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Cisco 300-165 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Assuming hello PDU authentication has been disabled, which command re-enables the feature on a FabricPath
interface?
A. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication-type cleartext
B. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication-type md5
C. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication check
D. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis hello-interval
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement about SNMP support on Cisco Nexus switches is true?
A. SNMP requires the LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKG license.
B. SNMP is not VRF-aware.
C. Only users belonging to the network operator RBAC role can assign SNMP groups.
D. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per VDC.
E. Cisco NX-OS only supports SNMP over IPv4.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
When implementing Cisco Adapter FEX, which setting on the virtual interface card on the Cisco UCS C-Series Server
must be configured?
A. uplink failover
B. PXE boot
C. network interface virtualization
D. VM-FEX
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Scenario
The following four questions concern the Nexus 7010\\’s which are configured as a vPC pair at the core of a Data
Center network. You can utilize all the available show commands to answer the questions. Access to the running-
configuration is
not allowed.
Instructions
Enter NX-OS commands on 7K-3 and 7K-4 to verify network operation and answer four multiple-choice questions.
THIS TASK DOES NOT REQUIRE DEVICE CONFIGURATION.
Click on the switch to gain access to the console of the switch. No console or enable passwords are required.
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next
button.

pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q4 pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q4-1

Within the vpc configuration of the 7K\\’s, the command peer-switch is configured.
What is the result of enabling this command?
A. Both vPC peers use the same STP root ID
B. The vPC primary switch (7K-4 in this case) also serves as the STP root to improve vPC convergence
C. The vPC secondary switch (7K-3 in this case) serves as the STP root to improve vPC performance
D. Allows 7K-3 to act as the active HSRP gateway for packets that are addressed to the MAC address of 7K-4
E. Automatically disables IP redirects on all interface VLANs mapped over a vPC VLAN to avoid generation of IP
redirect messages for packets switched through the vPC peer gateway router
F. Enables faster convergence of ARP tables after the vPC peer link flaps
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is implementing a new network design that includes a port channel to connect an MDS
core switch and an NPV switch. Which two Fibre Channel port types must be used to create Fibre Channel port
channel? (Choose two.)

pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q5

A. N Port
B. NP Port
C. F Port
D. E Port
E. TL Port
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/4_1/configuration/guides/cli_4_1/clibook/pc.html


QUESTION 6
Drag and drop the VXLAN protocol characteristic from the left onto the benefit it provides on the right.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
A Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch suffers a supervisor failure. Which statement is true regarding Cisco NSF
functionality?
A. The line cards are reloaded.
B. The neighbouring routers do not participate in Cisco NSF.
C. The Cisco Express Forwarding cache is pruned.
D. Layer 3 reconvergence does not occur.
E. Cisco NSF can be deployed with RPR+.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum IPv6 unicast route memory allocated?pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q8

A. 4 MB
B. 8 MB
C. 1024 MB
D. 1 GB
E. 5 MB
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which two items are required components of VN-Link in software? (Choose two.)
A. VDC
B. VEM
C. vPC
D. VSM
E. VRRP
Correct Answer: BD
The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series consists of two main types of components that can virtually emulate a 66-slot modular
Ethernet switch with redundant supervisor functions:
Virtual Ethernet module (VEM)-data plane: This lightweight software component runs inside the hypervisor. It enables
advanced networking and security features, performs switching between directly attached virtual machines, provides
uplink capabilities to the rest of the network, and effectively replaces the vSwitch. Each hypervisor is embedded with
one VEM.
Virtual supervisor module (VSM)-control plane: This standalone, external, physical or virtual appliance is responsible for
the configuration, management, monitoring, and diagnostics of the overall Cisco Nexus 1000V Series system (that is,
the combination of the VSM itself and all the VEMs it controls) as well as the integration with VMware vCenter. A single
VSM can manage up to 64 VEMs. VSMs can be deployed in an active-standby model, helping ensure high availability.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmware-vsphere/white_paper_c11-525307.html

 

QUESTION 10
Which statement regarding the implementation of Fibre Channel domain IDs is true?
A. They are assigned on a per-switch basis.
B. They must be unique on all of the Fibre Channel switches in the fabric.
C. They are assigned on a per-line card basis.
D. They must be the same on all of the Fibre Channel switches in the fabric.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Fibre Channel IDs are dynamically assigned to which objects?
A. Cisco Fabric Services packets
B. WWPNs
C. FSPF packets
D. FEXs
E. VSANs
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 12
Which standard has Cisco used to implement VM-FEX?
A. IEEE 802.1BR
B. IEEE 802.1Qbb
C. IEEE 802.1Qaz
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. IEEE 802.1x
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
You configure STP on a switch that is attached to a Cisco FabricPath domain and that has the vPC feature deployed.
How do you configure STP on the switch in the Cisco FabricPath domain on VLAN 10?
A. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 0
B. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 8192 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 4096
C. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 8192
D. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 4096
Correct Answer: B
Note that it is fine to use the spanning-tree priority command and the spanning-tree pseudo-information command
together, but the root priority in the pseudo-information needs to be a lower value (higher priority) than the spanning-tree
priority to make sure that the remaining working Cisco FabricPath switch is sending a superior BPDU with the common
FabricPath bridge ID and the configured spanning-tree pseudo-information priority and remains at the spanning-tree
root. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/white_paper_c07-728188.pdf page 44

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How do I pass the Cisco 300-165 exam? You need to be prepared for it! You need the latest and most effective learning materials and proper practices to pass the 300-165 exam. “This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing data center infrastructure including Key protocols, Routing and switching protocols, Maintenance, Management, Operations, Security, Storage”. Pass4itsure offers you the latest exam materials! You can use the materials to prepare to help you achieve excellent results!

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QUESTION 25
When configuring intercluster URI dialing, an engineer gets the error message andquot;Local cluster cannot connect to the ILS networkandquot;. Which three reasons for this error are true? (Choose three.)
A. The SIP route patterns have not been properly configured.
B. The Tomcat certificates do not match.
C. The Cisco Unified Resource Identifier service needs a restart.
D. The ILS authentication password does not match.
E. The cluster ID does not match.
F. One cluster is using TLS certificate, and the other is using Password.
300-075 exam Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 26
Which option is a benefit of implementing CFUR?
A. CFUR is designed to initiate TEHO to reduce toll charges.
B. CFUR can prevent phones from unregistering.
C. CFUR can reroute calls placed to a temporarily unregistered destination phone.
D. CFUR eliminates the need for COR on an ISR.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which option best describes a service that assembles a network model from configured locations and link data in one or more clusters?
A. LBM
B. Weight
C. LBM Hub
D. Shadow
300-075 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item. The Cisco UCM is controlling the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 7965 and 9971 Video IP Phone. The Cisco VCS is controlling the SX20, the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for
Windows.DP:
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Both of the Cisco TelePresence Video for Windows clients are able to log into the server but can\’t make any calls. After reviewing the exhibits, which of the following reasons could be causing this failure?
A. Wrong username and/or password.
B. Wrong SIP domain name.
C. The TMSPE is not working.
D. The bandwidth is incorrectly configured.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which statement about setting up FindMe in Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server is true?
A. Users are allowed to delete or change the address of their principal devices.
B. Endpoints should register with an alias that is the same as an existing FindMe ID.
C. If VCS is using Cisco TMS provisioning, users manage their FindMe accounts via VCS.
D. A VCS cluster name must be configured.
300-075 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Scenario There are two call control systems in this item. The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 7965 and 9971 Video IP Phones. The Cisco VCS and TMS control the Cisco TelePresence Conductor, the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for Windows. Use the exhibits to answer the following questions. DNS Servers
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Which three configuration tasks need to be completed on the router to support the registration of Cisco Jabber clients? (Choose three.)
A. The DNS server has the wrong IP address.
B. The internal DNS Service (SRV) records need to be updated on the DNS Server.
C. Flush the DNS Cache on the client.
D. The DNS AOR records are wrong.
E. Add the appropriate DNS SRV for the Internet entries on the DNS Server.
300-075 exam Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.
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An engineer receives a ticket to troubleshoot a one-way audio issue with these symptoms:
User A can hear user and vice versa.
User A can hear user C, however user cannot hear user A.
User can heat user C, however user cannot hear user .
Which two properties are the most likely reasons for this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco EX60 default gateway of user is missing from the network configuration.
B. The NAT device is allowing only RTP/RTCP ports from the internal network to the DMZ.
C. The Cisco EX60 of user is not responding to requests coming from the TMS server.
D. The Cisco VCS Expressway is not responding to the SIP INVITE coming from the Cisco VCS Control.
E. The router does not have a route back from the DMZ to the internal network.
300-075 dumps Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 32
Scenario:
The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 9971 Video IP Phone. The Cisco VCS and TMS control the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for Windows
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Which device configuration option will allow an administrator to control bandwidth between calls placed between branches?
A. Media Resource Group List
B. Device Pool
C. Location
D. AAR Group
E. Regions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
When you use the Query wizard to configure the trace and log central feature to collect install logs, if you have servers in a cluster in a different time zone, which time is used?
A. TLC adjusts the time change appropriately.
B. TLC uses its local time for all systems.
C. TLC queries for the time zone as part of configuration.
D. TLC produces an error and must be run remotely.
300-075 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
The Cisco Unified Communications system of a company has five types of devices: Cisco Jabber Desktop
CP-7965
DX-650
EX-60
MX-200
Which two types of devices are affected when an engineer changes the DSCP for Video Calls service parameter? (Choose two.)
A. DX-650
B. Cisco Jabber Desktop
C. CP-7965
D. EX-60
E. MX-200
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 35
What is the default DSCP/PHB for TelePresence video conferencing packets in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. EF/46
B. CS6/48
C. AF41/34
D. CS3/24
E. CS4/32
300-075 exam Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 36
How many Cisco Unified Mobility destinations can be configured per user?
A. 1
B. 10
C. 4
D. 6
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Which task must you perform before deleting a transcoder?
A. Delete the dependency records.
B. Unassign it from a media resource group.
C. Use the Reset option.
D. Remove the device pool.
E. Remove the subunit.
F. Delete the common device configuration.
300-075 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
Company X has deployed a VCS Control with a local zone and a traversal client zone. To facilitate external calls, VCS Expressway is deployed and traversal server zone is set up there. Video endpoints inside Company X have registered, but are unable to receive calls from outside endpoints. Which option could be the cause of this issue?
A. The traversal zone on the VCS Control does not have a search rule configured.
B. The access control list on the VCS Control must be updated with the IP for the external users.
C. When a traversal zone is set up on VCS Control only outbound calls are possible.
D. The local zone on the VCS Control does not have a search rule configured.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 39
Widgets.com\’s Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server allows SIP and H.323 registrations. Which local zone search rule configuration allows SIP registered endpoints to connect to H.323 endpoints that register with an H.323 E.164 number only?
A.
B.
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C.
D.
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QUESTION 40
Company A has deployed a VCS Control and is attempting to register a third-party endpoint. The engineer has confirmed that no traffic is being blocked for the endpoint and it is receiving a valid IP address. Which option could be the cause of this registration failure?
A. Third-party endpoints are not compatible with VCS Control, only with VCS Expressway.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is required in addition to the VCS Control.
C. An incorrect SIP domain is configured on the VCS Control for the endpoint.
D. The VCS Control must be deployed together with VCS Expressway before endpoints can register to either one.
300-075 exam Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
In an outdoor mesh environment, which is the purpose of deploying one of the access points relatively higher than the others?
A. The MAPs need to be mounted higher than the first hop RAPs so that the mesh units can accomplish radio line of sight.
B. Elevated MAPs are connected to the switches, providing better bandwidth that all the RAPs utilize for client connectivity.
C. An AP deployed as a RAP needs to be mounted in a higher elevation to provide clear connectivity to first hop MAPs.
D. Root APs need clear line of sight to provide the best bandwidth to all of its RAPs, so the higher the better.
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Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have a customer that is building a new campus of four 3-story buildings that you have just completed the site survey for. The customer is interested in the amount of rack space they will need to allocate in either the building MDF or in the data center for controllers. Each building is going to require 75 APs to support voice and data. How should the controllers be deployed to provide the least number of controllers, the highest redundancy, and the easiest management?
A. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + N redundancy method.
B. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + N + 1 redundancy method.
C. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + 1 redundancy method.
D. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + 1 redundancy method.
E. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + N +1 redundancy method.
F. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + N redundancy method.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which option allows the maximum 2.4-GHz channel usage for a survey and data deployment in the ETSI domain?
A. 1, 6, 11
B. 1, 5, 9, 13
C. 1, 6, 9, 14
D. 1, 6, 11, 14
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Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two issues do access and backhaul radios experience in mesh networks? (Choose two.)
A. The access radio has to connect to two or several points.
B. The access cell usually covers more area at ground level that may have more sources of reflection and interference.
C. The access cell radio range is larger than the backhaul radio range, which causes the backhaul cell radio to suffer from more interference.
D. Backhaul radios are a bottleneck for throughput.
E. RAPs help MAPs avoid coverage holes.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Clients are being disconnected from the WLAN. Which source of interference can cause a Denial of Service?
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A. jammer
B. microwave oven
C. Bluetooth devices
D. wireless video camera
E. ZigBee device
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Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You have a client that would like to upgrade their 2.4-GHz point-to-point wireless bridge link between buildings in their facility in Mexico. Currently, they have radios from vendor A that are transmitting at 14 dBm with 6 dBm antennas. They would like to upgrade the radios to vendor B but keep the existing antennas. The new radios from vendor B have a fixed transmit power of 7 dBm. How should you proceed?
A. Install the new radios with existing vendor A antennas.
B. Install new radios with replacement vendor A antennas rated at 13 dBm.
C. Install new radios with replacement vendor A antennas rated at 30 dBm.
D. Install the new radios with new vendor B antennas rated at 29 dBm.
E. Install the new radios with new vendor B antennas rated at 13 dBm.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
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After performing a Layer 1 survey using Cisco Spectrum Expert, what is the result indicated by the visual screen?
A. Normal 802.11b activity
B. Normal 802.11g activity
C. Microwave oven interference
D. Video camera interference
E. Bluetooth device interference
642-732 vce 
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What two types of antennas have a high gain, narrow beam width, and are typically used for point-to-point bridging? (Choose two.)
A. dipole antenna
B. Yagi antenna
C. patch antenna
D. parabolic dish antenna
E. omni-directional
F. monopole antenna
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
When planning a site survey, what Cisco tool can an engineer use to estimate the number of required APs?
A. MSE Location Tracking
B. WCS Planning Mode

C. WLC NetFlow Exporter
D. LWAP Monitor Mode
E. WCS Map Editor
642-732 exam 
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
In which two ways does the type of industry vertical change the way you prepare to perform a wireless site survey? (Choose two.)
A. In most cases the specific industry vertical impact is not unique and information used to prepare for a site survey can be reused from one vertical to another.
B. The first step in preparing for a site survey for a specific industry vertical is to review the individual industry standards for a WLAN deployment to ensure compliance with all known standards.
C. Each industry vertical has its own specific challenges that need to be considered prior to completion of the WLAN site survey.
D. Prior to performing a site survey for a customer, their specific industry vertical has very little impact on site survey process. Only post-survey design is impacted by the industry vertical.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
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Clients in a conference room have been experiencing difficulty connecting to the Access Point on Channel 1. Which option is causing the interference?
A. Wireless Video Camera
B. Bluetooth Device
C. Cordless Phone
D. Zigbee Device
E. Jammer
642-732 dumps 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two are impacts of having 802.11b clients in an 802.11g network? (Choose two.)
A. 802.11b clients will degrade throughput of 802.11g clients
B. 802.11b is more susceptible to multipath than 802.11g
C. 802.11b operates over fewer channels than 802.11g
D. 802.11b uses 20 MHz wide channels, 802.11g uses 40 MHz wide channels
E. 802.11b is more susceptible to attenuation than 802.11g
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
Which option describes the method of measuring the beamwidth of an antenna?
A. 30 degrees on each side from the main lobe gain
B. 60 degrees on each side from the main lobe gain
C. – 3 dB on each side from the main lobe gain
D. – 6 dB on each side from the main lobe gain
642-732 pdf 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
How would clients react to a controller configuration that utilized unsupported channels?
A. Unsupported channels can cause coverage holes for clients as well as limit their connectivity.
B. Unsupported channels would be ignored by clients.
C. Unsupported channels would have no impact on clients. The user would simply need to roam to a supported channel.
D. Unsupported channels are not configurable on the controller, thus there would be no impact on clients.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
An engineer is conducting a VoWLAN survey for voice clients with a max power of 40 mW. What power level should the engineer set the AP to during the survey?
A. 5 mW
B. 10 mW
C. 20 mW
D. 30 mW
E. 40 mW
642-732 vce 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which three components make up a Statement of Work? (Choose three.)
A. Post-survey recommendations
B. WLAN testing information
C. A list of changes in scope
D. Survey type
E. A list and description of locations to be surveyed.
F. Confirmation of timeline and cost
G. A list of equipment required to perform network analysis
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 17
Which two basic characteristics would be needed from antennas used for survey and deployment in various indoor situations? (Choose two.)
A. Horizontally polarized
B. Vertically polarized
C. Aesthetically fitting
D. Least cost
E. Highest gain
F. Largest beamwidth
642-732 exam 
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
An engineer is tasked with designing a WLAN. The customer is prioritizing data speeds to the desktop, but is also entertaining the idea of adding 802.11 phones in the future. Given this information, how should the engineer conduct the survey?
A. consider the employee head count in congested office space and limit the edge of each cell to an RSSI of -67mW
B. restrict AP cell edges to -67dB and be sure to strategically place APs in congested office spaces
C. co-locate access points when possible to cover high user areas and place APs at each corner of the facility
D. stagger the AP placements, and be sure to have a high signal to noise ratio that will accommodate the future VoIP devices
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What is the result if a client radio is incapable of supporting all the 5 GHz channels you have deployed in the controller or APs?
A. You may only be able to deploy 20 MHz-wide channels.
B. This may result in the client having to roam more frequently to find a channel it supports.
C. This may result in coverage holes in the network.
D. You may only be able to deploy 40 MHz-wide channels.
642-732 dumps 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
What are the most appropriate channels for an 802.11a/n VoWLAN survey and deployment in the FCC domain?
A. 4 channels of UNII-1
B. 8 channels of UNII-1, and UNII-2
C. 8 channels of UNII-1, and UNII-3
D. 15 channels of UNII-2, and UNII-2 extended
E. 23 channels of UNII-1, UNII-2, UNII-2 extended, and UNII-3
F. 24 channels of UNII-1, UNII-2, UNII-2 extended, UNII-3, and ISM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which of the following tools works both as an encryption-cracking tool and as a keylogger?
A. Magic Lantern
B. KeyGhost Keylogger
C. Alchemy Remote Executor
D. SocketShield
642-732 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Magic Lantern works both as an encryption-cracking tool and as a keylogger. Answer: C is incorrect. Alchemy Remote Executor is a system management tool that allows Network Administrators to execute programs on remote network computers without leaving their workplace. From the hacker’s point of view, it can be useful for installing keyloggers, spyware, Trojans, Windows rootkits and such. One necessary condition for using the Alchemy Remote Executor is that the user/attacker must have the administrative passwords of the remote computers on which the malware is to be installed. Answer:
B is incorrect. The KeyGhost keylogger is a hardware keylogger that is used to log all keystrokes on a computer. It is a tiny device that clips onto the keyboard cable. Once the KeyGhost keylogger is attached to the computer, it quietly logs every key pressed on the keyboard into its own internal Flash memory (just as with smart cards). When the log becomes full, it overwrites the oldest keystrokes with the newest ones.
Answer: D is incorrect. SocketShield provides a protection shield to a computer system against malware, viruses, spyware, and various types of keyloggers. SocketShield provides protection at the following two levels: 1.Blocking: In this level, SocketShield uses a list of IP addresses that are known as purveyor of exploits. All http requests for any page in these domains are simply blocked. 2.Shielding: In this level, SocketShield blocks all the current and past IP addresses that are the cause of unauthorized access.

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Following Cisco 642-385 Dumps 81QAs Are All New Published By Pass4itsure
Question: 32
Which of the following are the main goals of Broadcasting Board of Governors (BBG)’s strategic plan 2008-2013? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It employs modern communication techniques and technologies.
B. It builds on our reach and impact within the muslim world.
C. It engages the world in conversation about England.
D. It enhances program delivery across all platforms.
642-385 exam 
Answer: A,B,D
Question: 33
Which of the following types of IT organizational structures states that all IT decision-making and the IT budget are in one place, much easier to manage, and require much less effort to organize?
A. Decentralized
B. Federated
C. Project-based
D. Centralized
Answer: D
Question: 34
A service provider guarantees for end-to-end network traffic performance to a customer. Which of the following types of agreement is this?
A. LA
B. VPN
C. NDA
D. SLA
642-385 dumps 
Answer: D
Question: 35
Which of the following domains of COBIT covers areas such as the execution of the applications within the IT system and its results as well as the support processes that enable the effective and efficient execution of these IT systems?
A. Deliver and Support
B. Acquire and Implement
C. Monitor and Evaluate
D. Plan and Organize
Answer: A
Question: 36
Gary has identified a project risk that could injure project team members. He does not want to accept any risk where someone could become injured on this project so he hires a professional vendor to complete this portion of the project work. This workaround to the risk event is known as what type of risk response?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Acceptance
D. Transference
642-385 pdf 
Answer: D
Question: 37
Management has asked you to perform a risk audit and report back on the results. Bonny, a project team member asks you what a risk audit is. What do you tell Bonny?
A. A risk audit is a review of the effectiveness of the risk responses in dealing with identified risks and their root causes, as well as the effectiveness of the risk management process.
B. A risk audit is a review of all the risks that have yet to occur and what their probability of happening are.
C. A risk audit is an audit of all the risks that have occurred in the project and what their true impact on cost and time has been.
D. A risk audit is a review of all the risk probability and impact for the risks, which are still present in the project but which have not yet occurred.
Answer: A
Question: 38
Wendy is the project manager of the FBL project for your company. She has identified several risks within her project and has created a risk contingency reserve of $45,000 total. Her project is nearly complete and many of the risks have not happened in the project. What should Wendy do with the funds in the contingency reserve?
A. The funds for the risks that have passed and have not happened are transferred to the project budget.
B. The funds remain in the contingency reserve until all of the risks have passed.
C. The funds remain in the contingency reserve until the project is closed.
D. The funds for the risks that have passed and have not happened are released.
642-385 vce 
Answer: D
Question: 39
Which of the following frameworks defines ERM as a process, effected by an entity’s board of directors, management, and other personnel, applied in strategy setting and across the enterprise?
A. COBIT
B. COSO ERM framework
C. Casualty Actuarial Society framework
D. Val IT
Answer: B
Question: 40
The IT strategy formulation process consists of four steps to provide guidance to all who are involved. Which of the following steps are performed in the IT strategy formulation process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Decide how to get from here to there.
B. Evaluate changes.
C. Assess process maturity.
D. Map out the big picture.
642-385 exam 
Answer: A,B,D
Question: 41
Which of the following concepts is a semi-standard structured report supported by proven design methods and automation tools that can be used by managers to keep track of the execution of activities by staff within their control and monitor the consequences arising from these actions?
A. Total Security Management
B. Balanced Scorecard (BSC)
C. Total Quality Management
D. Six Sigma
Answer: B
Question: 42
Elizabeth is a project manager for her organization and she finds risk management to be very difficult for her to manage. She asks you, a lead project manager, at what stage in the project will risk management become easier. What answer best resolves the difficulty of risk management practices and the effort required?
A. Risk management only becomes easier the more often it is practiced.
B. Risk management only becomes easier when the project is closed.
C. Risk management is an iterative process and never becomes easier.
D. Risk management only becomes easier when the project moves into project execution.
642-385 dumps 
Answer: A
Question: 43
Which of the following stages of the Forrester’s IT Governance Maturity Model describes that the IT governance processes are applied across the enterprise where all business units/entities conform to the same set of IT governance processes, and IT investment decisions are based on the enterprise view?
A. Stage 3-Consistent
B. Stage 4-Best practices
C. Stage 1-Ad hoc
D. Stage 2-Fragmented
Answer: A
Question: 44
You are the project manager of the HJK project for your organization. You and the project team have created risk responses for many of the risk events in the project. A teaming agreement is an example
of what risk response?
A. Mitigation
B. Sharing
C. Transference
D. Acceptance
642-385 pdf 
Answer: B
Question: 45
Which of the following is the main objective of business process outsourcing?
A. Realigning business process with business strategy
B. Permitting the enterprise to focus on core main competences
C. Optimizing business processes
D. Increasing the automation of business processes
Answer: B
Question: 46
In which of the following phases of the SDLC does the software and other components of the system faithfully incorporate the design specifications and provide proper documentation and training?
A. Design
B. Initiation
C. Programming and training
D. Evaluation and acceptance
642-385 vce 
Answer: C
Question: 47
You are the project manager of a newly formed project to create a new manufacturing facility. You are working with a business analyst to identify, document, and prioritize stakeholders’ needs for the facility. You’ll also need to quantify any subjective terms and needs to define the project scope. What is this process called?
A. Requirements analysis
B. Project scope statement creation
C. Requirements gathering
D. Stakeholder analysis
Answer: D
Question: 48
IT Governance is used by the management to regulate the Information Systems, to accomplish its objectives. IT governance forms an integral part of corporate governance. Which of the following elements are required to implement a good IT governance framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Communication
B. Structure
C. Project
D. Process
642-385 exam 
Answer: A,B,D
Question: 49
Which of the following roles is responsible for review and risk analysis of all contracts on a regular basis?
A. The Service Catalogue Manager
B. The Supplier Manager
C. The Configuration Manager
D. The IT Service Continuity Manager
Answer: B
Question: 50
All projects that are presented in your organization must go through a board to review the return on investment, risk, and worthiness of a project. All projects are considered but not all projects are initiated. What is the name of the process that this board is completing in your organization?
A. Project selection committee
B. Change governance
C. Project portfolio management
D. Project portfolio management board
642-385 dumps 
Answer: C
Question: 51
Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management enables portfolio managers to include or exclude investments, change start and end-dates, adjust budgets and reevaluate priorities?
A. Integrated Capability
B. Portfolio Planning Analysis
C. Portfolio What-If Planning
D. Portfolio Management
Answer: C
Question: 52
Fred is the project manager of the PKL project. He is working with his project team to complete the quantitative risk analysis process as a part of risk management planning. Fred understands that once the quantitative risk analysis process is complete, the process will need to be completed again in at least two other times in the project. When will the quantitative risk analysis process need to be repeated?
A. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the risk response planning and as a part of monitoring and controlling.
B. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the plan risk response planning and as part of procurement.
C. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after new risks are identified and as pa of monitoring and controlling.
D. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the cost management planning an as a part of monitoring and controlling.
642-385 pdf 
Answer: A
Question: 53
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. There has been a delay in your project work that is adversely affecting the project schedule. You decided, with your stakeholders’ approval, to fast track the project work to get the project done faster. When you fast track the project which of the following are likely to increase?
A. Costs
B. Risks
C. Human resource needs
D. Quality control concerns
Answer: B
Question: 54
Which of the following processes ensures that all vital assets and resources of the organization are safeguarded?
A. Defining Resource Requirements process
B. Cost estimating process
C. Vendor contract administration process
D. Risk management process
642-385 vce 
Answer: D
Question: 56
In software development, which of the following analysis is used to document the services and functions that have been accidentally left out, deliberately eliminated or still need to be developed?
A. Vulnerability analysis
B. Cost-benefit analysis
C. Requirement analysis

D. Gap analysis
642-385 exam 
Answer: D
Question: 57
The entry points to Service Strategy are referred to as “the Four Ps”. They identify the different forms a service strategy may take. Which of the following is a correct list of the ‘Four Ps’?
A. People, Products, Partners, and Profit
B. People, Potential, Products, and Performance
C. Potential, Preparation, Performance, and Profit
D. Perspective, Position, Plan, and Pattern
Answer: D
Question: 58
Melody is the project manager for her organization. She has created a risk response to conduct more tests on the software her project is creating. The identified risk that prompted this response was that the software is mission-critical and must be flawless before it can be put into product. What type of a risk response has Melody used in this scenario?
A. Transference
B. Enhance
C. Avoidance
D. Mitigation
642-385 dumps 
Answer: D
Question: 59
Which of the following are the roles of a CIO in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Standardizes architecture & technology.
B. Defines value creation roles within IT.
C. Provides IT infrastructure to facilitate knowledge & information creation/sharing.
D. Establishes business priorities & allocates resources for IT performance.
Answer: A,B,C

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QUESTION 1.Which one of the following choices lists the four steps of interaction with a database?
A.Connect, Read, Write, Disconnect
B.Connect, Send a command, Write, Disconnect
C.Connect, Query, Read/Write, Disconnect
D.Connect, Send a command, Display results, Disconnect
300-170 exam Correct:D
QUESTION 2.Which one of the following variables is used if no variable was specified in a pattern match, substitution operator or print statement?
A.$nul
B.$#
C.$_
D.$*
Correct:C
QUESTION 3.Which choice demonstrates the correct syntax for the DELETE command?
A.DELETE MyDatabase WHERE VALUES state=Kentucky AND color=blue
B.DELETE MyDatabase WHERE state=Kentucky AND color=blue
C.DELETE FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=Kentucky AND color=blue
D.DELETE state=Kentucky AND color=blue FROM MyDatabase
300-170 dumps Correct:C
QUESTION 4.Consider the following HTML code: < INPUT TYPE=text NAME=state VALUE=>> Given this code, which one of the following choices best describes how the data should be written to a file?
A.print OUTPUT, “state” . param(“State: “);
B.print OUTPUT “State: ” . param(“state”);
C.print OUTPUT, “State: ” . (“state”);
D.OUTPUT “state” . param(“State: “);
Correct:B
QUESTION 5.Which choice best demonstrates how the print statement may be used to print HTML code?
A.print HTML>>;
B.print ;
C.print (“HTML”);
D.print (“”);
300-170 pdf Correct:D
QUESTION 6.Consider the following code: open(INFILE, “myfile”); Given this code, which one of the following choices demonstrates reading in scalar context?
A.$file = INFILE>;
B.$file < INFILE>;
C.%file = INFILE>;
[email protected] <= INFILE>;
Correct:A
QUESTION 7.Consider the following code: open( INPUT, “Chapter1”); Given this code, which one of the following choices demonstrates reading in list context?
A.%file = INPUT ;
[email protected] = INPUT ;
[email protected]%file < INPUT ;

D.$file = INPUT ;
300-170 vce Correct:B
QUESTION 8.Which set of operators is used to read and write to a file in random-access mode?
A.< >
B.< >>
C.+< +>
D.-<< ->>
Correct:C
QUESTION 9.The do method duplicates the function of which of the following methods?
A.param and execute
B.post and prepare
C.prepare and execute
D.post and execute
300-170 exam Correct:C
QUESTION 10.Which one of the following statements allows for variable substitution?
A.$sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
B.$sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
C.$sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
D.$sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
Correct:A
QUESTION 11.Antonio is naming a Perl variable. Which choice includes characters he may use?
A._, &, *
B.+, #,
$ C.$,
@, % D.%,
#, @
300-170 dumps Correct:C
QUESTION 12.Which choice best describes how to access individual elements of an array?
A.Use an index starting with 1
B.Use an index starting with 0
C.Use a pointer
D.Use a key value
Correct:B
QUESTION 13.Before allowing a user to submit data with a Web form, which of the following tasks should be performed?
A.The data should be validated by the script.
B.The data should be validated by the programmer.
C.The data should be compared to valid data stored in a list.
D.The data should be passed through the validate() method.
300-170 pdf Correct:A
QUESTION 14.The CGI.pm module can be used to perform which one of the following tasks?
A.GET or POST data
B.Load external variables
C.Read large amounts of text into the script
D.Access environment variables

Correct:D
QUESTION 15.What is the main danger in using cookies and hidden fields?
A.They can be deleted.
B.They can be edited.
C.They can be blocked by the browser.
D.They can be viewed.
300-170 vce Correct:B
QUESTION 16.The start_html method of CGI.pm yields which one of the following results?
A.”content-type:A\n\n”
B. HTML
C. FORM METHOD=A ACTION=B ENCODING=C
D. NPUT TYPE=”submit” VALUE=A
Correct:B
QUESTION 17.Which method is used in a Perl script to access the variables POSTed by an HTML form?
A.prepare();
B.param();
C.header ();
D.post();
300-170 exam Correct:B
QUESTION 18.The file mode specifies which one of the following?
A.The access permissions
B.The inode number
C.The file’s owner
D.How the file is opened
Correct:D
QUESTION 19.List context versus scalar context is determined by which one of the following?
A.The compiler
B.The debugger
C.The interpreter
D.The environment
300-170 dumps Correct:C
QUESTION 20.Which one of the following choices best describes data tainting?
A.Tainted data can be used by eval, system, or exec.
B.Tainted data cannot be accessed by the script.
C.Variables containing external data cannot be used outside the script.
D.Data tainting is enabled using the D switch.
Correct:C
QUESTION 21
When is the earliest point at which the reduce method of a given Reducer can be called?
A. As soon as at least one mapper has finished processing its input split.
B. As soon as a mapper has emitted at least one record.
C. Not until all mappers have finished processing all records.
D. It depends on the InputFormat used for the job.
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Which describes how a client reads a file from HDFS?
A. The client queries the NameNode for the block location(s).The NameNode returns the block location(s) to the client. The client reads the data directory off the DataNode(s).
B. The client queries all DataNodes in parallel. The DataNode that contains the requested data responds
directly to the client. The client reads the data directly off the DataNode.
C. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s).The NameNode then queries the DataNodes for block locations. The DataNodes respond to the NameNode, and the NameNode redirects the client to the DataNode that holds the requested data block(s).The client then reads the data directly off the DataNode.
D. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s).The NameNode contacts the DataNode that holds the requested data block. Data is transferred from the DataNode to the NameNode, and then from the NameNode to the client.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
You are developing a combiner that takes as input Text keys, IntWritable values, and emits Text keys, IntWritable values. Which interface should your class implement?
A. Combiner <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
B. Mapper <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
C. Reducer <Text, Text, IntWritable, IntWritable>
D. Reducer <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
E. Combiner <Text, Text, IntWritable, IntWritable>
300-170 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Indentify the utility that allows you to create and run MapReduce jobs with any executable or script as the mapper and/or the reducer?
A. Oozie
B. Sqoop
C. Flume
D. Hadoop Streaming
E. mapred
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
How are keys and values presented and passed to the reducers during a standard sort and shuffle phase of MapReduce?
A. Keys are presented to reducer in sorted order; values for a given key are not sorted.
B. Keys are presented to reducer in sorted order; values for a given key are sorted in ascending order.
C. Keys are presented to a reducer in random order; values for a given key are not sorted.
D. Keys are presented to a reducer in random order; values for a given key are sorted in ascending order.
300-170 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Assuming default settings, which best describes the order of data provided to a reducer s reduce method:
A. The keys given to a reducer aren t in a predictable order, but the values associated with those keys always are.
B. Both the keys and values passed to a reducer always appear in sorted order.
C. Neither keys nor values are in any predictable order.
D. The keys given to a reducer are in sorted order but the values associated with each key are in no predictable order
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
You wrote a map function that throws a runtime exception when it encounters a control character in input data. The input supplied to your mapper contains twelve such characters totals, spread across five file splits. The first four file splits each have two control characters and the last split has four control characters. Indentify the number of failed task attempts you can expect when you run the job with mapred.max.map.attempts set to 4:
A. You will have forty-eight failed task attempts
B. You will have seventeen failed task attempts
C. You will have five failed task attempts
D. You will have twelve failed task attempts
E. You will have twenty failed task attempts
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 28
You want to populate an associative array in order to perform a map-side join. You ?v decided to put this information in a text file, place that file into the Distributed Cache and read it in your Mapper before any records are processed. Indentify which method in the Mapper you should use to implement code for reading the file and populating the associative array?
A. combine
B. map
C. init
D. configure
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
You ve written a MapReduce job that will process 500 million input records and generated 500 million key value pairs. The data is not uniformly distributed. Your MapReduce job will create a significant amount of intermediate data that it needs to transfer between mappers and reduces which is a potential bottleneck.
A custom implementation of which interface is most likely to reduce the amount of intermediate data transferred across the network?
A. Partitioner
B. OutputFormat

C. WritableComparable
D. Writable
E. InputFormat
F. Combiner
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 30
Can you use MapReduce to perform a relational join on two large tables sharing a key? Assume that the two tables are formatted as comma-separated files in HDFS.
A. Yes.
B. Yes, but only if one of the tables fits into memory
C. Yes, so long as both tables fit into memory.
D. No, MapReduce cannot perform relational operations.
E. No, but it can be done with either Pig or Hive.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
You have just executed a MapReduce job. Where is intermediate data written to after being emitted from the Mapper s map method?
A. Intermediate data in streamed across the network from Mapper to the Reduce and is never written to disk.
B. Into in-memory buffers on the TaskTracker node running the Mapper that spill over and are written into HDFS.
C. Into in-memory buffers that spill over to the local file system of the TaskTracker node running the Mapper.
D. Into in-memory buffers that spill over to the local file system (outside HDFS) of the TaskTracker node running the Reducer
E. Into in-memory buffers on the TaskTracker node running the Reducer that spill over and are written into HDFS.
300-170 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
You want to understand more about how users browse your public website, such as which pages they visit prior to placing an order. You have a farm of 200 web servers hosting your website. How will you gather this data for your analysis?
A. Ingest the server web logs into HDFS using Flume.
B. Write a MapReduce job, with the web servers for mappers, and the Hadoop cluster nodes for reduces.
C. Import all users clicks from your OLTP databases into Hadoop, using Sqoop.
D. Channel these clickstreams inot Hadoop using Hadoop Streaming.
E. Sample the weblogs from the web servers, copying them into Hadoop using curl.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
MapReduce v2 (MRv2/YARN) is designed to address which two issues?
A. Single point of failure in the NameNode.
B. Resource pressure on the JobTracker.
C. HDFS latency.
D. Ability to run frameworks other than MapReduce, such as MPI.
E. Reduce complexity of the MapReduce APIs.

F. Standardize on a single MapReduce API.
300-170 exam Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 34
You need to run the same job many times with minor variations. Rather than hardcoding all job configuration options in your drive code, you ve decided to have your Driver subclass org.apache.hadoop.conf.Configured and implement the org.apache.hadoop.util.Tool interface. Indentify which invocation correctly passes.mapred.job.name with a value of Example to Hadoop?
A. hadoop mapred.job.name=Example MyDriver input output
B. hadoop MyDriver mapred.job.name=Example input output
C. hadoop MyDrive D mapred.job.name=Example input output
D. hadoop setproperty mapred.job.name=Example MyDriver input output
E. hadoop setproperty ( mapred.job.name=Example ) MyDriver input output
Correct Answer: C

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Following Cisco 300-165 Dumps 187QAs Are All New Published By Pass4itsure
QUESTION 1
Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
300-165 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
If Bob wanted to create a Management High Availability configuration, what is the minimum number of Security Management servers required in order to achieve his goal?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool would David use to accomplish his goal?
A. Smart Provisioning
B. Smart Blade
C. Smart Dashboard
D. Smart LSM
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
From the following output of cphaprob state, which Cluster XL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Cluster XL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all Cluster XL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization

D. Transparent upgrades
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing – Unicast
B. Load Balancing – Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing – Multicast
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an HTTP rule with a weight of 40, and the Default Rule with a weight of 10. If the only traffic passing through your QoS Module is HTTP traffic, what percent of bandwidth will be allocated to the HTTP traffic?
A. 80%
B. 40%
C. 100%
D. 50%
300-165 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What command will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unload local
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
How do you verify the Check Point kernel running on a firewall?
A. fw ctl get kernel
B. fw ctl pstat
C. fw kernel
D. fw ver -k
300-165 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
The process ________________ compiles $FWDIR/conf/*.W files into machine language.
A. fw gen
B. cpd
C. fwd
D. fwm
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which of the following is NOT part of the policy installation process?
A. Code compilation
B. Code generation
C. Initiation
D. Validation
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
When, during policy installation, does the atomic load task run?
A. It is the first task during policy installation.
B. It is the last task during policy installation.
C. Before CPD runs on the Gateway.
D. Immediately after fwm load runs on the Smart Center.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
What process is responsible for transferring the policy file from Smart Center to the Gateway?
A. FWD
B. FWM
C. CPRID
D. CPD
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
What firewall kernel table stores information about port allocations for Hide NAT connections?
A. NAT_dst_any_list
B. host_ip_addrs
C. NAT_src_any_list
D. fwx_alloc
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Where do you define NAT properties so that NAT is performed either client side or server side?
A. In Smart Dashboard under Gateway setting
B. In Smart Dashboard under Global Properties > NAT definition
C. In Smart Dashboard in the NAT Rules
D. In file $DFWDIR/lib/table.def
300-165 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
The process ___________ is responsible for all other security server processes run on the Gateway.
A. FWD
B. CPLMD
C. FWM
D. CPD

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
The process ________ is responsible for GUI Client communication with the Smart Center.
A. FWD
B. FWM
C. CPD
D. CPLMD
300-165 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
The process ________ is responsible for Policy compilation.
A. FWM
B. Fwcmp
C. CPLMD
D. CPD
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
The process ________ is responsible for Management High Availability synchronization.
A. CPLMD
B. FWM
C. Fwsync
D. CPD
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
_________ is the called process that starts when opening Smart View Tracker application.
A. logtrackerd
B. fwlogd
C. CPLMD
D. FWM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Anytime a client initiates a connection to a server, the firewall kernel signals the FWD process using a trap. FWD spawns the ________ child service, which runs the security server.
A. FWD
B. FWSD
C. In.httpd
D. FWSSD
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Security server configuration settings are stored in _______________ .
A. $FWDIR/conf/AMT.conf

B. $FWDIR/conf/fwrl.conf
C. $FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf
D. $FWDIR/conf/fwopsec.conf
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from running on-demand reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
300-165 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 24 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You want to add another Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports Job Server service. Using the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager, which three tasks must you perform? (Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B, C, D
QUESTION 25 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central Management Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
300-165 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 26 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server? (Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION 27 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups? (Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
300-165 dumps Answer: B, C
QUESTION 28 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space required for the drive holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB

C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C
QUESTION 29 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
300-165 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 30 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter (WCA)? (Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A, B
QUESTION 31 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from the initial Install type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
300-165 vce Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION 32 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal Reports Job Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A
QUESTION 33 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes scheduled List of Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
300-165 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 34 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of the Desktop

Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A
QUESTION 35 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server take when the Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
300-165 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 36 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A, C, D, E
QUESTION 37 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
300-165 pdf Answer: A, B, C, E
QUESTION 38 You are configuring a SQL Server database restore job.You want the restore operation to roll back any uncommitted transactions.Which Recovery Completion State option should you use?
A.Leave torn page repairs offline.
B.Leave database read-only and able to restore additional transaction logs.
C.Leave database operational.No additional transaction logs can be restored.
D.Leave database non-operational, but able to restore additional transaction logs.
Answer: C
QUESTION 39 What is one disadvantage of performing both full and incremental Exchange Server backups every day?
A.High media usage
B.More recovery points
C.Short restore window
D.Corruption detection during offline backups
300-165 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 40 When you configure the Agent for Open Files, what do you select to determine how the agent detects if an open file is ready to be backed up by the backup client?
A.Sync method B.Timing
option C.Execution delay
D.Compare/restore priority
Answer: A
QUESTION 41 Which option is a database level or global level backup method for SQL Server databases?
A.Incremental
B.Time-based
C.Differential
D.Partial
300-165 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 42 In the Job Status Manager, jobs can display various statuses on the Job Queue tab.Examples of valid statuses include: (Choose three)
A.HOLD
B.READY
C.ACTIVE
D.CLOSED
E.PENDING
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION 43 If you configure the Windows client agent to use System Security:
A.The client agent runs under the local system account.
B.The client agent impersonates the administrator at all times.
C.The system enables you to set individual passwords for security.
D.The backup, compare, and restore operations are performed under Windows security.

300-165 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 44 Which information can you obtain using CA ARCserve Backup storage resource management (SRM) reports?
A.Deduplication benefits B.Processor
architecture and speed C.Status of your
virtualized environments
D.Media having encrypted or unencrypted sessions
Answer: B
QUESTION 45 You have media containing a backup session that is not included in the CA ARCserve Backup database.To get the media information into the database, which utility should you use?
A.Copy Utility
B.Merge Utility
C.Diagnostic Utility
D.Media Assure & Scan utility
300-165 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 46 You want to enable a Backup Operator and a Restore Operator to operate jobs submitted by any operator.Which CA ARCserve Backup extended permission should you select?
A.Job Operations
B.Submit Job Options
C.Security Administrator
D.Ownership Checking Exemption Privilege
Answer: D
QUESTION 47 If you need to read and restore blocks of data quickly by bypassing the file system, which restore method should you use?
A.Restore by Backup Media
B.Recover Virtual Machine
C.Restore by Image
D.Restore by Tree
300-165 vce Answer: C

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Following Cisco 210-065 Dumps 281QAs Are All New Published By Pass4itsure

QUESTION 105
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps

An administrator is attempting to register a Cisco TelePresence endpoint to a Cisco VCS. The Cisco VCS uses local authentication and a single username for all endpoints. Where is the first place that the administrator should go to resolve the issue?
A. VCS andgt; Configuration andgt; Authentication andgt; Devices andgt; Local Database
B. Endpoint andgt; Configuration andgt; System Configuration andgt; Profile 1 andgt; Authentication
C. VCS andgt; Configuration andgt; Authentication andgt; Outbound Connection Credentials
D. Endpoint andgt; Configuration andgt; System Configuration andgt; SIP andgt; Profile 1 andgt; Authentication 1
E. VCS andgt; Configuration andgt; Registration andgt; Allow List
F. VCS andgt; Configuration andgt; Registration andgt; Deny List
210-065 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 106
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps

Which tab can be used in order to check the call statistics for the Cisco TelePresence Codec C60?
A. Diagnostics
B. Configuration
C. Call Control

D. Maintenance
E. The GUI cannot be used to view call statistics.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 107
When making a cost-time trade-off in CPM analysis, the first activity that should be crashed is the activity:
A. With the largest amount of slack.
B. With the lowest unit crash cost.
C. On the critical path with the maximum possible time reduction.
D. On the critical path with the lowest unit crash cost.
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When making a cost-time trade-off, the first activity to be crashed (have its completion time accelerated) is one on the critical path. To select an activity on another path would not reduce the total time of completion. The initial activity chosen should be the one with the completion time that can be accelerated at the lowest possible cost per unit of time saved.
QUESTION 108
In PERT, slack is the:
A. Uncertainty associated with time estimates.
B. Difference between the latest starting time and earliest finishing time.
C. Path that has the largest amount of time associated with it.
D. Number of days an activity can be delayed without forcing a delay for the entire project.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Slack is the amount of time that commencement of an activity can be delayed without forcing a delay of the entire project.
QUESTION 109
The network below describes the interrelationships of several activities necessary to complete a project. The arrows represent the activities. The numbers between the arrows indicate the number of months to complete each activity. The shortest time to complete the project is:
A. 5 months.
B. 6 months.
C. 8 months.
D. 14 months.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The critical (longest) path through the network from node (A) to node (F) is path A-C-D-F. All other paths are shorter than path A-C-D-F, so the activities along those paths can be completed before the activities along path A-C-D-F. Thus, the shortest time to complete the project is 8 months (3 + 3 + 2).
QUESTION 110
A shortest-route algorithm is used in network models to:
A. Identify bottlenecks in a network and hence identify the longest path.
B. Minimize total travel time from one site to each of the other sites in a transportation system.
C. Maximize throughput in networks with distinct entry (source node) and exit (sink node) points.
D. Identify the set of connecting branches having the shortest combined length.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Network models are used to solve managerial problems pertaining to project scheduling, information systems design, and transportation systems design. Networks consisting of nodesand arcs may be created to represent in graphic form problems related to transportation, assignment, and transshipment. The shortest-route, minimal spanning tree, and maximal flow problems are other applications of network models. A shortest-route algorithm minimizes total travel time from one site to each of the other sites in a transportation system.
QUESTION 111
The following information and diagram apply to a project: The earliest completion time for the project is:
A. 11 days.
B. 14 days.
C. 15 days.
D. 20 days.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The two paths through the network are A-C-E (5+4 + 6= 15days)andB-D-E (3 + 2 + 6 = 11 days). The critical or longest path is thus A-C-E. Hence, the earliest completion time is 15 days.
QUESTION 112
Which of the following terms is not used in project management?
A. Dummy activity.
B. Latest finish.
C. Optimistic time.
D. Lumpy demand.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project management concerns managing teams assigned to special projects. Lumpy demand refers to periodic demand for a product or service that increases in large, lumpy increments.
QUESTION 113
Activity scheduling information for the installation of a new computer system is given below. For this project, the critical path is:
A. A-C
B. B-E
C. A-D-E
D. B-D-C
210-065 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The critical path is the longest path because it defines the minimum duration of the project. A-D-E (4 + 6 + 5 = 15 days) is the critical path.
QUESTION 114
In a critical path analysis, if slack time in an activity exists, the activity:
A. Is not essential to the overall project.

B. Is a backup activity to replace a main activity should it fail.
C. Could be delayed without delaying the overall project.
D. Involves essentially no time to complete.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Slack is the free time associated with activities not on the critical path. Slack represents unused resources that can be diverted to the critical path.
QUESTION 115
Various tools are employed to control large scale projects. They include all of the following except:
A. PERT.
B. CPM.
C. Statistical process control.
D. Gantt charts.
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Statistical process (quality) control is not used to control large scale projects. Statistical quality control is a method of determining whether the shipment or production run of units lies within acceptable limits. It is also used to determine whether production processes are out of control.
QUESTION 116
Which of the following statements is false regarding the efficient and economical achievement of the organization’s objectives?
A. Economical performance accomplishes objectives with minimal use of resources with no regard to risk exposure.
B. Efficient performance accomplishes objectives in a timely manner.
C. Economical performance accomplishes objectives with minimal use of resources commensurate with the risk exposure.
D. Efficient performance accomplishes objectives in an accurate and economical manner.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Efficient performance accomplishes objectives and goals in an accurate, timely, and economical fashion. Economical performance accomplishes objectives and goals with minimal use of resources (i.e., cost) commensurate with risk exposure. Thus, to achieve economical performance when accomplishing objectives, the minimal cost should correspond to the degree of risk exposure.
QUESTION 117
Queuing models are concerned with balancing the cost of waiting in the queue with the:
A. Cost of providing service.
B. Number of customers in the queue.
C. Average waiting time in the queue.
D. Usage rate for the service being rendered.
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Queuing (waiting-line) models minimize, for a given rate of arrivals, the sum of (1) the cost of providing service (including facility costs and operating costs) and (2) the cost of idle resources waiting in line. The latter may be a direct cost, if paid employees are waiting, or an opportunity cost in the case of waiting customers. This minimization occurs at the point where the cost of waiting is balanced by the cost of providing service.
QUESTION 118
The operating condition that cannot be identified by using a queuing model is the:
A. Average percentage of time that a service facility is idle.
B. Probability of a specified number of units in the queue.
C. Actual amount of time each unit spends in the queue.
D. Average number of units in the system and the mean length of the queue.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Queuing models determine the operating characteristics of a waiting line: the probability that no units are in the system, the average units in the line, the average units in the system, the average time a unit waits, the average time a unit is in the system, the probability that a unit must wait, and the probability of a given number of units in the system. However, the actual time spent in the queue cannot be determined from the model.
QUESTION 119
A bank has changed from a system in which lines are formed in front of each teller to a one-line, multiple-server system. When a teller is free, the person at the head of the line goes to that teller. Implementing the new system will:
A. Decrease the bank’s wage expenses because the new system uses fewer tellers.
B. Decrease time customers spend in the line.

C. Increase accuracy in teller reconciliations at the end of the day because fewer customers are served by each teller.
D. Improve on-the-job training for tellers because each will perform different duties.
210-065 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When all customers must wait in a single queue, a decrease inwaiting time is possible givenmultiple servers. An added effect is to increase customer satisfaction.
QUESTION 120
The drive-through service at a fast-food restaurant consists of driving up to place an order, advancing to a window to pay for the order, and then advancing to another window to receive the items ordered. This type of waiting-line system is:
A. Single channel, single phase.
B. Single channel, multiple phase.
C. Multiple channel, single phase.
D. Multiple channel, multiple phase.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The drive-through represents a single queue (channel}. Because this waiting line has three services in series, it may be said to be multiple phase. Another example is the typical factory assembly line. This terminology (channel, phase), however, is not used by all writers on queuing theory.
QUESTION 121
A post office serves customers in a single line at one service window. During peak periods, the rate of arrivals has a Poisson distribution with an average of 100 customers per hour and service times that are exponentially distributed with an average of 60 seconds per customer. From this, one can conclude that the:
A. Queue will expand to infinity.
B. Server will be idle one-sixth of the time.
C. Average rate is 100 customers per hour.
D. Average customer waiting time is 2.5 minutes.
210-065 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
One hundred customers arrive in line per hour and only 60 are serviced per hour. Accordingly, the queue will expand to infinity during peak periods.
QUESTION 122
The arrival times in a waiting-line (queuing) model follow which probability distribution?
A. Binomial.
B. Chi-square.
C. Poisson.
D. Exponential.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Queuing models assume that arrivals follow a Poisson process: The events (arrivals) are independent, any number of events must be possible in the interval of time, the probability of an event is proportional to the length of the interval, and the probability of more than one event is negligible if the interval is sufficiently small.

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QUESTION 21
Which two VPN types can you monitor and control with Cisco Prime Security Manager? (Choose two.)
A. AnyConnect SSL
B. site-to-site
C. clientless SSL
D. IPsec remote-access
300-209 exam Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 22
Which three options are default settings for NTP parameters on a Cisco ASA? (Choose three.)
A. NTP authentication is enabled.
B. NTP authentication is disabled.
C. NTP logging is enabled.
D. NTP logging is disabled.
E. NTP traffic is not restricted.
F. NTP traffic is restricted.
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 23
You have installed a web server on a private network. Which type of NAT must you implement to enable access to the web server for public Internet users?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. network object NAT
D. twice NAT
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit
300-209 dumps

Which type of ACL is shown in this configuration?
A. IPv4
B. IPv6
C. unified
D. IDFW
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps

Which statement about this access list is true?
A. This access list does not work without 6to4 NAT
B. IPv6 to IPv4 traffic permitted on the Cisco ASA by default
C. This access list is valid and works without additional configuration
D. This access list is not valid and does not work at all
E. We can pass only IPv6 to IPv6 and IPv4 to IPv4 traffic
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which kind of Layer 2 attack targets the STP root bridge election process and allows an attacker to control the flow of traffic?
A. man-in-the-middle
B. denial of service
C. distributed denial of service
D. CAM overflow
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
CORRECT TEXT A. Please check the steps in explanation part below
300-209 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps

What is the effect of this configuration?
A. The firewall will inspect IP traffic only between networks 192.168.1.0 and 192.168.2.0.
B. The firewall will inspect all IP traffic except traffic to 192.168.1.0 and 192.168.2.0.

C. The firewall will inspect traffic only if it is defined within a standard ACL.
D. The firewall will inspect all IP traffic.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which statement about the configuration of the Cisco ASA NetFlow v9 (NSEL) is true ?
A. To view bandwidth usage for the NetFlow record, you must enable QoS features
B. Use sysopt command to enable NSEL on a specific interface
C. NSEL can be used without a collector configured
D. NSEL tracks the flow continuously and provides updates every 10 seconds
E. You must define a flow-export event type under a policy
300-209 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 30
By default, not all services in the default inspection class are inspected. Which Cisco ASA CLI command do you use to determine which inspect actions are applied to the default inspection class?
A. show policy-map global_policy
B. show policy-map inspection_default
C. show class-map inspection_default
D. show class-map default-inspection-traffic
E. show service-policy global
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION: 31
You have created the following WSDL definition to describe a PO service that accepts
purchase orders submitted by customers:
  However, when you try to use this WSDL definition, your system returns an error message stating that it is invalid due to a problem with namespaces. Which of the following revised WSDL definitions correct the problem?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
300-209 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 32
You are in the process of designing a service that manages content in a database of medical images. The service is able to add, update and delete images in the database.
Each of these three functions requires a separate message exchange with the service.
Therefore, the XML schema for this service provides an “addimage” element, an “updateimage” element and a “deleteimage” elements for the request messages, and
separate “addlmageResponse,” “updateimageResponse” and “deletelmageResponse”
elements for the response messages. Which of the following describes the minimum
number of WSDL “message”, “operation”, “portType”, “binding”, and “service”
elements that the WSDL definition must have for this service?
A. 6 “message” elements, 3 “operation” elements,1 “portType” element, 1 “binding” element, 1 “service” element
B. 3 “message” elements. 3 “operation” elements,1 “portType” element, 1 “binding”
element, 1 “service” element
C. 6 “message” elements, 6 “operation” elements, 3 “portType” elements, 1 “binding”
element, 1 “service” element
D. 6 “message” elements, 3 “operation” elements, 3 “portType” elements, 3 “binding”
elements, 1 “service” element
Answer: A
QUESTION: 33
You have developed a Library service that provides an “AddBook” operation that is able to add a book record to a library system. This operation accepts a message based on an “AddBookRequest” element that contains book record details, such as its author and title. It then responds with a message based on the “AddBookResponse” element that acknowledges that the book was successfully added. Below is the current WSDL definition:

You are asked to extend this WSDL definition in order to add a new “DeleteBook” operation that is able to receive a request message based on the “DeleteBookRequest” element and reply with a response message based on the “DeleteBookResponse” element. Which of the following describes the minimum number of message, operation and “portType” elements that will need to be added in order to fulfill these requirements?
A. 2 “message” elements, 2 “operation” elements, 1 “portType” element
B. 2 “message” elements, 2 “operation” elements, zero “portType” elements
C. 1 “message” elements, 1 “operation” element, 1 “portType” element
D. 2 “message” elements, 1 “operation” element, zero “portType” elements
300-209 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 34
You are building the Balance Request service that allows customers to request their current account balance. You have developed the following schema (called “balanceRequest.xsd”) to define the elements used in the messages exchanged by the
service:
 The “balanceRequest” element is to be used as the basis of the request message sent by a customer to the service. The “balanceResponse” element is to be used as the basis of the response message sent out by the service. Which of the following WSDL definitions correctly describes this service?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C
QUESTION: 35
You have written the following XML schema to describe a message that contains
employee payroll information:
  Your company’s enterprise architecture team reviewed your schema to ensure that it conforms to internal design standards used for XML development. They have notified you that although your XML schema is technically correct, it must use the “xsd” prefix for the XML Schema namespace, rather than making it the default namespace. Which of the following revised XML schemas complies to this internal design standard while retaining its original meaning?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
300-209 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 36
A new requirement comes your way to create a Pay service that needs to be able to
retrieve employee payroll information. To fulfill this requirement, you first define the following XML schema (called “Pay.xsd”) that describes the structure of the messages that will need to be exchanged by the Pay service: The “PayLookup” element is intended to represent the request message received by the Pay service. It contains the “empNumber” child element that will provide the employee number used by the Pay service to carry out the search. The “PayLookupResponse” element is intended to represent the response message returned by the Pay service after it has collected the requested employee payroll data. This element contains the same “empNumber” child element along with a “annualSalary” child element and a “yearToDateSalary” child element. Your next task is to incorporate this schema into the Pay service’s WSDL definition. Which of the following correctly maps elements declared in the XML schema to WSDL elements?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A
QUESTION: 37
You work for a local police department and you just finished building a new Crime
Search service that allows police detectives to search a criminal database based on personal traits. The service returns identifying information for people that best meets
the search criteria. The schema for the service is shown here: A police department in a neighboring region wants to start using the Crime Search service. To help them build a service consumer program that will be able to interact with the service, they have requested that you provide them with two sample XML documents that show typical input and output message data. Which of the following pairs of XML elements will validate with the schema shown above?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
300-209 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 38
You are building the Quote Request service that allows other services to request the
current value of a stock. You have developed the following WSDL definition for this service:
  The “message” element named “QuoteRequestMessage” represents the request message sent to the service and the “message” element named “QuoteResponseMessage” represents the response message that the service responds with. Your next task is to
define the concrete description for this WSDL definition and you start with the “binding” element. This of the following represents the correct “binding” element for this WSDL definition?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B
QUESTION: 39
You are asked to create an XML schema for a Postal service that accepts an address and returns the corresponding postal code. You are given the following specific instructions as to how the XML schema should be designed:
– The XML schema requires two elements named “PostalCodeLookup” and “PostalCodeResponse”.
– The “PostalCodeLookup” element must contain child elements named “address1”,
“address2,” “city”, “stateOrRegion” and “country”,in that order. Each of these elements must have the type string.
– The “PostalCodeResponse” element must contain only the postal code as a string and this element must not have any child elements. Which of the following XML schemas fulfills the requirements while also following the instructions?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

300-209 dumps Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps

The network associate is configuring OSPF on the Core router. All the connections to the branches should be participating in OSPF. The link to the ISP should NOT participate in OSPF and should only be advertised as the default route. What set of commands will properly configure the Core router?
A. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
B. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.13 0.0.0.242 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
C. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.16 0.0.0.15 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
D. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.32 0.0.0.31 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
200-105 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
There are two ways to inject a default route into a normal area.1. If the ASBR already has the default route in its routing table, you can advertise theexisting 0.0.0.0/0 into the OSPF domain with th
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps

Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?
A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.
C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1.
D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.128, and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.
E. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation/Reference:
First, notice that the more-specific routes will always be favored over less-specific routes regardless of the administrative distance set for a protocol. In this case, because we use OSPF for three
QUESTION 3
Scenario Refer to the topology. Your company has connected the routers R1. R2. and R3 with serial links. R2 and R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2, respectively. SW1 and SW2 are also connected to the routers R4 and R5. The EIGRP routing protocol is configured. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers. Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
200-105 dumps

200-105 dumps

200-105 dumps

200-105 dumps200-105 dumps

Which path does traffic take from R1 to R5?
A. The traffic goes through R2.
B. The traffic goes through R3.
C. The traffic is equally load-balanced over R2 and R3.
D. The traffic is unequally load-balanced over R2 and R3.
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?
A. 0000.5E00.01A3
B. 0007.B400.AE01
C. 0000.0C07.AC15
D. 0007.5E00.B301
Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which identification number is valid for an extended ACL?
A. 1
B. 64
C. 99
D. 100
E. 299
F. 1099
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows andquot;PVC STATUS = INACTIVEandquot;. What does this mean?
A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes.
B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address of the remote router.
C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger a call to the remote router.
D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC.
E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.
200-105 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The PVC STATUS displays the status of the PVC. The DCE device creates and sends the report to the DTE devices. There are 4 statuses: ACTIVE: the PVC is operational and can transmit dataI
QUESTION 8
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
200-105 exam Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation/Reference:
Each packet that is forwarded within a router or switch is examined for a set of IP packet attributes. These attributes are
the IP packet identity or fingerprint of the packet and determine if the
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps

A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the
problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.

E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
Whenever a node needs to send data to another node on a network, it must first know where to send it. If the node cannot directly connect to the destination node, it has to send it via other nodes a

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Exam Code: 700-172
Exam Name: FlexPod Sales
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION NO: 1
You work as a Network Auditor for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. While auditing the company’s network, you are facing problems in searching the faults and other entities that belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?
A. Residual risk
B. Secondary risk
C. Detection risk
D. Inherent risk
700-172 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
Detection risks are the risks that an auditor will not be able to find what they are looking to detect. Hence, it becomes tedious to report negative results when material conditions (faults) actually exist. Detection risk includes two types of risk: Sampling risk: This risk occurs when an auditor falsely accepts or erroneously rejects an audit sample. Nonsampling risk: This risk occurs when an auditor fails to detect a condition because of not applying the appropriate procedure or using procedures inconsistent with the audit objectives (detection faults). Answer: A is incorrect. Residual risk is the risk or danger of an action or an event, a method or a (technical) process that, although being abreast with science, still conceives these dangers, even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied (scientifically conceivable measures). The formula to calculate residual risk is (inherent risk) x (control risk) where inherent risk is (threats vulnerability). In the economic context, residual means “the quantity left over at the end of a process; a remainder”. Answer: D is incorrect. Inherent risk, in auditing, is the risk that the account
or section being audited is materially misstated without considering internal controls due to error or fraud. The assessment of inherent risk depends on the professional judgment of the auditor, and it is done after assessing the business environment of the entity being audited. Answer: B is incorrect. A secondary risk is a risk that arises as a straight consequence of implementing a risk response. The secondary risk is an outcome of dealing with the original risk. Secondary risks are not as rigorous or important as primary risks, but can turn out to be so if not estimated and planned properly.
QUESTION NO: 2
The National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP) is the
minimum standard process for the certification and accreditation of computer and telecommunications systems that handle U.S. national security information. Which of the following
 participants are required in a NIACAP security assessment? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Certification agent
B. Designated Approving Authority
C. IS program manager
D. Information Assurance Manager
E. User representative
700-172 dumps Answer: A,B,C,E
Explanation:
The NIACAP roles are nearly the same as the DITSCAP roles. Four minimum
participants (roles) are required to perform a NIACAP security assessment: IS program manager:
The IS program manager is the primary authorization advocate. He is responsible for the
Information Systems (IS) throughout the life cycle of the system development. Designated
Approving Authority (DAA): The Designated Approving Authority (DAA), in the United States Department of Defense, is the official with the authority to formally assume responsibility for operating a system at an acceptable level of risk. Certification agent: The certification agent is also referred to as the certifier. He provides the technical expertise to conduct the certification throughout the system life cycle. User representative: The user representative focuses on system availability, access, integrity, functionality, performance, and confidentiality in a Certification and Accreditation (C&A) process. Answer: D is incorrect. Information Assurance Manager (IAM) is one of the key participants in the DIACAP process.
QUESTION NO: 3 DRAG DROP
Drop the appropriate value to complete the formula.
Answer:
Explanation:

A Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the value in dollar ($) that is assigned to a single event. The SLE can be calculated by the following formula: SLE = Asset Value ($) X Exposure Factor (EF) The Exposure Factor (EF) represents the % of assets loss caused by a threat. The EF is required to calculate the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE). The Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) can be calculated by multiplying the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) with the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) X Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) is a number that represents the estimated frequency in which a threat is expected to occur. It is calculated based upon the probability of the event occurring and the number of employees that could make that event occur.
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following penetration testing techniques automatically tests every phone line in an exchange and tries to locate modems that are attached to the network?
A. Demon dialing
B. Sniffing
C. Social engineering
D. Dumpster diving
700-172 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
The demon dialing technique automatically tests every phone line in an exchange and tries to locate modems that are attached to the network. Information about these modems can then be used to attempt external unauthorized access. Answer: B is incorrect. In sniffing, a protocol analyzer is used to capture data packets that are later decoded to collect information such as passwords or infrastructure configurations. Answer: D is incorrect. Dumpster diving technique is used for searching paper disposal areas for unshredded or otherwise improperly disposed-of reports. Answer: C is incorrect. Social engineering is the most commonly used technique of all, getting information (like passwords) just by asking for them.

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