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QUESTION 1
You plan to use Azure Machine Learning to develop a predictive model. You plan to include an Execute Python Script module. What capability does the module provide?
A. Outputting a file to a network location.
B. Performing interactive debugging of a Python script.
C. Saving the results of a Python script run in a Machine Learning environment to a local file.
D. Visualizing univariate and multivariate summaries by using Python code.
70-774 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. A travel agency named Margie’s Travel sells airline tickets to customers in the United States. Margie’s Travel wants you to provide insights and predictions on flight delays. The agency is considering implementing a system that will communicate to its customers as the flight departure nears about possible delays due to weather conditions. The flight data contains the following attributes: The weather data contains the following attributes: AirportID, ReadingDate (YYYY/MM/DD HH), SkyConditionVisibility, WeatherType, WindSpeed, StationPressure, PressureChange, and HourlyPrecip. You have an untrained Azure Machine Learning model that you plan to train to predict flight delays.
You need to assess the variability of the dataset and the reliability of the predictions from the model. Which module should you use?
A. Cross-Validate Model
B. Evaluate Model
C. Tune Model Hyperparameters
D. Train Model
E. Score Model
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have data about the following:
You need to predict whether a user will like a particular movie.
Which Matchbox recommender should you use?
A. Item Recommendation
B. Related Items
C. Rating Prediction
D. Related Users
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QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. A travel agency named Margie’s Travel sells airline tickets to customers in the United States. Margie’s Travel wants you to provide insights and predictions on flight delays. The agency is considering implementing a system that will communicate to its customers as the flight departure nears about possible delays due to weather conditions. The flight data contains the following attributes: The weather data contains the following attributes: AirportID, ReadingDate (YYYY/MM/DD HH), SkyConditionVisibility, WeatherType, WindSpeed, StationPressure, PressureChange, and HourlyPrecip. You plan to predict flight delays that are 30 minutes or more. You need to build a training model that accurately fits the data. The solution must minimize over fitting and minimize data leakage. Which attribute should you remove?
A. OriginAirportID
B. DepDel
C. DepDel30
D. Carrier
E. DestAirportID
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are working on an Azure Machine Learning experiment. You have the dataset configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to ensure that you can compare the performance of the models and add annotations to the results. Solution: You connect the Score Model modules from each trained model as inputs for the Evaluate Model module, and use the Execute R Script module. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-774 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have a dataset that contains a column named Column1. Column1 is empty. You need to omit Column1 from the dataset. The solution must use a native module. Which module should you use?
A. Execute Python Script
B. Tune Model Hyperparameters
C. Normalize Data
D. Select Columns in Dataset
E. Import Data
F. Edit Metadata
G. Clip Values
H. Clean Missing Data
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You are building an Azure Machine Learning workflow by using Azure Machine Learning Studio. You create an Azure notebook that supports the Microsoft Cognitive Toolkit. You need to ensure that the stochastic gradient descent (SGD) configuration maximizes the samples per second and supports parallel modeling that is managed by a parameter server. Which SGD algorithm should you use?
A. DataParallelASGD
B. DataParallelSGD
C. ModelAveragingSGD
D. BlockMomentumSGD
70-774 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure Machine Learning environment.
You are evaluating whether to use R code or Python.
Which three actions can you perform by using both R code and Python in the Machine Learning environment? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Preprocess, cleanse, and group data.
B. Score a training model.
C. Create visualizations.
D. Create an untrained model that can be used with the Train Model module.
E. Implement feature ranking.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You need to remove rows that have an empty value in a specific column. The solution must use a native module. Which module should you use?
A. Execute Python Script
B. Tune Model Hyperparameters
C. Normalize Data
D. Select Columns in Dataset
E. Import Data
F. Edit Metadata
G. Clip Values
H. Clean Missing Data
70-774 exam Correct Answer: H

QUESTION 10
You are building an Azure Machine Learning experiment.
You need to transform 47 numeric columns into a set of 10 linearly uncorrelated features.
Which module should you add to the experiment?
A. Principal Component Analysis
B. K-Means Clustering
C. Normalize Data
D. Group Data into Bins
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You have a dataset that is missing values in a column named Column3. Column3 is correlated to two columns named Column4 and Column5. You need to improve the accuracy of the dataset, while minimizing data loss. What should you do?
A. Replace the missing values in Column3 by using probabilistic Principal Component Analysis (PCA).
B. Remove all of the rows that have the missing values in Column4 and Column5.
C. Replace the missing values in Column3 with a mean value.
D. Remove the rows that have the missing values in Column3.
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You need to use R code in a Transact-SQL statement to merge the repeating values 1 through 6 with Col1 in a table. Which statement should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 1
You plan to deploy 20 Client Access servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed. You need to prepare the certificate required for the planned deployment. The solution must ensure that the same certificate can be used on all of the Client Access servers. What should you do first?
A. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the privatekeyexportable parameter.
B. On all of the Client Access servers, run the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.
C. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the binaryencoded parameter.
D. On one of the Client Access servers, start the Certificates console and run the Certificate Import Wizard.
70-342 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Contoso, Ltd., and Fabrikam, Inc., are partner companies. Each company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization in a data center that is connected to the Internet. All of the Exchange servers in both of the organizations have the Client Access server role and the Mailbox role installed. The data centers connect to each other by using a redundant high-speed WAN link. The following mail exchanger (MX) records are configured:
* Contoso.com MX 10 mail.contoso.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 10 mail.fabrikam.com
You need to recommend a solution for inbound mail flow.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
* Users in both companies must receive email from the Internet if either of the Internet links fails.
* Mail from the Internet to contoso.com must be received by mail.contoso.com if the Internet link at the Contoso data center is available.
* Mail from the Internet to fabrikam.com must be received by mail.fabrikam.com if the Internet link at the Fabrikam data center is available.
Which two actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Create the following DNS records:
* Contoso.com MX 20 mail.fabrikam.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 20 mail.contoso.com
B. Create the following DNS records:
* Contoso.com MX 10 mail.fabrikam.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 10 mail.contoso.com
C. For each organization, configure an internal relay domain and a Send connector.
D. For each organization, configure an external relay domain and a Receive connector.
E. Create the following DNS records:
* Contoso.com MX 5 mail.fabrikam.com
* Fabrikam.com MX 5 mail.contoso.com
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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EX1 and EX2 are members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. You have a database named DB1 that replicates to EX1 and EX2. EX1 fails. You discover that DB1 does not mount on EX2. You view the status of the mailbox databases as shown in the following table.
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You need to ensure that the database attempts to mount on EX2 if EX1 fails. What should you change?
A. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to Lossless
B. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to BestAvailabilty
C. The activation preference of DB1\EX2
D. The activation preference of DB1\EX1
70-342 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your company has a data center in New York and a data center in Miami. The company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains a database availability group (DAG). The DAG contains servers in both data centers. The company plans to deploy Outlook Anywhere to all users. You configure the following: All of the Exchange Server 2013 virtual directories in the New York data center use a host name of mail.contoso.com.
All of the Exchange Server 2013 virtual directories in the Miami data center use a host name of miami.mail.contoso.com. In each data center, a certificate from an enterprise certification authority (CA) is configured to contain the following: A certificate principal name of mail.contoso.com Subject alternate names of mail.contoso.com and miami.mail.contoso.com You need to recommend which task must be performed to meet the following requirements: Users always must attempt to connect first to a server in the data center where their mailbox is located. Users must be able to access their mailbox if a single data center fails. What should you recommend?
A. Change the external host name of the Miami data center to mail.contoso.com.
B. Modify the ExternalUrl of the Autodiscover virtual directory of the Client Access servers.
C. Run the Set-OutlookProvider cmdlet.
D. Run the Add-AvailabilityAddressSpace cmdlet.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Your company has offices in Tokyo, Bangkok, and Shanghai. All connections to the Internet are routed through an Internet connection in the Tokyo office. All of the offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. The network contains 10 servers that have Exchange Server 2010 installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You plan to deploy 10 servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
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Each site has an IP-PBX that provides telephony services for the mailboxes in that site by using unsecured SIP over TCP 5070. The IP-PBX uses the same port to connect to multiple SIP peers. You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that the Unified Messaging (UM) features are available to the mailboxes if a single server fails.
Which three actions should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
B. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
C. Install the Client Access server role on the Exchange Server 2013 servers in the Shanghai and Bangkok offices.
D. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
E. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
70-342 pdf Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 6
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains five servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to create a Lync Server SIP Unified Messaging (UM) dial plan to enable voice integration between Lync Server and Exchange Server. Which three Exchange servers should you associate to the UM dial plans? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. EX1
B. EX2
C. EX3
D. EX4
E. EX5
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 7
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization. You successfully migrate the public folders from a previous version of Exchange Server. You discover that one of the public folder mailboxes almost reached its quota size. You need to move some of the public folders in the public folder mailbox to another public folder mailbox. What should you run?
A. Split-PublicFolderMailbox.ps1
B. Set-MailPublicFolder
C. Update-PublicFolderMailbox
D. Set-PublicFolderMailbox
70-342 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Microsoft Office 365. The network does not have Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.0 installed. A user named User1 reports that he cannot access his mailbox because his account is locked out.
You verify that the mailbox of User1 is hosted on Office 365. You need to unlock the account of User1. Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MailUser
B. Set-MSolUser
C. Set-Mailbox
D. Set-ADUser
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Office 365. The mail flow between Office 365 and the on-premises Exchange Server environment is routed through an Exchange Server 2010 Edge Transport server. Your company is assigned a new set of public IP addresses. A network administrator updates the external firewall address and all of the associated DNS records. Office 365 users report that they cannot receive email messages from on-premises users. You discover that outgoing email messages to Office 365 are in the Office 365 SMTP queue on an Edge server. You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages successfully to the Office 365 users. Which tool should you use?
A. The Exchange Management Console
B. The Exchange Control Panel in Office 365
C. The Exchange Admin Center
D. The Exchange Remote Connectivity Analyzer
70-342 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com. The organization contains five Mailbox servers. You need to prevent a user named User8 from permanently deleting an email message in his mailbox. What should you do on the mailbox of User8?
A. Configure an in-place hold.
B. Create an Archive mailbox.
C. Configure a retention hold.
D. Create a Retention tag.
Correct Answer: A

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Question No : 23 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)  You are creating a function by using JavaScript. The function accepts an object as the parameter and returns a string that identifies the data type of the object. You have the following requirements:
The function must return “Number” if the object is a number.
The function must return “String” if the object is a string.
The function must return “Unknown” if the object is neither a number nor a string. You need to implement the function to meet the requirements. How should you build the code segment? (To answer, select the appropriate options from the drop-down lists in the answer area.)

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Question No : 24 – (Topic 1) You need to test the value of the following variable in JavaScript. var length = “75”; A block of code must execute if the length equals 75 regardless of the data type. You need to use the statement that meets this requirement. Which lines of code should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. if (length = = = 75)
B. if (length = = 75)
C. if (length! = 75)
D. if (length = = “75”)
70-480 exam Answer: B,D
Question No : 25 – (Topic 1)  You are developing an application that uses a third-party JavaScript library named doWork(). The library occasionally throws an “object is null or undefined” error with an error code of -2146823281.
The application must:
Extract and handle the exceptions thrown by doWork() Continue normal program execution if other exceptions occur You need to implement the requirements. Which code segment should you use?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C
Question No : 26 – (Topic 1)  You are troubleshooting a web page that includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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What is displayed in the alert from line 11?
A. Div
B. Function
C. Button
D. Document
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Question No : 27 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a web application that consumes services from a third-party application. A web worker processes the third-party application requests in the background. A page in the application instantiates the web worker process. You need to establish two-way communications between the web worker process and the page.
Which two actions will achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. From the web worker, use the onconnect event handler of the main page to capture events.
B. From the main page, use the onmessage event handler of the web worker to capture
events.
C. From the web worker, use the onmessage event handler of the main page to capture
events.
D. From the main page, use the onconnect event handler of the web worker to capture
events.
Answer: B,C
Reference:
Question No : 28 – (Topic 1)  You are developing an HTML5 web application that displays customer mailing address information. The application loads addresses from a web service by using AJAX. The following code defines a Customer object and loads address data.
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You need to implement the loadAddress function. Which code segment should you use?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-480 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION: 29
Other than an activity, which rule type can be used to populate a declare page? (Choose One)
A. Data Transform
B. Report Definition
C. Decision Table
D. Database
E. All of the above can be used to populate a declare page
Answer: B
QUESTION: 30
When creating a list-type report, which attribute can we NOT specify about the data returned by the report? (Choose One)
A. The format of the data
B. The sort order of the data
C. Whether the data appears on a chart
D. Whether the data should appear in the report or not
70-480 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 31 A manager can create a report in which of the following categories? (Choose One)
A. Only a standard category
B. Only a shared category
C. Only a personal category
D. A shared category or a personal category
E. A standard category or a personal category
F. A standard category, a shared category, or a personal category
Answer: D
QUESTION: 32
Which of the following can be used to define a column in a report? (Choose Two)
A. Another report
B. A SQL function
C. A Java function
D. An exposed property
E. A class join
70-480 exam Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 33
Which of the following definitions is incorrectly matched with one of the 6R’s of PRPC? (Choose One)
A. ResolvinG.Complete the work, then update downstream systems promptly through automated process and automated support of users
B. ReceivinG.Accept and capture the essential data describing work from multiple sources
C. ReportinG.Communicate status, requests for information, and progress to the work originator and to other interested people involved in the work
D. ResearchinG.Support analysis and decision-making by providing access to external systems and databases
Answer: C
QUESTION: 34
(True or False) A business process describes and controls how business is conducted.

A. True
B. False
70-480 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 35
The elements that make up a Business Process Management application include (Choose Three)
A. process
B. user interface
C. forms
D. logic and decisions
E. analyzing
F. routing
Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 36
Which of the following are true statements regarding a work type? (Choose Three)
A. A work type represents a fundamental unit of work to be processed and resolved
B. A work type is a template used to create a work item
C. A work type can be assigned to a user
D. A work type defines the process used to complete, or resolve, work
E. A work type has a unique status
70-480 pdf Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 37
By default, which types of information are automatically added to the history of a work item? (Choose Four)
A. Changes to work status
B. Audit notes
C. Changes to property values
D. Assignment instructions
E. The work type used to create the work item
F. The user who created the work item

Answer: A, B, D, F
QUESTION: 38
What is the key difference between BPM application development and traditional
application development? (Choose One)
A. A BPM application is process-centric (all elements of the application depend upon the process)
B. In a BPM application, elements of the application – such as UI, logic, and data – cannot be modular
C. A traditional application cannot be used in an N-tier environment
D. A traditional application allows for direct execution of the business process, while a
BPM application does not
70-480 vce Answer: A

QUESTION: 40 A ‘strongly typed’ programming language is subject to which two rules? (Choose two.)
A. Every data object must belong to one unique type.
B. All data objects are strongly associated to a local scope.
C. Data object names must be in strong Hungarian notation.
D. Data objects must be of the same type during assignments unless actively overridden.
Answer:AD
QUESTION: 41 Which two most accurately describe the added value of using MDA based transformations? (Choose two.)

A. PIM/PSM distinction
B. PIM/PSM template usage
C. Transformation recording
D. Transformation verification
E. Transformation automation
70-480 exam Answer:AC
QUESTION: 42 What transformation method is a component-based product line architecture most likely to use?
A. QVT
B. Manual C.
Patterns D.
Factoring
E. Automatic
Answer: E
QUESTION: 43 Which statement is true about a PIM?
A. It is always an application-level model.
B. It is sometimes called a domain model.
C. It may be transformed to a PSM using cascaded transformations.
D. It is a set of subsystems that provides functionality through interfaces.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 44 Which statement is true about an interoperability transformation?
A. It is a transformation applied to interoperability connectors.
B. It includes transformation specifications for two different platforms.
C. It is a transformation that distributes a PSM to a multiprocessor system.
D. It transforms two PIMs to a PSM that is interoperable on a single platform.
70-480 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 45 Which statement is NOT true about a PSM?

A. It may abstract away some of the platform details
B. It always includes a detailed model of the platform.
C. It must always be able to produce an implementation.
D. It must always include all details necessary to produce an implementation.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 46 What must include all of the information needed to construct a system and to put it into operation?
A. Platform
B. Viewpoint
C. Implementation
D. Platform Specific Model
70-480 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 47 Which two statements correctly describe the MDA Pattern? (Choose two.)
A. It includes a PIM that is independent of all platforms.
B. A PIM on one context may be a PSM in another context.
C. It includes a PIM that is independent of a specific class of platforms.
D. Once transformed into a PSM, a model will always be viewed as a PSM.
Answer: BC
QUESTION: 48 What are two characteristics of manual transformation in the MDA? (Choose two.)
A. It requires a record of the manual transformation.
B. It is a radical departure from traditional software design methods.
C. It makes an explicit distinction between a platform independent model and the transformed platform specific model.
QUESTION: 49 It adds very little to standard software design practices in use today, but provides a method to incorporate legacy software under the MDA name.
70-480 vce Answer:AC

QUESTION: 50 Most Remote Procedure Calls (RPCs) listen on ports?
A. all well-known ports
B. any port below 512
C. dynamically assigned ports, usually below port 1024
D. dynamically assigned ports, usually above port 1023
Answer: D
QUESTION: 51  In order to mine DHCP client addressing problems, it would be best to mine.
A. RDP and its associated port
B. Bootpc and Bootps (DHCP) and the last known address of the client
C. the last known address of the client
D. the port on the server that the client was attempting to reach
70-480 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 52 Consider this mining filter. Which description most accurately describes what it does?
A. It includes packets in either direction only between network 192.168.1.0/24 and network 10.2.1.0/24.
B. It includes packets sent from network 192.168.1.0/24 to network 10.2.1.0/24.
C. It includes packets in either direction between network 192.168.1.0/24 and other all other networks,
except 10.2.1.0/24.
D. Nothing. No packets would pass this filter.
Answer:A
QUESTION: 53  Reviewing initial data and noting significant trends is part of a process used to.
A. testing a hypothesis
B. isolate an application for conversion

C. profile network usage
D. all of the above
70-480 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 54 If you have captured network traffic and misuse of a network is uncovered, it is usually best to:
A. Confront the individual and record your conversation.
B. Hand the information over to a network security officer or manager.
C. Take the initiative and perform your own investigation.
D. Not inform anyone.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 55 Remote Procedure Calls may change their listening port number when the service is disabled and restarted.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
70-480 pdf Answer:A
QUESTION: 56 Which of the following uses Remote Procedure Calls?
A. Grep
B. Linux and Unix
C. Windows
D. VLANs
E. DNS
Answer: BC
QUESTION: 57 A list of up to 10 of the last file names accessed on an FTP server may be viewed.
A. in the data mining interface (Quick Select) on Files tab
B. in the data mining interface (Quick Select) by creating a custom tab and adding a Files column
C. in the analysis interface in an Expert Application layer object

D. in the analysis interface in an Expert Service layer object
70-480 vce Answer: D
QUESTION: 58  While troubleshooting firewall issues, it is useful to compare:
A. Stream data on the inside, since anything blocked will be on the inside.
B. Stream data on the outside, since anything blocked will be on the outside.
C. Stream data on the inside and outside of the firewall to see what is getting through.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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QUESTION 86
An audit manager has just returned from an executive training program and has suggested that the audit department develop a mathematical model to help identify factors that may be causing changes in the cost of production. According to the manager, the model should recognize that the company currently has three separate production (cost) centers. Which of the following approaches would best provide the analysis suggested by the audit manager?
A. Develop a classical variables sampling estimate of cost of production per department, with the sample stratified by the dollar value of each product produced.
B. Develop a 3-year ratio analysis of the cost of production compared to the cost of raw inventory across the three departments.
C. Develop a multiple regression analysis of production costs, including such variables as raw material inventory costs, number of employees in the department, and overtime pay.
D. Develop a linear regression analysis relating the cost of production to the cost of goods sold.
70-761 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Regression analysis extends correlation to find an equation for the linear relationship among variables. The behavior of a dependent variable, such as cost of production, is explained in terms of one or more independent variables (for example, raw material costs, employees, overtime). Thus, multiple regression analysis determines functional relationships among quantitative variables.
QUESTION 87
A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers: The technique used in analyzing the problem is best described as:
A. Simulation theory.
B. Integrated autoregressive-moving average (ARIMA) modeling.
C. Linear programming.
D. Differential calculus.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer (A) is correct. Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical/mathematical models using a computer. Despite the power of mathematics, many
problems cannot be solved by known analytical methods because of the behavior of the variables and the complexity of their interactions. However, the performance of a quantitative model under uncertainty may be investigated by randomly selecting values for each of the variables in the model (based on the probability distribution of each variable) and then calculating the value of the solution. If this process is performed a large number of times, the distribution of results from the model will be obtained.
QUESTION 88
A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers:
The process of making sure that the model measures what it is supposed to measure is called:
A. Statistical inference.
B. Hypothesis testing.
C. Confidence coefficient analysis.
D. Validation.
70-761 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Validation is a step in the simulation procedure. Some assurance is needed that the results of the experiment will be realistic. This assurance requires validation of the model –often using historical data. If the model gives results equivalent to what actually happened, the model is historically valid. There is still some risk, however, that changes could make the model invalid for the future.
QUESTION 89
The marketing department of a company is deciding on the price to charge for a key product. In setting this price, marketing needs to consider the price that a major competitor will charge for a similar product because the competitor’s price will affect the demand for the company’s product. Similarly, in setting its price, the competitor will consider what the company will charge. What is an appropriate mathematical technique for analyzing such a decision?
A. Game theory.
B. Probability theory.
C. Linear programming.
D. Sensitivity analysis.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Game (or decision) theory is a mathematical approach to decision making when confronted with an enemy or competitor. Games are classified according to the number of players and the algebraic sum of the payoffs. In a two-person game, if the payoff is given by the loser to the winner, the algebraic sum is zero and the game is called a zero-sum game. If it is possible for both players to profit, however, the game is a positive-sum game. Mathematical models have been developed to select optimal strategies for certain simple games.
QUESTION 90
Because of the large number of factors that could affect the demand for its new product, interactions among these factors, and the probabilities associated with different values of these factors, the marketing department would like to develop a computerized model for projecting demand for this product. By using a random number procedure to generate values for the different factors .it will be able to estimate the distribution of demand for this new product. This method of estimating the distribution of demand for the new product is called:
A. Monte Carlo simulation.
B. Linear programming.
C. Correlation analysis.
D. Differential analysis.
70-761 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulations that use a random-number procedure to generate values for the inputs areMonte Carlo simulations.
QUESTION 91
A large fishing operation has information on the interval, time, and probabilities of shrimp schools staying beneath their fishing boats. In order to use this information to predict when and where to send their boats, which of the following techniques should be used?
A. Simulation.
B. Least squares.

C. Queuing theory.
D. Exponential smoothing.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical and mathematical models using a computer. Because of the behavior of the many variables involved and the complexity of their interactions, many problems cannot be solved using simple algebraic formulas. The availability of computer spreadsheets makes the construction of simulation models a practical alternative for all entities.
QUESTION 92
A cost-volume-profit model developed in a dynamic environment determined that the estimated parameters used may vary between limits. Subsequent testing of
the model with respect to all possible values of the estimated parameters is termed:
A. A sensitivity analysis.
B. Statistical estimation.
C. Statistical hypothesis testing.
D. A time-series study.
70-761 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
After a problem has been formulated into any mathematical model, it may be subjected to sensitivity analysis. Sensitivity analysis examines how the model’s
outcomes change as the parameters change.
QUESTION 93
A company is deciding whether to purchase an automated machine to manufacture one of its products. Expected net cash flows from this decision depend on several factors, interactions among those factors, and the probabilities associated with different levels of those factors. The method that the company should use to evaluate the distribution of net cash flows from this decision and changes in net cash flows resulting from changes in levels of various factors is:
A. Simulation and sensitivity analysis.
B. Linear programming.
C. Correlation analysis.
D. Differential analysis.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical and mathematical models using a computer. Sensitivity analysis examines how the model’s outcomes change as the parameters change.

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Exam Code: 70-246
Exam Name: Monitoring and Operating a Private Cloud with System Center 2012
Q&As: 153

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Question: 1
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure. You create a host group named HostGroup1. You move several Hyper-V hosts to HostGroup1. You plan to manage Windows updates for the hosts in HostGroup1 by using VMM. An administrator creates a baseline as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You discover that the updates defined in the baseline are not applied to the hosts in HostGroup1. You need to ensure that the required updates are deployed to the hosts in HostGroup1. What should you do?
A. Copy the required updates to the VMM library server.
B. Synchronize the Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server.
C. Modify the properties of HostGroup1.
D. Modify the properties of the baseline.
70-246 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
You can see from the exhibit, the baseline the administrator created is not applied. To apply a baseline, you modify the properties of the baseline to select the hosts and groups. Source information: How to Configure Update Baselines in VMM VMM provides two sample built-in updates baselines that you can use to apply security updates and critical updates to the computers in your VMM environment. Before you can use a baseline,
 you must assign it to host groups, host clusters, or individual managed computers. The following procedure explains how to assign computers to the sample security baseline. To assign computers to a built-in update baseline Open the Library workspace. On the Library pane, expand Update Catalog and Baselines, and then click Update Baselines. The Baselines pane displays the two built-in baselines: Sample Baseline for Security Updates and
Sample Baseline for Critical Updates. On the Baselines pane, click Sample Baseline for Security Updates. On the Home page, in the Properties group, click Properties. The Properties dialog box for the Sample Baseline for Security Updates opens. Note On the left of the dialog box, click Updates to open the Updates page. On the Updates page, optionally add or remove update baselines from the baselines that are listed. The Sample Baseline for Security Updates includes all security updates. To ensure that all security
updates are remediated, do not remove any baselines. Click Assignment Scope to open the Assignment Scope page and then, select host groups, host clusters, and computers to add to the baseline. Computers are represented by the roles they perform in VMM. When you select a role, such as VMM server, all the roles that the computer performs in VMM are selected. For example, if your VMM management server is also a library server, selecting your VMM management server under VMM Server causes the same computer under Library Servers to be selected. To apply a baseline to all hosts, select the All Hosts root host group. Click OK to save your changes.

Question: 2
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The Service Manager management server is installed on a server named Server1. The Configuration Manager site server is installed on a server named Server2. You create a baseline and several configuration items. You need to configure Service Manager to create incidents for each Service Manager configuration item that is non-complaint with the baseline. What should you create?
A. a task and a Desired Configuration Management Event Workflow
B. a channel and a subscription
C. a connector and a Desired Configuration Management Event Workflow
D. a subscription, a connector, and a task
Answer: C
Explanation:
A connector is required to bring data from Configuration Manager into Service Manager. From there, you create a Desired Configuration management Event Workflow. Using Connectors to Import Data into System Center 2012 – Service Manager
Question: 3
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The network contains 50 virtual machines that run Windows 7. Each virtual machine has an application named Appl.exe installed. A new version of Appl.exe is released. You need to identify which virtual machines have the outdated version of App1.exe installed. What should you do?
A. From Operations Manager, create a monitor.
B. From Configuration Manager, deploy a Desired Configuration Management baseline.
C. From Service Manager, create a Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) connector.
D. From Virtual Machine Manager (VMM), deploy a service template.
70-246 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
Desired configuration management in Configuration Manager 2007 allows you to assess the compliance of computers with regard to a number of configurations, such as whether the correct Microsoft Windows operating system versions are installed and configured appropriately, whether all required applications are installed and configured correctly, whether optional applications are configured appropriately, and whether prohibited applications are installed. Additionally, you can check for compliance with software updates and security settings.

Question: 4
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. You deploy Data Protection Manager (DPM) to a server named DPM1. A server named Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed and hosts a virtual machine named VM1. From DPM1, you perform a full backup of Server1. You discover that you are unable to restore individual files from VM1. You need to ensure that you can restore individual files from VM1 by using the DPM Administrator console. What should you do first?
A. On VM1, install Windows Server Backup.
B. On DPM1, attach the VHD of VM1.
C. On DPM1, install the Hyper-V server role.
D. On VM1, install the integration features.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In either case, DPM utilizes the Hyper-V VSS writer to synchronize block-level differences within the VHDs using a process called an “Express Full”, which identifies which blocks have changed in the entire VHD and then sends just the updated blocks or fragments. This provides a complete and consistent image of the virtual hard disk files on the DPM server or appliance. DPM maintains up to
  512 shadow copies of the full VHD set by storing only the block-level differences between any two images.

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Exam Name: Provisioning SQL Databases
Q&As: 105

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QUESTION 65
Select the appropriate name for the highlighted area of the binary numbers.
A. Word
B. Dword
C. Byte
D. Nibble
E. Bit
70-765 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 66
The EnCase methodology dictates that the lab drive for evidence have a __________ prior to making an image.
A. FAT 16 partition
B. NTFS partition
C. unique volume label
D. bare, unused partition
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 67
In hexadecimal notation, one byte is represented by _____ character(s).
A. 2
B. 1
C. 8
D. 4
70-765 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 68
A personal data assistant was placed in a evidence locker until an examiner has time to examine it. Which of the following areas would require special attention?
A. Chain-of-custody
B. Storage
C. There is no concern
D. Cross-contamination
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 69
When a non-compressed evidence file is reacquired with compression, the acquisition and verification hash values for the evidence will remain the same for both files.
A. True
B. False
70-765 pdf Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 70
To generate an MD5 hash value for a file, EnCase:
A. Computes the hash value including the logical file and filename.
B. Computes the hash value including the physical file and filename.
C. Computes the hash value based on the logical file.
D. Computes the hash value based on the physical file.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 71
Which of the following is found in the FileSignatures.ini configuration file
A. The results of a hash analysis
B. The information contained in the signature table
C. The results of a signature analysis
D. Pointers to an evidence file
70-765 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 72
During the power-up sequence, which of the following happens first?
A. The boot sector is located on the hard drive.
B. Theower On Self-Test.? 7KH ? RZHU2Q6HOI7HVW
C. The floppy drive is checked for a diskette.
D. The BIOS on an add-in card is executed.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 73
A restored floppy diskette will have the same hash value as the original diskette.
A. True
B. False
70-765 exam Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 74
A hard drive was imaged using EnCase. The original drive was placed into evidence. The restore feature was used to make a copy of the original hard drive. EnCase verifies the restored copy using:
A. An MD5 hash
B. A 32 bit CRC
C. Nothing. Restored volumes are not verified.
D. A running log
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 75
To later verify the contents of an evidence file 7RODWHUYHULI\WKHFRQWHQWVRIDQHYLGHQFHILOH
A. EnCase writes a CRC value for every 64 sectors copied.
B. EnCase writes a CRC value for every 128 sectors copied.
C. EnCase writes an MD5 hash value every 64 sectors copied.
D. EnCase writes an MD5 hash value for every 32 sectors copied.
70-765 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 76
Assume that MyNote.txt has been deleted. The FAT file system directory entry for that file has been overwritten. The data for MyNote.txt is now:
A. Overwritten
B. Allocated
C. Cross-linked
D. Unallocated
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 77
When an EnCase user double-clicks on a valid .jpg file, that file is:
A. Copied to the default export folder and opened by an associated program.
B. Renamed to JPG_0001.jpg and copied to the default export folder.
C. Copied to the EnCase specified temp folder and opened by an associated program.
D. Opened by EnCase.
70-765 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 78
When undeleting a file in the FAT file system, EnCase will check the _____________ to see if it has already been overwritten.
A. data on the hard drive
B. deletion table
C. directory entry
D. FAT
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 79
You are assigned to assist with the search and seizure of several computers. The magistrate ordered that the computers cannot be seized unless they are found to contain any one of ten previously identified images. You currently have the ten images in JPG format. Using the EnCase methodology, how would you best handle this situation?
A. UseFastBloc or a network/parallel port cable to preview the hard drives. Go to the Gallery view and search for the previously identified images.
B. UseFastBloc or a network/parallel port cable to acquire forensic images of the hard drives, then search the evidence files for the previously identified images.
C. UseFastBloc or a network/parallel port cable to preview the hard drives. Conduct a hash analysis of the files on the hard drives, using a hash library containing the hash values of the previously identified images.
D. Use an EnCase DOS boot disk to conduct a text search for child porn. Use an EnCase DOS boot disk to conduct a text search for child porn?
70-765 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 80
The EnCase signature analysis is used to perform which of the following actions?
A. Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its file extension.Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its file extension.
B. Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its file header.Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its file header.
C. Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to a list of hash sets.Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to a list of hash sets.
D. Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its computed MD5 hash value.Analyzing the relationship of a file signature to its computed MD5 hash value.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 81
A SCSI host adapter would most likely perform which of the following tasks?
A. Configure the motherboard settings to the BIOS.
B. None of the above.
C. Set up the connection of IDE hard drives.
D. Make SCSI hard drives and other SCSI devices accessible to the operating system.
70-765 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 82
A CPU is:
A. A chip that would be considered the brain of a computer, which is installed on a motherboard.
B. A Central Programming Unit.
C. A motherboard with all required devices connected.
D. An entire computer box, not including the monitor and other attached peripheral devices.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

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Exam Code: 70-414
Exam Name: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
Updated: Sep 17, 2017
Q&As: 243

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QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a solution that meets the technical requirements for DHCP.
What should you include in the recommendation for each office?
A. DHCP failover
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. DHCP server policies
D. IP Address Management (IPAM)
70-414 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution for updating the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the
visualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Cluster-Aware Updating
B. WSUS
C. System Center Updates Publisher 2011
D. System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that the developers can manage their own virtual machines.
Solution: You perform the following 70-414 dumps tasks:
In Virtual Machine Manager, you create a new user role named DevUsers that uses
the Application Administrator profile.
You add the virtual machines to the DevUsers role.
You grant Checkpoint permissions to the DevUsers role.
You install and configure App Controller.
You distribute the App Controller console URL to the developers.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You plan to configure Windows Network Load Balancing (NLB) for a company. You
display following Network Load Balancing Manager window:
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Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question
based on the information presented in the graphic.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You need to implement VM-SQLclusterl.contoso.com.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
70-414 pdf actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 6
You need to automatically restart the appropriate web service on DETCRL01 and
CHICRL01 if the web service is stopped. Solution: You create a diagnostic task in SCOM and configure it to start the Server service. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You currently have an intranet web site that is hosted by two Web servers named Web1
and Web2. Web1 and Web2 run Windows Server 2012. Users use the name intranet.contoso.com to request the web site and use DNS round robin.
You plan to implement the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on Web1 and Web2.
You need to recommend changes to the DNS records for the planned implementation.
What should you recommend?
A. Delete one of the host (A) records named Intranet. Modify the remaining host (A)
record named Intranet.
B. Delete both host (A) records named Intranet. Create a pointer (PTR) record for each
Web server.
C. Create a new host (A) record named Intranet. Remove both host (A) records for Web1
and Web2.
D. Create a service locator (SRV) record. Map the SRV record to Intranet.
70-414 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
You need to recommend changes to the existing environment to meet the PII requirement.
What should you recommend?
A. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from ProsewareCA.
B. Create an AD RMS cluster in Proseware, and then provision the user accounts in Proseware for the
Fabrikam users.
C. Configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) in Fabrikam, and then install a web application
proxy in Proseware.
D. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from FabrikamCA.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a network 70-414 exam configuration for the newly deployed Hyper-V hosts used by Customer1. On which network adapter should you recommend performing each configuration? To answer, select the appropriate network adapter for each configuration in the answer area.
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QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a solution to maintain a copy of App2. The solution must meet the application requirements and must minimize additional hardware purchases. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Single-site Failover Clustering
B. Hyper-V replicas
C. Multi-site Failover Clustering
D. Distributed File System (DFS) Replication
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used in the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the 70-414 dumps security requirements.
What should you recommend?
A. A scale-out file server that uses an NFS share
B. A file server that uses an SMB share
C. A scale-out file server that uses an SMB share
D. A file server that uses an NFS share
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
You install the Service Manager Self-Service Portal on a server named CONTOSOSSP1.
Users report that they receive access denied messages when they try to connect to the portal. You must grant users the minimum required permissions. You need to ensure that all users in the Contoso domain can access the Service Manager Self-Service Portal.
What should you do?

A. In Active Directory, create a new group named PortalUsers. Add the PortalUsers group to the Contoso \Domain Users group, and then add the group to the local users group on CONTOSOSSP1.
B. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Service portal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Read permissions to the portal.
C. In Service Manager, create a new user role named PortalUsers. Grant the PortalUsers role rights to all catalog items, and then add the Contoso\Domain Users Active Directory Domain Services group to the
PortalUsers role.
D. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Serviceportal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Contribute permissions to the portal.
70-414 pdf Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-695
Exam Name: Deploying Windows Desktops and Enterprise Applications
Updated: Sep 15, 2017
Q&As: 95

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QUESTION 17
Click the exhibit button.
What can you deduce from the show command on router R6?
A. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment. The DR for this segment would be the router with router ID 10.10.10.5.
B. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment; however, this command does not indicate whether 10.10.10.3 or 10.10.10.5 is the DR or BDR.
C. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is the BDR, which is why it is not adjacent to the other routers.
D. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment. The DR for this segment would be the router with router ID 10.10.10.3.
70-695 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Click the exhibit button.
In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. How many type 4 LSAs will be present in the network?
A. One.
B. One for each of the routers in area 0
C. One for each of the external routes exported by router R1.
D. Type 4 LSAs are not generated in this network topology.
70-695 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Which of the following conditions will prevent an OSPF adjacency from reaching the full state? Choose three answers.
A. MTU mismatch
B. Incorrect subnet mask
C. System interface not included in OSPF
D. Area ID not the same
E. Different metric set on each end of the link
F. Router ID not defined
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 20
Click the exhibit button.
The following command sequence is executed on router R2:
A: R2# configure router ospf router-id 10.10.10.99
A: R2# configure router router-id 10.10.10.66
On router R1, what router ID appears for router R2 directly after these commands are executed?
A. 10.10.10.99
B. 10.10.10.66
C. 10.10.10.2
D. 10.10.10.1
70-695 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
In an OSPF Hello packet, which of the following fields must match for all neighbor routers on the segment?
Choose three answers.
A. Area ID W B.
B. Hello and Dead intervals PC.
C. Stub flag
D. Checksum values
E. The list of neighbors
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 22
Click the exhibit button.
The OSPF adjacency between routers R3 and R1 is down. What is the problem?
A. Area 1 of router R1 should not be configured as a stub.
B. Router R3 has the incorrect authentication key type.
C. Router R1 has the incorrect authentication key type.
D. There is not enough information to tell.

70-695 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Click the exhibit button.
Given the topology and the show commands, and assuming that router R2 advertises all of its loopbacks
into OSPF, what is the correct router R1 configuration?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
In which of the following types of areas does an OSPF router not set the E bit in its Type 1 LSA?
A. Not so stubby area
B. Stub area
C. Backbone area
D. Normal area
70-695 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Click the exhibit button.
In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. Which of the following statements regarding the OSPF LSAs in the network is true?
A. Router R1 generates a type 5 LSA that is flooded through all OSPF areas.
B. Router R1 generates a type 7 LSA that is flooded through all OSPF areas.
C. Router R1 generates a type 5 LSA that is flooded through area 1. Router R2 generates a type 7 LSA that is flooded through areas 0 and 2.
D. Router R1 generates a type 7 LSA that is flooded through area 1. Router R3 generates a type 5 LSA that is flooded through areas 0 and 2.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
What is the protocol number for OSPF in the IP header?
A. OSPF uses TCP, so the protocol number is 6.
B. OSPF uses UDP, so the protocol number is 17.
C. OSPF does not use IP.
D. OSPF has its own protocol number of 89.
70-695 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Click the exhibit button.
Which of the following would correctly configure routers R2, R3, and R4?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
When are virtual links used in OSPF?
A. When two areas need to communicate and there is no area 0.
B. When an area needs to traverse another area to reach area 0.
C. When two areas are connected to area 0, but there is no direct path between them.
D. When an area needs to connect directly to another area without using area 0.
70-695 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements regarding area border routers in an OSPF network is true?
A. The term backbone router has the same definition as the term area border router.
B. An OSPF network needs at least one area border router to function.
C. Area border routers connect the backbone area to other areas in an OSPF network.

D. By definition, an area border router must perform route summarization between areas.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which of the following correctly lists the 5 OSPF packet types?
A. Hello, link state update, link state packet, link State acknowledgement, database description.
B. Link state update, link state refresh, link state acknowledgement, database description, notification.
C. Hello, link state refresh, link state update, link state acknowledgement, link state authentication.
D. Hello, link state update, link state request, link state acknowledgement, database description.
70-695 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
Which of the following OSPF area types are supported by the Alcatel- Lucent 7750 SR? Choose two
answers.
A. Not so stubby areas
B. Level1 area WC
C. Stub areas
D. Partially stubby areas
E. Level 2 areas
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 32
If OSPF is used in a multi-area OSPF network, which of the following statements regarding route summarization is true?
A. Manual route summarization can only be done on autonomous system border routers.
B. Manual route summarization must be done on all the backbone routers to be effective. Manual route
summarization is optional on the routers in non-backbone areas.
C. Manual route summarization is done on the ABRs. By default, automatic summarization is done;
however, it may not be optimal for all networks.
D. Manual route summarization is done on the ABRs. By default, no route summarization is done and all
routes are advertised to all areas.
70-695 exam Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Sep 06, 2017
Q&As: 503

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QUESTION 25
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. You view the properties of VM1 as shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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You need to configure bandwidth management for VM1. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:

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70-410 exam Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1. Server1 runs 70-410 dumps Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed. You create two IPv4 scopes on Server1. The scopes are configured as shown in the following table.

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The DHCP clients in Subnet_Tor can connect to the client computers in Subnet_Mtl by using an IP address or a FQDN. You discover that the DHCP clients in Subnet_Mtl can connect to client computers in Subnet_Tor by using an IP address only. You need to ensure that the DHCP clients in both subnets can connect to any other DHCP client by using a FQDN.
What should you add?
A. The 015 DNS Domain Name option to Subnet_Mtl
B. The 015 DNS Domain Name option to Subnet_Tor
C. The 006 DNS Servers option to Subnet_Mtl
D. The 006 DNS Servers option to Subnet_Tor
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1. The domain contains a standalone server named Server2 that is located in a perimeter
network. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to manage Server2 remotely from Server1.
What should you do?
A. From Server2, run the Enable-PsRemoting cmdlet.
B. From Server1, run the winrni command.
C. From Server2, run the winrm command.
D. From Server1, run the Enable-PsRemoting cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
A printer named Printer1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) 70-410 dumps

To answer, complete each statement according to the information presented in the exhibit. Each correct selection is worth one point.

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70-410 pdf Hot Area:
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Question: 12
Given the following SAS statement:
%let idcode = Prod567;
Which one of the following statements stores the value 567 in the macro variable CODENUM?
A. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-2);
B. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-3);
C. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-2);
D. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-3);
Answer: C
Question: 13
The following SAS program is submitted:
data new (bufsize = 6144 bufno = 4);
set old;
run;
Which one of the following describes the difference between the usage of BUFSIZE= and
BUFNO= options?

A. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the input buffer in bytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of
input buffers.
B. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in bytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of
output buffers.
C. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in kilobytes; BUFNO= specifies the number
of input buffers.
D. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in kilobytes; BUFNO= specifies the number
of output buffers.
70-410 vce Answer: B
Question: 14
Consider the following SAS log:
229 data sasuser.ranch sasuser.condo / view = sasuser.ranch;
230 set sasuser.houses;
231 if style = ‘RANCH’ then output sasuser.ranch;
232 else if style = ‘CONDO’ then output sasuser.condo;
233 run;
NOTE: DATA STEP view saved on file SASUSER.RANCH.
NOTE: A stored DATA STEP view cannot run under a different operating system.
234
235 proc print data = sasuser.condo;
ERROR: File SASUSER.CONDO.DATA does not exist.
236 run;
NOTE: The SAS System stopped processing this step because of errors.
Which one of the following explains why the PRINT procedure fails?
A. SASUSER.CONDO is a stored DATA step program.
B. A SAS data file and SAS data view cannot be created in the same DATA step.
C. A second VIEW=SASUSER.CONDO option was omitted on the DATA statement.
D. The view SASUSER.RANCH must be processed before SASUSER.CONDO is created.
Answer: D
Question: 15
Which one of the following is an advantage of creating and using a SAS DATA step view?
A. It can store an index.
B. It always accesses the most current data.
C. It works quickly through multiple passes of the data.
D. It is useful when the underlying data file structure changes.
70-410 exam Answer: B
Question: 16
Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO
YEAR QTR BUDGET YEAR QTR SALES
—————————— —————————-
2001 3 500 2001 4 300

2001 4 400 2002 1 600
2002 1 700
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select one.*, sales
from one, two;
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
——————————————
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
B. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
———————————————
2001 3 500 .
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
C. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
—————————————–
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
D. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
——————————————
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 300
2001 3 500 600
2001 4 400 600
2002 1 700 600
Answer: D
Question: 17
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
NUM VAR
——————
1 A
2 B
3 C
Which one of the following SQL programs deletes the SAS data set ONE?
A. proc sql;
delete table one;
quit;
B. proc sql;
alter table one
drop num, var;
quit;

C. proc sql;
drop table one;
quit;
D. proc sql;
delete from one;
quit;
Answer: C
Question: 18
Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO
YEAR QTR BUDGET YEAR QTR SALES
——————————- ———————————
2001 3 500 2001 4 300
2001 4 400 2002 1 600
2002 1 700
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select one.*, sales
from one, two
where one.year = two.year;
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
———————————————————
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
B. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
———————————————————-
2001 3 500 .
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
C. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
————————————————————
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
D. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
————————————————————
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 300
2001 3 500 600
2001 4 400 600
2002 1 700 600
70-410 dumps Answer: C
Question: 19
The SAS data set TEMP has the following distribution of values for variable A:
A Frequency
1 500,000
2 500,000
6 7,000,000
8 3,000
Which one of the following SAS programs requires the least CPU time to be processed?
A. data new;
set temp;
if a = 8 then
b = ‘Small ‘;
else if a in(1, 2) then
b = ‘Medium’;
else if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large’;
run;
B. data new;
set temp;
if a in (1, 2) then
b = ‘Medium’;
else if a = 8 then
b = ‘Small’;
else if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large’;
run;
C. data new;
set temp;
if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large ‘;
else if a in (1, 2) then
b = ‘Medium’;
else if a = 8 then
b = ‘Small’;
D. data new;
set temp;
if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large ‘;
if a in (1, 2) then
b = ‘Small’;
run;
Answer: C
Question: 20
The following SAS program is submitted:
%let value = 9;
%let value2 = 5;
%let newval = %eval(&value / &value2);
Which one of the following is the resulting value of the macro variable NEWVAL?
A. 1
B. 2

C. 1.8
D. null
Answer: A
Question: 21
The following SAS program is submitted:
%let lib = %upcase(sasuser);
proc sql;
select nvar
from dictionary.tables
where libname = “&lib”;
quit;
Given that several SAS data sets exist in the SASUSER library, which one of the following is
generated as output?
A. no result set
B. a syntax error in the log
C. a report showing the names of each table in SASUSER
D. a report showing the number of columns in each table in SASUSER
70-410 pdf Answer: D
Question: 22
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
GROUP SUM
————————-
A 765
B 123
C 564
The following SAS program is submitted:
data _null_;
set one;
call symput(group,sum);
run;
Which one of the following is the result when the program finishes execution?
A. Macro variable C has a value of 564.
B. Macro variable C has a value of 1452.
C. Macro variable GROUP has a value of 564.
D. Macro variable GROUP has a value of 1452.
Answer: A
Question: 23
The SAS data set ONE consists of five million observations and has 25 variables. Which one of
the following SAS programs successfully creates three new variables TOTREV, TOTCOST, and
PROFIT and requires the least CPU time to be processed?
A. data two;
set one;

totrev = sum(price * quantity);
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
if totrev > 1000;
run;
B. data two;
set one;
totrev = sum(price * quantity);
if totrev > 1000;
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
run;
C. data two;
set one;
totrev = sum(price * quantity);
where totrev > 1000;
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
run;
D. data two;
set one;
where totrev > 1000;
totrev = sum(price * quantity);
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
run;
70-410 vce Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Aug 25, 2017
Q&As: 230

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Question No : 23 – (Topic 1)
You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to retrieve product
data from two different sources. One source is hosted in a SQL Azure database. Each
source contains products for different distributors. Products for each distributor source must be combined for insertion into a single product table destination. You need to select the appropriate data flow transformation to meet this requirement. Which transformation types should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Multicast
B. Merge Join
C. Term Extraction
D. union All
E. Merge
70-463 exam 
Answer: D,E

Question No : 24 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)
You are developing a data flow to load sales data into a fact table. In the data flow, you configure a Lookup Transformation in full cache mode to look up the product data for the sale.The lookup source for the product data is contained in two tables. You need to set the data source for the lookup to be a query that combines the two tables. Which page of the Lookup Transformation Editor should you select to configure the query? To answer, select the appropriate page in the answer area.
70-463 dumps
Answer:
70-463 dumps

Question No : 25 – (Topic 1)
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.You need to design a package to change a variable value during package execution by using the least amount of development effort. What should you use?
A. Expression task
B. Script task
C. Execute SQL task
D. Execute Process task
E. Term Extraction transformation
70-463 dumps Answer: A
Reference:

Question No : 26 – (Topic 1) You are using SQL Server Data Tools to develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS)
project.The first package that you create in this project contains a package connection that accesses a flat file. Additional packages in the project must also access this file. You need to define and reuse the flat file connection in all project packages. What should you do?
A. Convert the package Connection Manager in the first package to a project Connection
Manager.
B. Copy the package Connection Manager and paste it into the second package.
C. Convert the project to the Package Deployment model.
D. Set the ProtectionLevel property of the package Connection Manager to
DontSaveSensitive to reuse the flat file connection.
Answer: A

Question No : 27 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
A Data Flow task in a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package produces run-time errors. You need to edit the package to log specific error messages. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.) 70-463 pdf
70-463 dumps

Question No : 28 – (Topic 1)
You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that uses the Fuzzy Lookup transformation. The reference data to be used in the transformation does not change.You need to reuse the Fuzzy Lookup match index to increase performance and reduce maintenance. What should you do?
A. Select the GenerateAndPersistNewIndex option in the Fuzzy Lookup Transformation
Editor.
B. Select the GenerateNewIndex option in the Fuzzy Lookup Transformation Editor.
C. Select the DropExistingMatchlndex option in the Fuzzy Lookup Transformation Editor.
D. Execute the sp_FuzzyLookupTableMaintenanceUninstall stored procedure.
E. Execute the sp_FuzzyLookupTableMaintenanceInvoke stored procedure.
Answer: A

Question No : 29 – (Topic 1)
You are using a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project that is stored in the SSIS catalog. An Environment has been defined in the SSIS catalog. You need to add the Environment to the project.
Which stored procedure should you use?
A. catalog.set_environment_reference_type
B. catalog.set_environment_property
C. catalog.create_environment_reference
D. catalog.create_environment
70-463 vce Answer: C

Question No : 30 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data
into a data warehouse. You are developing the part of the SSIS package that populates the
ProjectDates dimension table.
The business key of the ProjectDates table is the ProjectName column. The business user
has given you the dimensional attribute behavior for each of the four columns in the
ProjectDates table:
ExpectedStartDate – New values should be tracked over time.
ActualStartDate – New values should not be accepted.
ExpectedEndDate – New values should replace existing values.
ActualEndDate – New values should be tracked over time.
You use the SSIS Slowly Changing Dimension Transformation.
You must configure the Change Type value for each source column.
Which settings should you select? (To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in
the answer area. Each Change Type may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)
70-463 dumps

Question No : 31 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. The package moves
order-related data to a staging table named Order. Every night the staging data is truncated
and then all the recent orders from the online store database are inserted into the staging
table. Your package must meet the following requirements: If the truncate operation fails, the package execution must stop and report an error. If the Data Flow task that moves the data to the staging table fails, the entire
refresh operation must be rolled back. For auditing purposes, a log entry must be entered in a SQL log table after each
execution of the Data Flow task.The TransactionOption property for the package is set to Required. You need to design the package to meet the requirements.How should you design the control flow for the package? (To 70-463 dumps answer, drag the appropriate
setting from the list of settings to the correct location or locations in the answer area.)
70-463 dumps

Question No : 32 – (Topic 1)
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data
into a data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure.The package uses a Foreach container to process text files found in a folder. The package must be deployed to a single server by using the Project Deployment model. Multiple SQL Server Agent jobs call the package. Each job is executed on a different schedule. Each job passes a different folder path to the package.
You need to configure the package to accept the folder path from each job.
Which package configuration should you use?
A. .dtsConfig file
B. Registry Entry
C. Environment Variable
D. Parent Package Variable
E. XML Configuration File
70-463 exam Answer: C
Reference:

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