A.It can be launched with a URL.
B.It is a locally installed application.
C.It must support Web 2.0 standard.
D.It is a platform independent Java application.
E.It runs in the same WebSphere server that the data server runs in.
Answer:A B

23.What is the minimum number of servers required to install DB2, IBM Tivoli Agent Manager and IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for a small customer environment consisting of a single DS8000 and 10 host machines?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
000-002 vce Answer:A

24.How many zone member(s) does a zone contain?
A.one
B.five
C.unlimited
D.Check with vendor documentation to see what is supported.
Answer:D

25.Which IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center license is necessary for IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center –> Analytics function usage?
A.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Data
B.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Basic Edition
C.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Limited Edition
D.IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Standard Edition
000-002 exam Answer:D

26.Which IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.1 media disk image contains the Storage Resource agent installation packages?
A.Disk 1
B.Disk 2
C.Disk 3
D.both Disk 1 and Disk 2
Answer:D

27.Upon completion of the IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center (Tivoli Storage Productivity Center) upgrade, the Tivoli Storage Productivity Center database must be migrated by using the database migration tool. Which choice represents the database migration tools that can be executed to perform the database migration?
A.db2update.bat or db2update.sh
B.migratetables.bat or migratetables.sh
C.partitiontables.bat or partitiontables.sh
D.migratepartitions.bat or migratepartitions.sh
000-002 dumps Answer:C

28.Which jobs need to run in order to populate the database with all available information for a storage subsystem?
A.Probe and Scan
B.Discovery and Scan
C.Discovery and Probe
D.Probe and Performance Monitor
Answer:C

29.Which is a valid triggering condition for the scan job alert?
A.Scan Failed
B.Scan Completed Successfully
C.Scan Completed with Warnings
D.Scan found more than 10,000 files
000-002 pdf Answer:A

30.Which task must be performed before gathering information about NetWare volumes?
A.Create profiles to define which Netware servers to scan.
B.Create quotes to control how many NetWare volumes should be pinged and scanned.
C.Configure Device Manager to discover all the NetWare servers in NDS trees and then run a ping job.
D.Define a scan and include the NetWare volumes and file systems for which you want to gather detailed
storage information.
Answer:D

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QUESTION 1
In an outdoor mesh environment, which is the purpose of deploying one of the access points relatively higher than the others?
A. The MAPs need to be mounted higher than the first hop RAPs so that the mesh units can accomplish radio line of sight.
B. Elevated MAPs are connected to the switches, providing better bandwidth that all the RAPs utilize for client connectivity.
C. An AP deployed as a RAP needs to be mounted in a higher elevation to provide clear connectivity to first hop MAPs.
D. Root APs need clear line of sight to provide the best bandwidth to all of its RAPs, so the higher the better.
642-732 exam 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have a customer that is building a new campus of four 3-story buildings that you have just completed the site survey for. The customer is interested in the amount of rack space they will need to allocate in either the building MDF or in the data center for controllers. Each building is going to require 75 APs to support voice and data. How should the controllers be deployed to provide the least number of controllers, the highest redundancy, and the easiest management?
A. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + N redundancy method.
B. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + N + 1 redundancy method.
C. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + 1 redundancy method.
D. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + 1 redundancy method.
E. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + N +1 redundancy method.
F. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + N redundancy method.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which option allows the maximum 2.4-GHz channel usage for a survey and data deployment in the ETSI domain?
A. 1, 6, 11
B. 1, 5, 9, 13
C. 1, 6, 9, 14
D. 1, 6, 11, 14
642-732 dumps 
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two issues do access and backhaul radios experience in mesh networks? (Choose two.)
A. The access radio has to connect to two or several points.
B. The access cell usually covers more area at ground level that may have more sources of reflection and interference.
C. The access cell radio range is larger than the backhaul radio range, which causes the backhaul cell radio to suffer from more interference.
D. Backhaul radios are a bottleneck for throughput.
E. RAPs help MAPs avoid coverage holes.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Clients are being disconnected from the WLAN. Which source of interference can cause a Denial of Service?
 642-732 dumps

A. jammer
B. microwave oven
C. Bluetooth devices
D. wireless video camera
E. ZigBee device
642-732 pdf 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You have a client that would like to upgrade their 2.4-GHz point-to-point wireless bridge link between buildings in their facility in Mexico. Currently, they have radios from vendor A that are transmitting at 14 dBm with 6 dBm antennas. They would like to upgrade the radios to vendor B but keep the existing antennas. The new radios from vendor B have a fixed transmit power of 7 dBm. How should you proceed?
A. Install the new radios with existing vendor A antennas.
B. Install new radios with replacement vendor A antennas rated at 13 dBm.
C. Install new radios with replacement vendor A antennas rated at 30 dBm.
D. Install the new radios with new vendor B antennas rated at 29 dBm.
E. Install the new radios with new vendor B antennas rated at 13 dBm.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
 642-732 dumps

After performing a Layer 1 survey using Cisco Spectrum Expert, what is the result indicated by the visual screen?
A. Normal 802.11b activity
B. Normal 802.11g activity
C. Microwave oven interference
D. Video camera interference
E. Bluetooth device interference
642-732 vce 
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What two types of antennas have a high gain, narrow beam width, and are typically used for point-to-point bridging? (Choose two.)
A. dipole antenna
B. Yagi antenna
C. patch antenna
D. parabolic dish antenna
E. omni-directional
F. monopole antenna
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
When planning a site survey, what Cisco tool can an engineer use to estimate the number of required APs?
A. MSE Location Tracking
B. WCS Planning Mode

C. WLC NetFlow Exporter
D. LWAP Monitor Mode
E. WCS Map Editor
642-732 exam 
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
In which two ways does the type of industry vertical change the way you prepare to perform a wireless site survey? (Choose two.)
A. In most cases the specific industry vertical impact is not unique and information used to prepare for a site survey can be reused from one vertical to another.
B. The first step in preparing for a site survey for a specific industry vertical is to review the individual industry standards for a WLAN deployment to ensure compliance with all known standards.
C. Each industry vertical has its own specific challenges that need to be considered prior to completion of the WLAN site survey.
D. Prior to performing a site survey for a customer, their specific industry vertical has very little impact on site survey process. Only post-survey design is impacted by the industry vertical.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
 642-732 dumps

Clients in a conference room have been experiencing difficulty connecting to the Access Point on Channel 1. Which option is causing the interference?
A. Wireless Video Camera
B. Bluetooth Device
C. Cordless Phone
D. Zigbee Device
E. Jammer
642-732 dumps 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two are impacts of having 802.11b clients in an 802.11g network? (Choose two.)
A. 802.11b clients will degrade throughput of 802.11g clients
B. 802.11b is more susceptible to multipath than 802.11g
C. 802.11b operates over fewer channels than 802.11g
D. 802.11b uses 20 MHz wide channels, 802.11g uses 40 MHz wide channels
E. 802.11b is more susceptible to attenuation than 802.11g
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
Which option describes the method of measuring the beamwidth of an antenna?
A. 30 degrees on each side from the main lobe gain
B. 60 degrees on each side from the main lobe gain
C. – 3 dB on each side from the main lobe gain
D. – 6 dB on each side from the main lobe gain
642-732 pdf 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
How would clients react to a controller configuration that utilized unsupported channels?
A. Unsupported channels can cause coverage holes for clients as well as limit their connectivity.
B. Unsupported channels would be ignored by clients.
C. Unsupported channels would have no impact on clients. The user would simply need to roam to a supported channel.
D. Unsupported channels are not configurable on the controller, thus there would be no impact on clients.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
An engineer is conducting a VoWLAN survey for voice clients with a max power of 40 mW. What power level should the engineer set the AP to during the survey?
A. 5 mW
B. 10 mW
C. 20 mW
D. 30 mW
E. 40 mW
642-732 vce 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which three components make up a Statement of Work? (Choose three.)
A. Post-survey recommendations
B. WLAN testing information
C. A list of changes in scope
D. Survey type
E. A list and description of locations to be surveyed.
F. Confirmation of timeline and cost
G. A list of equipment required to perform network analysis
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 17
Which two basic characteristics would be needed from antennas used for survey and deployment in various indoor situations? (Choose two.)
A. Horizontally polarized
B. Vertically polarized
C. Aesthetically fitting
D. Least cost
E. Highest gain
F. Largest beamwidth
642-732 exam 
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
An engineer is tasked with designing a WLAN. The customer is prioritizing data speeds to the desktop, but is also entertaining the idea of adding 802.11 phones in the future. Given this information, how should the engineer conduct the survey?
A. consider the employee head count in congested office space and limit the edge of each cell to an RSSI of -67mW
B. restrict AP cell edges to -67dB and be sure to strategically place APs in congested office spaces
C. co-locate access points when possible to cover high user areas and place APs at each corner of the facility
D. stagger the AP placements, and be sure to have a high signal to noise ratio that will accommodate the future VoIP devices
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What is the result if a client radio is incapable of supporting all the 5 GHz channels you have deployed in the controller or APs?
A. You may only be able to deploy 20 MHz-wide channels.
B. This may result in the client having to roam more frequently to find a channel it supports.
C. This may result in coverage holes in the network.
D. You may only be able to deploy 40 MHz-wide channels.
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Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
What are the most appropriate channels for an 802.11a/n VoWLAN survey and deployment in the FCC domain?
A. 4 channels of UNII-1
B. 8 channels of UNII-1, and UNII-2
C. 8 channels of UNII-1, and UNII-3
D. 15 channels of UNII-2, and UNII-2 extended
E. 23 channels of UNII-1, UNII-2, UNII-2 extended, and UNII-3
F. 24 channels of UNII-1, UNII-2, UNII-2 extended, UNII-3, and ISM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which of the following tools works both as an encryption-cracking tool and as a keylogger?
A. Magic Lantern
B. KeyGhost Keylogger
C. Alchemy Remote Executor
D. SocketShield
642-732 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Magic Lantern works both as an encryption-cracking tool and as a keylogger. Answer: C is incorrect. Alchemy Remote Executor is a system management tool that allows Network Administrators to execute programs on remote network computers without leaving their workplace. From the hacker’s point of view, it can be useful for installing keyloggers, spyware, Trojans, Windows rootkits and such. One necessary condition for using the Alchemy Remote Executor is that the user/attacker must have the administrative passwords of the remote computers on which the malware is to be installed. Answer:
B is incorrect. The KeyGhost keylogger is a hardware keylogger that is used to log all keystrokes on a computer. It is a tiny device that clips onto the keyboard cable. Once the KeyGhost keylogger is attached to the computer, it quietly logs every key pressed on the keyboard into its own internal Flash memory (just as with smart cards). When the log becomes full, it overwrites the oldest keystrokes with the newest ones.
Answer: D is incorrect. SocketShield provides a protection shield to a computer system against malware, viruses, spyware, and various types of keyloggers. SocketShield provides protection at the following two levels: 1.Blocking: In this level, SocketShield uses a list of IP addresses that are known as purveyor of exploits. All http requests for any page in these domains are simply blocked. 2.Shielding: In this level, SocketShield blocks all the current and past IP addresses that are the cause of unauthorized access.

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QUESTION 1
Configuring a room on the Resource Manager or Converged Management Application (CMA) allows you to do which two of these?
A. Schedule a conference by picking a room by name
B. Associate an endpoint to a room instead of a user
C. Integrate into Active Directory
D. Dial the room from the Guest Book
1K0-001 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2
Which Virtualization Manager (DMA) function ensures resources are available in the event of a failure somewhere in the network?
A. Scalability
B. Virtualization
C. Resiliency
D. Redundancy
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which Virtualization Manager (DMA) function refers to the ease with which a solution can be expanded to meet further demand?
A. Virtualization
B. Scalability
C. Redundancy
D. Resiliency
1K0-001 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
What is the file type used by the HDX endpoint when performing a software update?
A. .pup
B. .exe
C. .bin
D. .iso
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Select three RSS options which are available using activation keys:
A. HD live streaming
B. Encryption
C. 1080P
D. Multicast
1K0-001 pdf Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 6
Successfully entering and authenticating provisioning server settings during HDX setup allows what?
A. Dynamic Management Mode
B. Automatic name configuration
C. Automatic gatekeeper configuration
D. Dynamic name adjustment
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which RMX function allows you to schedule future conferences?
A. There is no such function
B. Calendaring
C. Scheduling
D. Reservations
1K0-001 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the name that registers RMX conferences, meeting rooms and entry queues in any gatekeeper or SIP server?
A. Display name
B. Routing name
C. E.164 alias
D. H.323 name
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
You are trying to schedule a conference on the CMA but when you log in with your administrator account
you can’t see the Scheduling menu. What is wrong?
A. Lack of Operator privileges in your User account
B. Lack of Scheduler privileges in your User account
C. Lack of Auditor privileges in your User account
D. Lack of Administrator privileges in your User account
1K0-001 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which Virtualization Manager (DMA) function refers to the ability to recover quickly from an interrupting event?
A. Scalability
B. Redundancy
C. Virtualization
D. Resiliency
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Your customer has an issue with their Virtualization Manager (DMA) and they contact Polycom Global Services for support, Select the option which best describes what they will need to supply PGS:
A. System Log Files plus any additional files specifically requested
B. Troubleshooting Utilities plus any additional files specifically requested
C. System Log Files

D. Troubleshooting Utilities
1K0-001 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Ethernet encapsulates data into a:
A. Packet
B. Frame
C. Segment
D. Datagram
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
How is Personal Conference Manager initiated when in a call hosted on an RMX?
A. Click on the PCM button
B. Launch it from RMX Manager
C. From your computer
D. Pressing ## on the remote control
1K0-001 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Any device which does not have an IP subnet configured in a network site appears where in the Virtualization Manager (DMA) site topology?
A. Default Site
B. Internet/VPN
C. Nowhere
D. Primary Site
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
A customer would like to configure H.323 on their RSS; select the two options which they can configure:
A. Enable H.323
B. Neighbored gatekeeper
C. Primary gatekeeper
D. Alternate gatekeeper
1K0-001 vce Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 16
Which of the following are three roles supported by the RMX?
A. Administrator
B. Auditor
C. Operator
D. Scheduler
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 17
Which protocol does SIP use for control while in a call?
A. SDP
B. RTP
C. H.225
D. H.245
1K0-001 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
The Physical layer takes care of:
A. how the0s and1s are sent across the physical network
B. how anyencryptionis applied to the payload
C. what kind of data is being sent
D. whether MAC addresses or IP addresses are used
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Which function allows the Virtualization Manager (DMA) to automatically generate a conference room for all users?
A. Automatic Conference Room Creator
B. Dynamic conference room wizard
C. Dynamic User Creation wizard
D. Active Directory integration
1K0-001 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which of the following are three valid Virtualization Manager (DMA) user roles?
A. Scheduler
B. Administrator
C. Provisioner
D. Auditor
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 21
When connecting to a Resource Manager or Converged Management Application (CMA) for the first time, which is the correct username and password?
A. admin / admin
B. admin / password
C. POLYCOM / POLYCOM
D. SUPPORT / SUPPORT
1K0-001 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
When discussing video quality, resolution is which two of these choices?
A. how many pixels are in a display picture
B. improving the picture
C. how you can classify the picture as high definition
D. how the picture is compressed

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 23
Which device is used to change electrical energy into sound energy so that the near-end audience can hear the far-end audience?
A. Sound Pressure Meter
B. Repeater
C. Microphone
D. Speaker
1K0-001 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Sharing content in a SIP call requires which protocol?
A. H.239
B. Binary Floor Control Protocol
C. People+Content
D. H.225
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Where are the primary and secondary RSS recording rates set?
A. Multicast
B. VRR
C. Template
D. Channel
1K0-001 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which optional network capability becomes mandatory if automatic dynamic management of HDX endpoints by the Resource Manager or Converged Management Application (CMA) is required?
A. DNS SRV record
B. Active Directory integration
C. Redundancy
D. DHCP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
If ad-hoc dial-in is enabled in an RMX entry queue, what are you able to do?
A. Only dial into an entry queue
B. Make a call into a meeting room using ISDN
C. Only make a call into a previously defined meeting room
D. Make a call into a meeting room not previously defined
1K0-001 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
You dial into an RMX meeting room, but the video call keeps dropping to audio only. Select the best two troubleshooting steps for this issue:
A. Check that there are available video resources
B. Check whether VSVV has been enabled in the profile
C. Check that ISDN/PSTN dial-in is checked
D. Check whether encryption has been enabled
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 29
The TCP/IP model is similar to the OSI model but not the same because:
A. it is incorrect
B. it is designed to fit specific existing networking protocols
C. the two models are not designed to fit together
D. the two models are not related
1K0-001 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
H.225 provides which three functions?
A. call setup via Q.931
B. RAS
C. in-call control
D. framing
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 31
What is the default password on an HDX end point?
A. HDX serial number
B. admin
C. nothing (leave blank)
D. POLYCOM
1K0-001 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
The Presentation layer takes care of:
A. how any encrytion is applied to the payload
B. how the Os and 1s are sent across the physical network
C. what kind of data is being sent
D. whether MAC addresses or IP addresses are used
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Which three RMX flags are used to configure Converged Management Application (CMA) address book integration?
A. EXTERNAL_CONTENT_MANAGER
B. EXTERNAL_CONTENT_PASSWORD
C. EXTERNAL_CONTENT_USER
D. EXTERNAL_ONTENT_DIRECTORY
1K0-001 exam Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 34
When VSW mode is enabled in an RMX conference profile, how many resources does each participant use at 1080P resolution?
A. 1
B. 0.5
C. 3
D. 6
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
A customer would like any of his business partners to be able to dial into his monthly video meeting to discuss order progress. Which VBP should the customer buy?
A. ST-series
B. E-series
1K0-001 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
RAS uses which protocol?
A. H.225
B. H.245
C. Q.931
D. G.711
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Which of the following is the special RMX lobby used to route users to their conference?
A. Conference Room
B. Meeting Room
C. Conference Profile
D. Entry Queue
1K0-001 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
You are attempting to schedule a multipoint conference using the CMA, but receive an error message stating ‘Insufficient MCU resources’. Select the two best troubleshooting options
A. Check that the MCU is available for scheduling
B. Reboot the server
C. Check the MCU for errors
D. Reboot the MCU
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 39
The Resource Manager or Converged Management Application (CMA) Site Statistics report is what?
A. configurable
B. exportable
C. able to show sites not configured in the Resource Manager
D. real-time only
1K0-001 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
When configuring a user’s Virtualization Manager (DMA) conference room, you can only use the default pool and pool orders
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
You are trying to log into a CMA using an Active Directory account but the login is failing; select the two options which could be the issue:
A. No role associated with your User account
B. The Computer account password is incorrect
C. Your User account does not have administrative privileges
D. The User account is not contained within the Enterprise Directory Search BaseDN
1K0-001 exam Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 42
A customer would like her employees to use video from home without the cost of a VPN. Which VBP should the customer buy?
A. ST-series
B. E-series
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
You have three MCUs connected to a Virtualization Manager (DMA) but calls only seem to land on two of them. Select two things you could do to troubleshoot this:
A. Check if any MCU has been taken out of service
B. Reboot the server
C. Check if any MCU has any alerts or errors
D. Check the endpoint logs
1K0-001 dumps Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 44
Your customer has asked if they should perform the CMA integration on their new Virtualization Manager (DMA), as they aren’t sure what it does. How do you explain it?
A. The CMA integration allows the DMA to control the CMA site topology
B. The CMA integration allows the DMA to view and use the CMA site topology
C. The CMA integration allows the DMA to share Active Directory integration
D. There is no need to perform the CMA integration
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
Company A has a formal comprehensive corporate code of ethics while company B does not. Which of the following statements regarding the existence of the code of ethics in company A can be logically inferred?
I. Company A exhibits a higher standard of ethical behavior than does company B.
II. Company A has established objective criteria by which an employee’s actions can be evaluated.
III. The absence of a formal corporate code of ethics in company B would prevent a successful audit of ethical behavior in that company.

A. II only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
1K0-001 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
Which of the following files, when compared with billing records, would provide the best source of information for determining if all goods shipped are billed to customers?
A. Pre-numbered customer invoices.
B. Accounts receivable transactions.
C. Pre-numbered shipping documents.
D. Customer purchase orders.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Which of the following is the best problem-solving technique to use when analyzing performance and cost?
A. Value analysis.
B. Attribute listing.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Component analysis.
1K0-001 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
In order to effectively elicit sensitive information from an employee during an audit engagement, an auditor should:
A. Tell the employee a piece of information obtained from a coworker in a previous interview.
B. Put sensitive questions at the beginning of a questionnaire to ensure that they are answered.
C. Explain that the auditor’s reputation for integrity, which is vital to the auditor’s business success, would be seriously damaged if confidentiality were breached.
D. Point out that management has given the auditor full authority to conduct this interview.
Correct Answer: C

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Question: 32
Which of the following are the main goals of Broadcasting Board of Governors (BBG)’s strategic plan 2008-2013? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It employs modern communication techniques and technologies.
B. It builds on our reach and impact within the muslim world.
C. It engages the world in conversation about England.
D. It enhances program delivery across all platforms.
642-385 exam 
Answer: A,B,D
Question: 33
Which of the following types of IT organizational structures states that all IT decision-making and the IT budget are in one place, much easier to manage, and require much less effort to organize?
A. Decentralized
B. Federated
C. Project-based
D. Centralized
Answer: D
Question: 34
A service provider guarantees for end-to-end network traffic performance to a customer. Which of the following types of agreement is this?
A. LA
B. VPN
C. NDA
D. SLA
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Answer: D
Question: 35
Which of the following domains of COBIT covers areas such as the execution of the applications within the IT system and its results as well as the support processes that enable the effective and efficient execution of these IT systems?
A. Deliver and Support
B. Acquire and Implement
C. Monitor and Evaluate
D. Plan and Organize
Answer: A
Question: 36
Gary has identified a project risk that could injure project team members. He does not want to accept any risk where someone could become injured on this project so he hires a professional vendor to complete this portion of the project work. This workaround to the risk event is known as what type of risk response?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Acceptance
D. Transference
642-385 pdf 
Answer: D
Question: 37
Management has asked you to perform a risk audit and report back on the results. Bonny, a project team member asks you what a risk audit is. What do you tell Bonny?
A. A risk audit is a review of the effectiveness of the risk responses in dealing with identified risks and their root causes, as well as the effectiveness of the risk management process.
B. A risk audit is a review of all the risks that have yet to occur and what their probability of happening are.
C. A risk audit is an audit of all the risks that have occurred in the project and what their true impact on cost and time has been.
D. A risk audit is a review of all the risk probability and impact for the risks, which are still present in the project but which have not yet occurred.
Answer: A
Question: 38
Wendy is the project manager of the FBL project for your company. She has identified several risks within her project and has created a risk contingency reserve of $45,000 total. Her project is nearly complete and many of the risks have not happened in the project. What should Wendy do with the funds in the contingency reserve?
A. The funds for the risks that have passed and have not happened are transferred to the project budget.
B. The funds remain in the contingency reserve until all of the risks have passed.
C. The funds remain in the contingency reserve until the project is closed.
D. The funds for the risks that have passed and have not happened are released.
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Answer: D
Question: 39
Which of the following frameworks defines ERM as a process, effected by an entity’s board of directors, management, and other personnel, applied in strategy setting and across the enterprise?
A. COBIT
B. COSO ERM framework
C. Casualty Actuarial Society framework
D. Val IT
Answer: B
Question: 40
The IT strategy formulation process consists of four steps to provide guidance to all who are involved. Which of the following steps are performed in the IT strategy formulation process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Decide how to get from here to there.
B. Evaluate changes.
C. Assess process maturity.
D. Map out the big picture.
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Answer: A,B,D
Question: 41
Which of the following concepts is a semi-standard structured report supported by proven design methods and automation tools that can be used by managers to keep track of the execution of activities by staff within their control and monitor the consequences arising from these actions?
A. Total Security Management
B. Balanced Scorecard (BSC)
C. Total Quality Management
D. Six Sigma
Answer: B
Question: 42
Elizabeth is a project manager for her organization and she finds risk management to be very difficult for her to manage. She asks you, a lead project manager, at what stage in the project will risk management become easier. What answer best resolves the difficulty of risk management practices and the effort required?
A. Risk management only becomes easier the more often it is practiced.
B. Risk management only becomes easier when the project is closed.
C. Risk management is an iterative process and never becomes easier.
D. Risk management only becomes easier when the project moves into project execution.
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Answer: A
Question: 43
Which of the following stages of the Forrester’s IT Governance Maturity Model describes that the IT governance processes are applied across the enterprise where all business units/entities conform to the same set of IT governance processes, and IT investment decisions are based on the enterprise view?
A. Stage 3-Consistent
B. Stage 4-Best practices
C. Stage 1-Ad hoc
D. Stage 2-Fragmented
Answer: A
Question: 44
You are the project manager of the HJK project for your organization. You and the project team have created risk responses for many of the risk events in the project. A teaming agreement is an example
of what risk response?
A. Mitigation
B. Sharing
C. Transference
D. Acceptance
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Answer: B
Question: 45
Which of the following is the main objective of business process outsourcing?
A. Realigning business process with business strategy
B. Permitting the enterprise to focus on core main competences
C. Optimizing business processes
D. Increasing the automation of business processes
Answer: B
Question: 46
In which of the following phases of the SDLC does the software and other components of the system faithfully incorporate the design specifications and provide proper documentation and training?
A. Design
B. Initiation
C. Programming and training
D. Evaluation and acceptance
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Answer: C
Question: 47
You are the project manager of a newly formed project to create a new manufacturing facility. You are working with a business analyst to identify, document, and prioritize stakeholders’ needs for the facility. You’ll also need to quantify any subjective terms and needs to define the project scope. What is this process called?
A. Requirements analysis
B. Project scope statement creation
C. Requirements gathering
D. Stakeholder analysis
Answer: D
Question: 48
IT Governance is used by the management to regulate the Information Systems, to accomplish its objectives. IT governance forms an integral part of corporate governance. Which of the following elements are required to implement a good IT governance framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Communication
B. Structure
C. Project
D. Process
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Answer: A,B,D
Question: 49
Which of the following roles is responsible for review and risk analysis of all contracts on a regular basis?
A. The Service Catalogue Manager
B. The Supplier Manager
C. The Configuration Manager
D. The IT Service Continuity Manager
Answer: B
Question: 50
All projects that are presented in your organization must go through a board to review the return on investment, risk, and worthiness of a project. All projects are considered but not all projects are initiated. What is the name of the process that this board is completing in your organization?
A. Project selection committee
B. Change governance
C. Project portfolio management
D. Project portfolio management board
642-385 dumps 
Answer: C
Question: 51
Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management enables portfolio managers to include or exclude investments, change start and end-dates, adjust budgets and reevaluate priorities?
A. Integrated Capability
B. Portfolio Planning Analysis
C. Portfolio What-If Planning
D. Portfolio Management
Answer: C
Question: 52
Fred is the project manager of the PKL project. He is working with his project team to complete the quantitative risk analysis process as a part of risk management planning. Fred understands that once the quantitative risk analysis process is complete, the process will need to be completed again in at least two other times in the project. When will the quantitative risk analysis process need to be repeated?
A. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the risk response planning and as a part of monitoring and controlling.
B. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the plan risk response planning and as part of procurement.
C. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after new risks are identified and as pa of monitoring and controlling.
D. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the cost management planning an as a part of monitoring and controlling.
642-385 pdf 
Answer: A
Question: 53
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. There has been a delay in your project work that is adversely affecting the project schedule. You decided, with your stakeholders’ approval, to fast track the project work to get the project done faster. When you fast track the project which of the following are likely to increase?
A. Costs
B. Risks
C. Human resource needs
D. Quality control concerns
Answer: B
Question: 54
Which of the following processes ensures that all vital assets and resources of the organization are safeguarded?
A. Defining Resource Requirements process
B. Cost estimating process
C. Vendor contract administration process
D. Risk management process
642-385 vce 
Answer: D
Question: 56
In software development, which of the following analysis is used to document the services and functions that have been accidentally left out, deliberately eliminated or still need to be developed?
A. Vulnerability analysis
B. Cost-benefit analysis
C. Requirement analysis

D. Gap analysis
642-385 exam 
Answer: D
Question: 57
The entry points to Service Strategy are referred to as “the Four Ps”. They identify the different forms a service strategy may take. Which of the following is a correct list of the ‘Four Ps’?
A. People, Products, Partners, and Profit
B. People, Potential, Products, and Performance
C. Potential, Preparation, Performance, and Profit
D. Perspective, Position, Plan, and Pattern
Answer: D
Question: 58
Melody is the project manager for her organization. She has created a risk response to conduct more tests on the software her project is creating. The identified risk that prompted this response was that the software is mission-critical and must be flawless before it can be put into product. What type of a risk response has Melody used in this scenario?
A. Transference
B. Enhance
C. Avoidance
D. Mitigation
642-385 dumps 
Answer: D
Question: 59
Which of the following are the roles of a CIO in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Standardizes architecture & technology.
B. Defines value creation roles within IT.
C. Provides IT infrastructure to facilitate knowledge & information creation/sharing.
D. Establishes business priorities & allocates resources for IT performance.
Answer: A,B,C

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Following Cisco 300-170 Dumps 102QAs Are All New Published By Pass4itsure

QUESTION 1.Which one of the following choices lists the four steps of interaction with a database?
A.Connect, Read, Write, Disconnect
B.Connect, Send a command, Write, Disconnect
C.Connect, Query, Read/Write, Disconnect
D.Connect, Send a command, Display results, Disconnect
300-170 exam Correct:D
QUESTION 2.Which one of the following variables is used if no variable was specified in a pattern match, substitution operator or print statement?
A.$nul
B.$#
C.$_
D.$*
Correct:C
QUESTION 3.Which choice demonstrates the correct syntax for the DELETE command?
A.DELETE MyDatabase WHERE VALUES state=Kentucky AND color=blue
B.DELETE MyDatabase WHERE state=Kentucky AND color=blue
C.DELETE FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=Kentucky AND color=blue
D.DELETE state=Kentucky AND color=blue FROM MyDatabase
300-170 dumps Correct:C
QUESTION 4.Consider the following HTML code: < INPUT TYPE=text NAME=state VALUE=>> Given this code, which one of the following choices best describes how the data should be written to a file?
A.print OUTPUT, “state” . param(“State: “);
B.print OUTPUT “State: ” . param(“state”);
C.print OUTPUT, “State: ” . (“state”);
D.OUTPUT “state” . param(“State: “);
Correct:B
QUESTION 5.Which choice best demonstrates how the print statement may be used to print HTML code?
A.print HTML>>;
B.print ;
C.print (“HTML”);
D.print (“”);
300-170 pdf Correct:D
QUESTION 6.Consider the following code: open(INFILE, “myfile”); Given this code, which one of the following choices demonstrates reading in scalar context?
A.$file = INFILE>;
B.$file < INFILE>;
C.%file = INFILE>;
[email protected] <= INFILE>;
Correct:A
QUESTION 7.Consider the following code: open( INPUT, “Chapter1”); Given this code, which one of the following choices demonstrates reading in list context?
A.%file = INPUT ;
[email protected] = INPUT ;
[email protected]%file < INPUT ;

D.$file = INPUT ;
300-170 vce Correct:B
QUESTION 8.Which set of operators is used to read and write to a file in random-access mode?
A.< >
B.< >>
C.+< +>
D.-<< ->>
Correct:C
QUESTION 9.The do method duplicates the function of which of the following methods?
A.param and execute
B.post and prepare
C.prepare and execute
D.post and execute
300-170 exam Correct:C
QUESTION 10.Which one of the following statements allows for variable substitution?
A.$sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
B.$sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
C.$sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
D.$sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
Correct:A
QUESTION 11.Antonio is naming a Perl variable. Which choice includes characters he may use?
A._, &, *
B.+, #,
$ C.$,
@, % D.%,
#, @
300-170 dumps Correct:C
QUESTION 12.Which choice best describes how to access individual elements of an array?
A.Use an index starting with 1
B.Use an index starting with 0
C.Use a pointer
D.Use a key value
Correct:B
QUESTION 13.Before allowing a user to submit data with a Web form, which of the following tasks should be performed?
A.The data should be validated by the script.
B.The data should be validated by the programmer.
C.The data should be compared to valid data stored in a list.
D.The data should be passed through the validate() method.
300-170 pdf Correct:A
QUESTION 14.The CGI.pm module can be used to perform which one of the following tasks?
A.GET or POST data
B.Load external variables
C.Read large amounts of text into the script
D.Access environment variables

Correct:D
QUESTION 15.What is the main danger in using cookies and hidden fields?
A.They can be deleted.
B.They can be edited.
C.They can be blocked by the browser.
D.They can be viewed.
300-170 vce Correct:B
QUESTION 16.The start_html method of CGI.pm yields which one of the following results?
A.”content-type:A\n\n”
B. HTML
C. FORM METHOD=A ACTION=B ENCODING=C
D. NPUT TYPE=”submit” VALUE=A
Correct:B
QUESTION 17.Which method is used in a Perl script to access the variables POSTed by an HTML form?
A.prepare();
B.param();
C.header ();
D.post();
300-170 exam Correct:B
QUESTION 18.The file mode specifies which one of the following?
A.The access permissions
B.The inode number
C.The file’s owner
D.How the file is opened
Correct:D
QUESTION 19.List context versus scalar context is determined by which one of the following?
A.The compiler
B.The debugger
C.The interpreter
D.The environment
300-170 dumps Correct:C
QUESTION 20.Which one of the following choices best describes data tainting?
A.Tainted data can be used by eval, system, or exec.
B.Tainted data cannot be accessed by the script.
C.Variables containing external data cannot be used outside the script.
D.Data tainting is enabled using the D switch.
Correct:C
QUESTION 21
When is the earliest point at which the reduce method of a given Reducer can be called?
A. As soon as at least one mapper has finished processing its input split.
B. As soon as a mapper has emitted at least one record.
C. Not until all mappers have finished processing all records.
D. It depends on the InputFormat used for the job.
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Which describes how a client reads a file from HDFS?
A. The client queries the NameNode for the block location(s).The NameNode returns the block location(s) to the client. The client reads the data directory off the DataNode(s).
B. The client queries all DataNodes in parallel. The DataNode that contains the requested data responds
directly to the client. The client reads the data directly off the DataNode.
C. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s).The NameNode then queries the DataNodes for block locations. The DataNodes respond to the NameNode, and the NameNode redirects the client to the DataNode that holds the requested data block(s).The client then reads the data directly off the DataNode.
D. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s).The NameNode contacts the DataNode that holds the requested data block. Data is transferred from the DataNode to the NameNode, and then from the NameNode to the client.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
You are developing a combiner that takes as input Text keys, IntWritable values, and emits Text keys, IntWritable values. Which interface should your class implement?
A. Combiner <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
B. Mapper <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
C. Reducer <Text, Text, IntWritable, IntWritable>
D. Reducer <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
E. Combiner <Text, Text, IntWritable, IntWritable>
300-170 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Indentify the utility that allows you to create and run MapReduce jobs with any executable or script as the mapper and/or the reducer?
A. Oozie
B. Sqoop
C. Flume
D. Hadoop Streaming
E. mapred
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
How are keys and values presented and passed to the reducers during a standard sort and shuffle phase of MapReduce?
A. Keys are presented to reducer in sorted order; values for a given key are not sorted.
B. Keys are presented to reducer in sorted order; values for a given key are sorted in ascending order.
C. Keys are presented to a reducer in random order; values for a given key are not sorted.
D. Keys are presented to a reducer in random order; values for a given key are sorted in ascending order.
300-170 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Assuming default settings, which best describes the order of data provided to a reducer s reduce method:
A. The keys given to a reducer aren t in a predictable order, but the values associated with those keys always are.
B. Both the keys and values passed to a reducer always appear in sorted order.
C. Neither keys nor values are in any predictable order.
D. The keys given to a reducer are in sorted order but the values associated with each key are in no predictable order
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
You wrote a map function that throws a runtime exception when it encounters a control character in input data. The input supplied to your mapper contains twelve such characters totals, spread across five file splits. The first four file splits each have two control characters and the last split has four control characters. Indentify the number of failed task attempts you can expect when you run the job with mapred.max.map.attempts set to 4:
A. You will have forty-eight failed task attempts
B. You will have seventeen failed task attempts
C. You will have five failed task attempts
D. You will have twelve failed task attempts
E. You will have twenty failed task attempts
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 28
You want to populate an associative array in order to perform a map-side join. You ?v decided to put this information in a text file, place that file into the Distributed Cache and read it in your Mapper before any records are processed. Indentify which method in the Mapper you should use to implement code for reading the file and populating the associative array?
A. combine
B. map
C. init
D. configure
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
You ve written a MapReduce job that will process 500 million input records and generated 500 million key value pairs. The data is not uniformly distributed. Your MapReduce job will create a significant amount of intermediate data that it needs to transfer between mappers and reduces which is a potential bottleneck.
A custom implementation of which interface is most likely to reduce the amount of intermediate data transferred across the network?
A. Partitioner
B. OutputFormat

C. WritableComparable
D. Writable
E. InputFormat
F. Combiner
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 30
Can you use MapReduce to perform a relational join on two large tables sharing a key? Assume that the two tables are formatted as comma-separated files in HDFS.
A. Yes.
B. Yes, but only if one of the tables fits into memory
C. Yes, so long as both tables fit into memory.
D. No, MapReduce cannot perform relational operations.
E. No, but it can be done with either Pig or Hive.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
You have just executed a MapReduce job. Where is intermediate data written to after being emitted from the Mapper s map method?
A. Intermediate data in streamed across the network from Mapper to the Reduce and is never written to disk.
B. Into in-memory buffers on the TaskTracker node running the Mapper that spill over and are written into HDFS.
C. Into in-memory buffers that spill over to the local file system of the TaskTracker node running the Mapper.
D. Into in-memory buffers that spill over to the local file system (outside HDFS) of the TaskTracker node running the Reducer
E. Into in-memory buffers on the TaskTracker node running the Reducer that spill over and are written into HDFS.
300-170 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
You want to understand more about how users browse your public website, such as which pages they visit prior to placing an order. You have a farm of 200 web servers hosting your website. How will you gather this data for your analysis?
A. Ingest the server web logs into HDFS using Flume.
B. Write a MapReduce job, with the web servers for mappers, and the Hadoop cluster nodes for reduces.
C. Import all users clicks from your OLTP databases into Hadoop, using Sqoop.
D. Channel these clickstreams inot Hadoop using Hadoop Streaming.
E. Sample the weblogs from the web servers, copying them into Hadoop using curl.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
MapReduce v2 (MRv2/YARN) is designed to address which two issues?
A. Single point of failure in the NameNode.
B. Resource pressure on the JobTracker.
C. HDFS latency.
D. Ability to run frameworks other than MapReduce, such as MPI.
E. Reduce complexity of the MapReduce APIs.

F. Standardize on a single MapReduce API.
300-170 exam Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 34
You need to run the same job many times with minor variations. Rather than hardcoding all job configuration options in your drive code, you ve decided to have your Driver subclass org.apache.hadoop.conf.Configured and implement the org.apache.hadoop.util.Tool interface. Indentify which invocation correctly passes.mapred.job.name with a value of Example to Hadoop?
A. hadoop mapred.job.name=Example MyDriver input output
B. hadoop MyDriver mapred.job.name=Example input output
C. hadoop MyDrive D mapred.job.name=Example input output
D. hadoop setproperty mapred.job.name=Example MyDriver input output
E. hadoop setproperty ( mapred.job.name=Example ) MyDriver input output
Correct Answer: C

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