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QUESTION 1
Material is transferred between two subinventories within an organization via transfer order. The setup is complete and
the transfer order is created through the FBDI process. What is the primary interface data that needs to be completed in
the template?
A. CST_I_INCOMING_TXN_COSTS
B. INV_SUBINVENTORY_TRANSFER
C. INV_TRANSACTIONS_INTERFACE
D. INV_SERIAL_NUMBERS_INTERFACE
E. INV_TRANSACTION_LOTS_INTERFACE
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Which statement is false about generating an Internal Material Transfer for expense destination Transfer Order?
A. Cost Management will pick up the delivery transaction directly from Receiving and process the expense accounting
from that transaction.
B. Cost for Lot and serial numbers are tracked at put away time when the items are recorded in a destination inventory
location.
C. Expense destination transfers are expensed upon delivery hitting an expense account instead of an inventory asset
account as would be the case for inventory destination transfers.
D. If the receipt is required, then accounting of the receipt delivery transaction will happen only in Receipt Accounting
because there will not be a delivery transaction in inventory.
E. If the receipt is not required, Cost Accounting will pick up both the issue and receipt activity from the single inventory
transaction “Transfer Order Issue”.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
You have a high value item that you want to audit on an unscheduled basis to deter pilfering. Which method would you
use to do this?
A. Physical Inventory Count
B. ABC Count
C. Automated Cycle Count
D. Blind Inventory Count
E. Manual Cycle Count
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 4
Your customer is setting up serial control. The requirement is that if item A has serial 123, then they do not want item B
to also have serial 123 within the same inventory organization. Which serial control setting must be used to meet this
requirement?
A. Unique within items
B. Unique across Enterprise
C. Unique across organizations
D. Unique within organization
E. Unique within Item and organization
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A customer has one Business Unit, two Legal Entities, and each have eight warehouses (defined as Inventory Orgs).
While trying to set up Cost Organizations for each of these Legal Entities, you were unable to perform the mandatory
step of
assigning the Profit Center Business Unit for one set of eight Inventory Organizations; however, you could do it for the
other set.
What is the reason for this?
A. There is no Inventory Validation Organization defined.
B. There is no Business Unit associated with the Legal Entity.
C. The General Ledger is not associated with Business Unit.
D. The Business Unit is not enabled for Costing.
E. The Legal Entity Setup is incomplete.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Your client wants the purchasers to be able to run the min-max plan for items under their control and then manage the
POs created out of these. Which parameters can they use to be able to do this?
A. From Planner to Planner
B. From Buyer to Buyer
C. From Item to Item
D. Sort by
E. Planning Level
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
What are the four steps for the move request process flow?
A. Run pick slip allocation
B. Create Movement Request
C. Physically move the material
D. Run the Movement Request Pick Slip Report
E. Confirm pick slips
F. Create shipment
Correct Answer: BCDE


QUESTION 8
Reorder quantities for an item subinventory are calculated using Fixed Lot Multiple and Round Order Quantity. Assume
that the reorder quantity is 24 and you specify 10 for the fixed lot multiple and enable rounding the reorder quantity.
What will be the reorder quantity?
A. 30
B. 25
C. 24
D. 20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which action invokes supply chain orchestration and transfer of data to supply chain orchestration interface tables?
A. running Min-Max Planning
B. creating Purchase Order Receipt
C. running a scheduled process called “Create Transactions”
D. creating a new Inventory Organization for execution of supply chain orchestration
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
A supply request has been received in supply chain orchestration. Both organizations belong to the same legal entity
and they do not have a buy-sell relationship between them. Which type of execution document can fulfill the supply
request?
A. Sales Order
B. Purchase Requisitions
C. Purchase Order
D. Transfer Order
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Your organization has lot controlled and nonlot controlled material and stores all defective material in a subinventory
called “Defect”. The organization does not want defective material to be available for reservations or for subsequent
shipping
to customers.
Which option satisfies this requirement?
A. Disallow all inventory transactions for the subinventory “Defect”.
B. Assign the subinventory a material status that disallows reservations and allows subinventory transfers and issues to
scrap.
C. Tag the lot as defective product.
D. Assign the lot a material status that disallows reservations and allows subinventory transfers and issues to scrap.
E. Put a hold on the lot.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
The Applications Development Framework Desktop Integration (ADFdi) user interface is supported in Oracle Fusion
Receiving, Inventory Management, and Shipping products. Identify four ADFdi user interfaces that are supported.
A. Review Receipts Interface
B. Manage Inventory Transaction Correction in Spreadsheet
C. Review Count Interface Records
D. Manage Lot/Serial Interface
E. Upload ASN or ASBN
F. Manage Shipment Message Interface
Correct Answer: ABDF


QUESTION 13
While creating the consignment agreement, you have set the consumption advice frequency to “monthly” and the billing
cycle close date to “31st August 2020”. What will happen when you run the consumption advice process on 31st
August 2020?
A. Consumption advice is created and the next closing date is set to 30th September 2020.
B. Consumption advice is created and the next closing date is set to 7th September 2020.
C. Consumption advice is created and the next closing date is set to 30th October 2020.
D. No consumption advice is created.
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1072 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1072 exam

QUESTION 1
Your application consists of three Oracle Cloud Infrastructure compute instances running behind a public load balancer.
You have configured the load balancer to perform health checks on these instances, but one of the three instances fails
to pass the configured health check. Which of the following action will the load balancer perform?
A. Stop sending traffic to the instance that failed health check
B. B. Terminate the instance that failed health check
C. C. Stop the instances that failed health check
D. D. Remove the instance that failed the health check from the backend set
Correct Answer: A
health check A test to confirm the availability of backend servers. A health check can be a request or a connection
attempt. Based on a time interval you specify, the load balancer applies the health check policy to continuously monitor
backend servers. If a server fails the health check, the load balancer takes the server temporarily out of rotation. If the
server subsequently passes the health check, the load balancer returns it to the rotation.
You configure your health check policy when you create a backend set. You can configure TCP-level or HTTP-level
health checks for your backend servers.

TCP-level health checks attempt to make a TCP connection with the backend servers and validate the response based
on the connection status.

HTTP-level health checks send requests to the backend servers at a specific URI and validate the response based on
the status code or entity data (body) returned. The service provides application-specific health check capabilities to help
you increase availability and reduce your application maintenance window.


QUESTION 2
You have a working application in the US East region. The app is a 3-tier app with a database backend – you take
regular backups of the database into OCI Object Storage in the US East region. For Business continuity; you are
leveraging OCI Object Storage cross-region copy feature to copy database backups to the US West region. Which of
the following three steps do you need to execute to meet your requirement?
A. Write an IAM policy and authorize the Object Storage service to manage objects on your behalf
B. Specify an existing destination bucket
C. Specify the bucket visibility for both the source and destination buckets
D. D. Provide a destination object name
E. E. Provide an option to choose bulk copying of objects
F. F. Choose an overwrite rule
Correct Answer: ABF
You can copy objects to other buckets in the same region and to buckets in other regions.
You must have the required access to both the source and destination buckets when performing an object copy. You
must also have permissions to manage objects in the source and destination buckets.
Because Object Storage is a regional service, you must authorize the Object Storage service for each region carrying
out copy operations on your behalf. For example, you might authorize the Object Storage service in region US East
(Ashburn) to manage objects on your behalf. Once you authorize the Object Storage service, you can copy an object
stored in a US East (Ashburn) bucket to a bucket in another region.
You can use overwrite rules to control the copying of objects based on their entity tag (ETag) values.
Specify an existing target bucket for the copy request. The copy operation does not automatically create buckets.

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage Service? (Choose two.)
A. It provides higher IOPS than Block Storage.
B. It can be directly attached or detached from a compute instance.
C. Data is stored redundantly only in a single AD.
D. Data is stored redundantly across multiple availability domains (ADs).
E. It provides strong consistency.
Correct Answer: DE
STRONG CONSISTENCYWhen a read request is made, Object Storage always serves the most recent copy of the
data that was written to the system.DURABILITYObject Storage is a regional service. Data is stored redundantly across
multiple storage servers. Object Storage actively monitors data integrity using checksums and automatically detects and
repairs corrupt data. Object Storage actively monitors and ensures data redundancy. If a redundancy loss is detected,
Object Storage automatically creates more data copies. For more details about Object Storage durability, see the Oracle
Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage FAQ.CUSTOM METADATAYou can define your own extensive metadata as key-value pairs for any purpose. For example, you can create descriptive tags for objects, retrieve those tags, and sort
through the data. You can assign custom metadata to objects and buckets using the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI or
SDK. See Software Development Kits and Command Line Interface for details.ENCRYPTIONObject Storage employs
256-bit Advanced Encryption Standard (AES-256) to encrypt object data on the server. Each object is encrypted with its
own key. Data encryption keys are encrypted with a master encryption key that is frequently rotated. Encryption is
enabled by default and cannot be turned off.

QUESTION 4
A customer wants to do development on-premise while leveraging services such as Java Cloud, Mobile Developer
Cloud, and App Builder Services. The customer would also like to scale out the application, stretching from on-premises
to the cloud by using a common API.
Which two Infrastructure options can the customer leverage to do this? (Choose two.)
A. Oracle Cloud at Customer
B. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Classic
C. Oracle Cloud Ravello service
D. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which option lists Virtual Cloud Networks (VCNs) that can be peered?
A. VCN A (172.16.0.0/24) and VCN B (172.16.0.0/28)
B. VCN A (10.0.0.0/16) and VCN B (10.1.0.0/16)
C. VCN A (10.0.2.0/16) and VCN B (10.0.2.0/25)
D. VCN A (10.0.0.0/16) and VCN B (10.0.16.0/24)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are about to upload log file (5 TiB size) to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure object storage and have decided to use
multipart upload capability for a more efficient and resilient upload. Which two statements are true about multipart
upload? (Choose two.)
A. Individual object parts can be as small as 10 MiB or as large as 50 GiB
B. While a multipart upload is still active, you cannot add parts even if the total number of parts is less than 10,000
C. The maximum size for an uploaded object is 10 TiB
D. You do not have to commit the upload after you have uploaded all the object parts
Correct Answer: AC
With multipart upload, you split the object you want to upload into individual parts. Individual parts can be as large as 50
GiB or as small as 10 MiB. (Object Storage waives the minimum part size restriction for the last uploaded part.) Decide
what part number you want to use for each part. Part numbers can range from 1 to 10,000. You do not need to assign
contiguous numbers, but Object Storage constructs the object by ordering part numbers in ascending order.
The maximum size for an uploaded object is 10 TiB
While a multipart upload is still active, you can keep adding parts as long as the total number is less than 10,000.

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about encryption on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)? (Choose two.)
A. By default, object storage and block storage are encrypted at rest.
B. A customer is responsible for data encryption in all services of OCI.
C. By default, DB Systems offers an encrypted database.
D. By default, NVMe drives are encrypted but the block volume service is not.
Correct Answer: AC
References: https://cloud.oracle.com/storage/object-storage/features


QUESTION 8
You have an instance running in a development compartment that needs to make API calls against other OCI services,
but you do not want to configure user credentials or store a configuration file on the instance. How can you meet this
requirement?
A. Create a dynamic group with matching rules to include your instance
B. B. Instances can automatically make calls to other OCI services
C. C. Instances are secure and cannot make calls to other OCI services
D. D. Create a dynamic group with matching rules to include your instance and write a policy for this dynamic group
Correct Answer: D
Dynamic groups allow you to group Oracle Cloud Infrastructure computer instances as “principal” actors (similar to user
groups).
When you create a dynamic group, rather than adding members explicitly to the group, you instead define a set of
matching rules to define the group members. For example, a rule could specify that all instances in a particular
compartment are members of the dynamic group. The members can change dynamically as instances are launched and
terminated in that compartment.
A dynamic group has no permissions until you write at least one policy that gives that dynamic group permission to
either the tenancy or a compartment. When writing the policy, you can specify the dynamic group by using either the
unique name or the dynamic group\\’s OCID. Per the preceding note, even if you specify the dynamic group name in the
policy, IAM internally uses the OCID to determine the dynamic group.

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1072-20 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1072-20 exam

QUESTION 1
Which service is NOT supported by Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI?
A. load balancer
B. compute
C. database
D. block volumes
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/API/Concepts/cliconcepts.htm#services


QUESTION 2
Why are two subnets required to create a public load balancer when additional subnets are often used for back-end
servers? (Choose two.)
A. Routing is simpler when the load balancer is not in the same subnet as the back-end server.
B. Performance is higher when more subnets are used.
C. Additional subnets for back-end servers allow for separate route tables for these servers.
D. Additional subnets for back-end servers allow for separate security lists for these servers.
Correct Answer: BD
References:
http://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/obe/cloud/ocis/load-balancer/load-balancer.html


QUESTION 3
Which two choices are true for Autonomous Data Warehouse (ADW)? (Choose two.)
A. Billing stops only when the ADW is terminated
B. Billing stops for both CPU usage and storage usage when ADW is stopped
C. Billing for computing stops when ADW is stopped
D. Billing for storage continues when ADW is stopped
Correct Answer: CD
When Autonomous Database instance is stopped, CPU billing is halted based on full-hour cycles of usage Billing for storage continues as long as the service instance
exists. and When the Autonomous Database instance is started, the CPU billing is initiated

QUESTION 4
You have the following compartment structure in your tenancy. Root compartment->Training- >Training-subl ->Trainingsub2 You create a policy in the root compartment to allow the default admin for the account (Administrators) to manage
block volumes in compartment Training-sub2.
What policy would you write to meet this requirement?
A. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in the root compartment
B. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in compartment Training-sub1: Training- sub2
C. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in compartment Training: Training-sub 1 : Training-sub2
D. Allow group Administrators to manage volume-family in compartment Training-sub2
Correct Answer: C
a policy statement must specify the compartment for which access is being granted (or the tenancy). Where you create
the policy determines who can update the policy. If you attach the policy to the compartment or its parent, you can
simply specify the compartment name. If you attach the policy further up the hierarchy, you must specify the path. The
format of the path is each compartment name (or OCID) in the path, separated by a colon::: . . . For example, assume
you have a three-level compartment hierarchy, shown here:

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You want to create a policy to allow NetworkAdmins to manage VCNs in CompartmentC. If you want to attach this policy
to CompartmentC or to its parent, CompartmentB, write this policy statement:
Allow group NewtworkAdmins to manage virtual-network-family in compartment CompartmentC However, if you want to
attach this policy to CompartmentA (so that only administrators of CompartmentA can modify it), write this policy
statement that specifies the path:
Allow group NewtworkAdmins to manage virtual-network-family in compartment CompartmentB:CompartmentC
To attach this policy to the tenancy, write this policy statement that specifies the path from CompartmentA to
CompartmentC:
Allow group NewtworkAdmins to manage virtual-network-family in compartment
CompartmentA:CompartmentB:CompartmentC

 

QUESTION 5
Which five are the required parameters to launch an instance in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure? (Choose five.)
A. subnet
B. Availability Domain
C. Virtual Cloud Network
D. host name
E. instance shape
F. image operating system
G. private IP address
Correct Answer: ABCEF
References: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/Compute/Concepts/computeoverview.htm


QUESTION 6
A company currently uses Microsoft Active Directory as its identity provider. The company recently subscribed to Oracle
Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) to leverage the cloud platform for test and development. As the administrator, you configured
the OCI tenancy to be federated with Microsoft Active Directory. Now you need to give access to developers so that
they can start creating resources in their OCI accounts.
Which step will you perform to make sure you are not duplicating user creation inside of OCI tenancy?
A. Create a group for developers on OCI and map the group to a similar group in Microsoft Active Directory during the
federation process.
B. Create a new user account in OCI for each user, and then create policies to provide access to developers.
C. Create a group for developers on OCI, export all the developers from Microsoft Active Directory, and then import
them into the Identity and Access Management (IAM) group.
D. Create a single user account in OCI, and then create policies to provide access to developers to this single account.
Correct Answer: A
When working with your IdP, your administrator defines groups and assigns each user to one or more groups according
to the type of access the user needs. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure also uses the concept of groups (in conjunction with
IAM policies) to define the type of access a user has. As part of setting up the relationship with the IdP, your
administrator can map each IdP group to a similarly defined IAM group, so that your company can re-use the IdP group
definitions when authorizing user access to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure resources.

QUESTION 7
The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Block Volume service lets you expand the size of the block and boot volumes. Which three
options below can you use to increase the size of your block volumes?
A. Clone an existing volume to a new, larger volume
B. You can only expand block volumes and not boot volumes
C. Expand an existing volume in place with offline resizing
D. Take a backup of your existing volume and restore from the volume back up to a larger volume
E. Expand an existing volume in place with online resizing
Correct Answer: ACD
The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Block Volume service lets you expand the size of block volumes and boot volumes. You
have three options to increase the size of your volumes:
Expand an existing volume in place with offline resizing. See Resizing a Volume Using the Console for the steps to do
this.
Restore from a volume backup to a larger volume. See Restoring a Backup to a New Volume and Restoring a Boot
Volume.
Clone an existing volume to a new, larger volume. See Cloning a Volume and Cloning a Boot Volume.

QUESTION 8
A company currently uses Microsoft Active Directory as its identity provider. The company recently purchased Oracle
Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) to leverage the cloud platform for its test and development operations. As the administrator,
you are now tasked with giving access only to developers so that they can start creating resources in their OCI
accounts. Which step will you perform to achieve this requirement?
A. Create a group for developers on OCI and map the group to a similar group in Microsoft Active Directory during the
federation process.
B. Federate all Microsoft Active Directory groups with OCI to allow users to use their existing credentials.
C. Create a new user account for each user and then create policies to provide access to developers.
D. Create a group for developers on OCI, export all the developers from Microsoft Active Directory, and then import
them into the Identity and Access Management (IAM) group.
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1073 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1073 exam

QUESTION 1
You face a supply request exception due to some reason. You realize that you need to make some changes to the
Manage Supply Request Exceptions page. Which action will you perform?
A. The supply request cannot be updated. The only way is to resolve the error in the source application and resubmit
the request.
B. Update the supply request and submit it. The errors will be resolved automatically.
C. The supply request can be updated using a third-party application only.
D. Update the supply request and make user errors are resolved before resubmitting it.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Your customer is a very large organization spanning across multiple countires. Their legal requirements, Human
Resource Policies, and Functional Currencies for Ledger are different for each country. Your customer wants to
maintain 10
different companies in the system.
Which combination meets this requirement?
A. 10 Enterprises, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger
B. 10 Enterprises, 1 Division, where each division has 10 legal entities and 1 ledger
C. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger D. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions,
where each division has its own ledger with common legal entity across all divisions
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
While negotiating the terms of the consignment agreement, the buyer and the supplier mutually agree to set the aging
onset point as receipt and the aging period as five days. The terms also say that the consumption advice will be
generated daily.
In which three scenarios will the goods be transferred from the supplier\\’s ownership to buyer\\’s ownership?
A. You received the goods today and you transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to owned transaction” task.
B. You received the goods today and after three days you transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to consigned
transaction” task.
C. You received the goods today and for the next one week you do not plan any action on the same.
D. You received the goods today and after six days you decide to transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to consigned transaction” task.
E. You received the goods today and you decide to issue the goods after three days without transferring the ownership.
F. You received the goods today and after four days you return the material to the supplier.
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 4
Identify three statements that are true about reservations in back-to-back processing.
A. Changes to reservation in Oracle Logistics Cloud leads to exceptions, which are displayed in the Supply Chain
Orchestration work area.
B. Reservation supplies that can be reserved are Purchase Orders, Transfer Orders, Work Orders, and On Hand
inventory.
C. Reservations cannot be created for back-to-back On Hand supply orders.
D. Partial fulfillment of reservations is supported.
E. One reservation is created for a demand and supply.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 5
In the Back-to-Back (B2B) Order to Cash flow, ordered items are purchased from a suplier. The Sourcing Rules have
been defined for the item and the buy flow has been initiated. The sales order line is shown as Awaiting Shipping and
the
supply line status is “In Purchasing” with the supply order generated but the purchase requisition not generating.
What is the reason?
A. Supply order is generated with exceptions.
B. The sourcing rule is incorrect.
C. Preparer is not valid.
D. Buy requests originate from Order Management.
E. No Blanket Purchase Agreement (BPA) exists for this supplier-item combination.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Your customer is managing a large sales team divided in two different geographies in the USA. They have the East
Coast sales team and the Central sales team. Both teams are handled by one manager and perform the same function.
Your customer wants to track the expenses of the two teams separately; however, they do not consider them different
as they are handled by one manager only.
How will you fulfill the requirement?
A. Define them as two separate departments and a single cost center.
B. Define them as one department and one cost center.
C. It is not possible to fulfill the requirement.
D. Define them as a single department and two separate cost centers.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
An inventory transaction is imported to the system through an FBDI template. Which transaction state denotes that an
inventory transaction is created in the Oracle Cloud Inventory Management application?
A. Validated
B. Created
C. Deferred
D. New
E. Staged
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A customer has one Business Unit, two Legal Entities, and each have eight warehouses (defined as Inventory Orgs).
While trying to set up Cost Organizations for each of these Legal Entities, you were unable to perform the mandatory
step of
assigning the Profit Center Business Unit for one set of eight Inventory Organizations; however, you could do it for the
other set.
What is the reason for this?
A. There is no Inventory Validation Organization defined.
B. There is no Business Unit associated with the Legal Entity.
C. The General Ledger is not associated with Business Unit.
D. The Business Unit is not enabled for Costing.
E. The Legal Entity Setup is incomplete.
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Oracle Cloud 1z0-1080-20 exam dumps and practice questions (1-8)

Oracle 1z0-1080-20 exam

QUESTION 1
In Financials, you want to see asset related expenses such as depreciation, amortization, and insurance. Which
describes the steps you can take to set this up? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Set up the Equipment Expense Reporting Capex data map to map asset related expenses to Financials.
B. On the Configure page for Capital, select the option to map Capital accounts to financial accounts. Then for each
Capital account, select a financial account to map to.
C. On the Configure page for Financials, when enabling features, include a custom dimension to store asset related
information.
D. On the Configure page for Financials, select Asset Accounts to set up the accounts from Capital that map to
Financials.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgeting-cloud/epbca/GUID-71622AFDC1F0-4D40-A36F-85FA8AA305B6.pdf (8-6)

 

QUESTION 2
Which migration category is required to restore dimensional security? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Planning
B. Groups and Memberships
C. Reporting
D. Calculation Manager
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E57185_01/EASOH/ss_sec_mode.html

 

QUESTION 3
In Data Management, what are the steps you need to perform to synchronize the application metadata in the target
application? (Choose the best answer.)
A. In Data Management, navigate to Application Dimensions and click Refresh Dimensions.
B. In Data Management, navigate to Import Format and select your Planning application. Click Refresh Dimensions.
C. In Data Management, navigate to Target Application and select your Planning application. Click Refresh Members.
D. In Data Management, to Target Application and select your Planning application. Click Refresh Metadata.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/enterprise-performance-managementcommon/erpia/erpi_reg_target_app.html


QUESTION 4
What three tasks can you perform in the Data Management Workbench? (Choose three.)
A. Export
B. Validate
C. Maintain Process Tables
D. Import
E. Delete Integration
Correct Answer: ABD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/enterprise-performance-managementcommon/erpia/using_the_data_load_workbench.html

 

QUESTION 5
Which three do you need to enable in order to perform indirect cash flow statement planning? (Choose three.)
A. Expense
B. Cash Flow Statement
C. Income Statement
D. Balance Sheet
E. Revenue
Correct Answer: ABE
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgetingcloud/epbca/fin_enabling_cash_flow_100x49cf9a89.html

 

QUESTION 6
In order to be able to configure Additional Earnings in the Benefits and Taxes wizard, into which dimension do you have
to import members? Choose the best answer.
A. Pay Type
B. Property
C. Component
D. Account
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/planning-budgetingcloud/epbca/wf_configuring_workforce__106xdb232ea8.html


QUESTION 7
Several users continuously use custom-created formulas in Excel to supplement their Planning form inputs. What is
another design alternative to reduce offline Excel maintenance? Choose the best answer.
A. Cell commentary
B. Reports
C. Ad hoc forms
D. Smart forms
E. Smart push
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E57185_01/SMVUG/ch13s12s02.html

 

QUESTION 8
Which three can be automated with EPMAutomate? (Choose three.)
A. Import user security
B. Run a Business Rule
C. Import a file into the Planning inbox
D. Migrate a backup between test and production
E. Send an email to users
Correct Answer: BCD

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