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[2018 Cisco Dumps Video] Most Popular Cisco 300-165 Dumps DCII Exam Video Certification Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure

Is Cisco 300-165 dumps is free? The Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (300-165 DCII) exam is a 90 minutes (55 – 65 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNP Data Center certification. Most popular Cisco 300-165 dumps DCII exam video certification Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure. “Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 300-165 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 300-165 exam. Our Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-165.html dumps preparation product is absolutely perfect for candidates who are in need of putting their careers on the top gear or in need of providing the brightest future for themselves.

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300-165 dumps

Following Cisco 300-165 Dumps 187QAs Are All New Published By Pass4itsure
QUESTION 1
Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
300-165 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
If Bob wanted to create a Management High Availability configuration, what is the minimum number of Security Management servers required in order to achieve his goal?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool would David use to accomplish his goal?
A. Smart Provisioning
B. Smart Blade
C. Smart Dashboard
D. Smart LSM
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
From the following output of cphaprob state, which Cluster XL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Cluster XL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all Cluster XL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing – Unicast
B. Load Balancing – Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing – Multicast
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an HTTP rule with a weight of 40, and the Default Rule with a weight of 10. If the only traffic passing through your QoS Module is HTTP traffic, what percent of bandwidth will be allocated to the HTTP traffic?
A. 80%
B. 40%
C. 100%
D. 50%
300-165 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What command will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unload local
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
How do you verify the Check Point kernel running on a firewall?
A. fw ctl get kernel
B. fw ctl pstat
C. fw kernel
D. fw ver -k
300-165 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
The process ________________ compiles $FWDIR/conf/*.W files into machine language.
A. fw gen
B. cpd
C. fwd
D. fwm
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which of the following is NOT part of the policy installation process?
A. Code compilation
B. Code generation
C. Initiation
D. Validation
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
When, during policy installation, does the atomic load task run?
A. It is the first task during policy installation.
B. It is the last task during policy installation.
C. Before CPD runs on the Gateway.
D. Immediately after fwm load runs on the Smart Center.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
What process is responsible for transferring the policy file from Smart Center to the Gateway?
A. FWD
B. FWM
C. CPRID
D. CPD
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
What firewall kernel table stores information about port allocations for Hide NAT connections?
A. NAT_dst_any_list
B. host_ip_addrs
C. NAT_src_any_list
D. fwx_alloc
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Where do you define NAT properties so that NAT is performed either client side or server side?
A. In Smart Dashboard under Gateway setting
B. In Smart Dashboard under Global Properties > NAT definition
C. In Smart Dashboard in the NAT Rules
D. In file $DFWDIR/lib/table.def
300-165 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
The process ___________ is responsible for all other security server processes run on the Gateway.
A. FWD
B. CPLMD
C. FWM
D. CPD
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
The process ________ is responsible for GUI Client communication with the Smart Center.
A. FWD
B. FWM
C. CPD
D. CPLMD
300-165 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
The process ________ is responsible for Policy compilation.
A. FWM
B. Fwcmp
C. CPLMD
D. CPD
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
The process ________ is responsible for Management High Availability synchronization.
A. CPLMD
B. FWM
C. Fwsync
D. CPD
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
_________ is the called process that starts when opening Smart View Tracker application.
A. logtrackerd
B. fwlogd
C. CPLMD
D. FWM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Anytime a client initiates a connection to a server, the firewall kernel signals the FWD process using a trap. FWD spawns the ________ child service, which runs the security server.
A. FWD
B. FWSD
C. In.httpd
D. FWSSD
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Security server configuration settings are stored in _______________ .
A. $FWDIR/conf/AMT.conf
B. $FWDIR/conf/fwrl.conf
C. $FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf
D. $FWDIR/conf/fwopsec.conf
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from running on-demand reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
300-165 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 24 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You want to add another Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports Job Server service. Using the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager, which three tasks must you perform? (Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B, C, D
QUESTION 25 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central Management Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
300-165 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 26 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server? (Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION 27 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups? (Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
300-165 dumps Answer: B, C
QUESTION 28 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space required for the drive holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB
C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C
QUESTION 29 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
300-165 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 30 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter (WCA)? (Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A, B
QUESTION 31 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from the initial Install type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
300-165 vce Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION 32 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal Reports Job Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A
QUESTION 33 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes scheduled List of Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
300-165 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 34 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of the Desktop
Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A
QUESTION 35 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server take when the Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
300-165 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 36 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A, C, D, E
QUESTION 37 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
300-165 pdf Answer: A, B, C, E
QUESTION 38 You are configuring a SQL Server database restore job.You want the restore operation to roll back any uncommitted transactions.Which Recovery Completion State option should you use?
A.Leave torn page repairs offline.
B.Leave database read-only and able to restore additional transaction logs.
C.Leave database operational.No additional transaction logs can be restored.
D.Leave database non-operational, but able to restore additional transaction logs.
Answer: C
QUESTION 39 What is one disadvantage of performing both full and incremental Exchange Server backups every day?
A.High media usage
B.More recovery points
C.Short restore window
D.Corruption detection during offline backups
300-165 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 40 When you configure the Agent for Open Files, what do you select to determine how the agent detects if an open file is ready to be backed up by the backup client?
A.Sync method B.Timing
option C.Execution delay
D.Compare/restore priority
Answer: A
QUESTION 41 Which option is a database level or global level backup method for SQL Server databases?
A.Incremental
B.Time-based
C.Differential
D.Partial
300-165 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 42 In the Job Status Manager, jobs can display various statuses on the Job Queue tab.Examples of valid statuses include: (Choose three)
A.HOLD
B.READY
C.ACTIVE
D.CLOSED
E.PENDING
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION 43 If you configure the Windows client agent to use System Security:
A.The client agent runs under the local system account.
B.The client agent impersonates the administrator at all times.
C.The system enables you to set individual passwords for security.
D.The backup, compare, and restore operations are performed under Windows security.
300-165 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 44 Which information can you obtain using CA ARCserve Backup storage resource management (SRM) reports?
A.Deduplication benefits B.Processor
architecture and speed C.Status of your
virtualized environments
D.Media having encrypted or unencrypted sessions
Answer: B
QUESTION 45 You have media containing a backup session that is not included in the CA ARCserve Backup database.To get the media information into the database, which utility should you use?
A.Copy Utility
B.Merge Utility
C.Diagnostic Utility
D.Media Assure & Scan utility
300-165 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 46 You want to enable a Backup Operator and a Restore Operator to operate jobs submitted by any operator.Which CA ARCserve Backup extended permission should you select?
A.Job Operations
B.Submit Job Options
C.Security Administrator
D.Ownership Checking Exemption Privilege
Answer: D
QUESTION 47 If you need to read and restore blocks of data quickly by bypassing the file system, which restore method should you use?
A.Restore by Backup Media
B.Recover Virtual Machine
C.Restore by Image
D.Restore by Tree
300-165 vce Answer: C

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Following Cisco 210-065 Dumps 281QAs Are All New Published By Pass4itsure

QUESTION 105
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps

An administrator is attempting to register a Cisco TelePresence endpoint to a Cisco VCS. The Cisco VCS uses local authentication and a single username for all endpoints. Where is the first place that the administrator should go to resolve the issue?
A. VCS andgt; Configuration andgt; Authentication andgt; Devices andgt; Local Database
B. Endpoint andgt; Configuration andgt; System Configuration andgt; Profile 1 andgt; Authentication
C. VCS andgt; Configuration andgt; Authentication andgt; Outbound Connection Credentials
D. Endpoint andgt; Configuration andgt; System Configuration andgt; SIP andgt; Profile 1 andgt; Authentication 1
E. VCS andgt; Configuration andgt; Registration andgt; Allow List
F. VCS andgt; Configuration andgt; Registration andgt; Deny List
210-065 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 106
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps

Which tab can be used in order to check the call statistics for the Cisco TelePresence Codec C60?
A. Diagnostics
B. Configuration
C. Call Control
D. Maintenance
E. The GUI cannot be used to view call statistics.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 107
When making a cost-time trade-off in CPM analysis, the first activity that should be crashed is the activity:
A. With the largest amount of slack.
B. With the lowest unit crash cost.
C. On the critical path with the maximum possible time reduction.
D. On the critical path with the lowest unit crash cost.
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When making a cost-time trade-off, the first activity to be crashed (have its completion time accelerated) is one on the critical path. To select an activity on another path would not reduce the total time of completion. The initial activity chosen should be the one with the completion time that can be accelerated at the lowest possible cost per unit of time saved.
QUESTION 108
In PERT, slack is the:
A. Uncertainty associated with time estimates.
B. Difference between the latest starting time and earliest finishing time.
C. Path that has the largest amount of time associated with it.
D. Number of days an activity can be delayed without forcing a delay for the entire project.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Slack is the amount of time that commencement of an activity can be delayed without forcing a delay of the entire project.
QUESTION 109
The network below describes the interrelationships of several activities necessary to complete a project. The arrows represent the activities. The numbers between the arrows indicate the number of months to complete each activity. The shortest time to complete the project is:
A. 5 months.
B. 6 months.
C. 8 months.
D. 14 months.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The critical (longest) path through the network from node (A) to node (F) is path A-C-D-F. All other paths are shorter than path A-C-D-F, so the activities along those paths can be completed before the activities along path A-C-D-F. Thus, the shortest time to complete the project is 8 months (3 + 3 + 2).
QUESTION 110
A shortest-route algorithm is used in network models to:
A. Identify bottlenecks in a network and hence identify the longest path.
B. Minimize total travel time from one site to each of the other sites in a transportation system.
C. Maximize throughput in networks with distinct entry (source node) and exit (sink node) points.
D. Identify the set of connecting branches having the shortest combined length.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Network models are used to solve managerial problems pertaining to project scheduling, information systems design, and transportation systems design. Networks consisting of nodesand arcs may be created to represent in graphic form problems related to transportation, assignment, and transshipment. The shortest-route, minimal spanning tree, and maximal flow problems are other applications of network models. A shortest-route algorithm minimizes total travel time from one site to each of the other sites in a transportation system.
QUESTION 111
The following information and diagram apply to a project: The earliest completion time for the project is:
A. 11 days.
B. 14 days.
C. 15 days.
D. 20 days.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The two paths through the network are A-C-E (5+4 + 6= 15days)andB-D-E (3 + 2 + 6 = 11 days). The critical or longest path is thus A-C-E. Hence, the earliest completion time is 15 days.
QUESTION 112
Which of the following terms is not used in project management?
A. Dummy activity.
B. Latest finish.
C. Optimistic time.
D. Lumpy demand.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project management concerns managing teams assigned to special projects. Lumpy demand refers to periodic demand for a product or service that increases in large, lumpy increments.
QUESTION 113
Activity scheduling information for the installation of a new computer system is given below. For this project, the critical path is:
A. A-C
B. B-E
C. A-D-E
D. B-D-C
210-065 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The critical path is the longest path because it defines the minimum duration of the project. A-D-E (4 + 6 + 5 = 15 days) is the critical path.
QUESTION 114
In a critical path analysis, if slack time in an activity exists, the activity:
A. Is not essential to the overall project.
B. Is a backup activity to replace a main activity should it fail.
C. Could be delayed without delaying the overall project.
D. Involves essentially no time to complete.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Slack is the free time associated with activities not on the critical path. Slack represents unused resources that can be diverted to the critical path.
QUESTION 115
Various tools are employed to control large scale projects. They include all of the following except:
A. PERT.
B. CPM.
C. Statistical process control.
D. Gantt charts.
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Statistical process (quality) control is not used to control large scale projects. Statistical quality control is a method of determining whether the shipment or production run of units lies within acceptable limits. It is also used to determine whether production processes are out of control.
QUESTION 116
Which of the following statements is false regarding the efficient and economical achievement of the organization’s objectives?
A. Economical performance accomplishes objectives with minimal use of resources with no regard to risk exposure.
B. Efficient performance accomplishes objectives in a timely manner.
C. Economical performance accomplishes objectives with minimal use of resources commensurate with the risk exposure.
D. Efficient performance accomplishes objectives in an accurate and economical manner.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Efficient performance accomplishes objectives and goals in an accurate, timely, and economical fashion. Economical performance accomplishes objectives and goals with minimal use of resources (i.e., cost) commensurate with risk exposure. Thus, to achieve economical performance when accomplishing objectives, the minimal cost should correspond to the degree of risk exposure.
QUESTION 117
Queuing models are concerned with balancing the cost of waiting in the queue with the:
A. Cost of providing service.
B. Number of customers in the queue.
C. Average waiting time in the queue.
D. Usage rate for the service being rendered.
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Queuing (waiting-line) models minimize, for a given rate of arrivals, the sum of (1) the cost of providing service (including facility costs and operating costs) and (2) the cost of idle resources waiting in line. The latter may be a direct cost, if paid employees are waiting, or an opportunity cost in the case of waiting customers. This minimization occurs at the point where the cost of waiting is balanced by the cost of providing service.
QUESTION 118
The operating condition that cannot be identified by using a queuing model is the:
A. Average percentage of time that a service facility is idle.
B. Probability of a specified number of units in the queue.
C. Actual amount of time each unit spends in the queue.
D. Average number of units in the system and the mean length of the queue.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Queuing models determine the operating characteristics of a waiting line: the probability that no units are in the system, the average units in the line, the average units in the system, the average time a unit waits, the average time a unit is in the system, the probability that a unit must wait, and the probability of a given number of units in the system. However, the actual time spent in the queue cannot be determined from the model.
QUESTION 119
A bank has changed from a system in which lines are formed in front of each teller to a one-line, multiple-server system. When a teller is free, the person at the head of the line goes to that teller. Implementing the new system will:
A. Decrease the bank’s wage expenses because the new system uses fewer tellers.
B. Decrease time customers spend in the line.
C. Increase accuracy in teller reconciliations at the end of the day because fewer customers are served by each teller.
D. Improve on-the-job training for tellers because each will perform different duties.
210-065 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When all customers must wait in a single queue, a decrease inwaiting time is possible givenmultiple servers. An added effect is to increase customer satisfaction.
QUESTION 120
The drive-through service at a fast-food restaurant consists of driving up to place an order, advancing to a window to pay for the order, and then advancing to another window to receive the items ordered. This type of waiting-line system is:
A. Single channel, single phase.
B. Single channel, multiple phase.
C. Multiple channel, single phase.
D. Multiple channel, multiple phase.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The drive-through represents a single queue (channel}. Because this waiting line has three services in series, it may be said to be multiple phase. Another example is the typical factory assembly line. This terminology (channel, phase), however, is not used by all writers on queuing theory.
QUESTION 121
A post office serves customers in a single line at one service window. During peak periods, the rate of arrivals has a Poisson distribution with an average of 100 customers per hour and service times that are exponentially distributed with an average of 60 seconds per customer. From this, one can conclude that the:
A. Queue will expand to infinity.
B. Server will be idle one-sixth of the time.
C. Average rate is 100 customers per hour.
D. Average customer waiting time is 2.5 minutes.
210-065 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
One hundred customers arrive in line per hour and only 60 are serviced per hour. Accordingly, the queue will expand to infinity during peak periods.
QUESTION 122
The arrival times in a waiting-line (queuing) model follow which probability distribution?
A. Binomial.
B. Chi-square.
C. Poisson.
D. Exponential.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Queuing models assume that arrivals follow a Poisson process: The events (arrivals) are independent, any number of events must be possible in the interval of time, the probability of an event is proportional to the length of the interval, and the probability of more than one event is negligible if the interval is sufficiently small.

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QUESTION 21
Which two VPN types can you monitor and control with Cisco Prime Security Manager? (Choose two.)
A. AnyConnect SSL
B. site-to-site
C. clientless SSL
D. IPsec remote-access
300-209 exam Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 22
Which three options are default settings for NTP parameters on a Cisco ASA? (Choose three.)
A. NTP authentication is enabled.
B. NTP authentication is disabled.
C. NTP logging is enabled.
D. NTP logging is disabled.
E. NTP traffic is not restricted.
F. NTP traffic is restricted.
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 23
You have installed a web server on a private network. Which type of NAT must you implement to enable access to the web server for public Internet users?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. network object NAT
D. twice NAT
300-209 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit
300-209 dumps

Which type of ACL is shown in this configuration?
A. IPv4
B. IPv6
C. unified
D. IDFW
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps

Which statement about this access list is true?
A. This access list does not work without 6to4 NAT
B. IPv6 to IPv4 traffic permitted on the Cisco ASA by default
C. This access list is valid and works without additional configuration
D. This access list is not valid and does not work at all
E. We can pass only IPv6 to IPv6 and IPv4 to IPv4 traffic
300-209 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which kind of Layer 2 attack targets the STP root bridge election process and allows an attacker to control the flow of traffic?
A. man-in-the-middle
B. denial of service
C. distributed denial of service
D. CAM overflow
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
CORRECT TEXT A. Please check the steps in explanation part below
300-209 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps

What is the effect of this configuration?
A. The firewall will inspect IP traffic only between networks 192.168.1.0 and 192.168.2.0.
B. The firewall will inspect all IP traffic except traffic to 192.168.1.0 and 192.168.2.0.
C. The firewall will inspect traffic only if it is defined within a standard ACL.
D. The firewall will inspect all IP traffic.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which statement about the configuration of the Cisco ASA NetFlow v9 (NSEL) is true ?
A. To view bandwidth usage for the NetFlow record, you must enable QoS features
B. Use sysopt command to enable NSEL on a specific interface
C. NSEL can be used without a collector configured
D. NSEL tracks the flow continuously and provides updates every 10 seconds
E. You must define a flow-export event type under a policy
300-209 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 30
By default, not all services in the default inspection class are inspected. Which Cisco ASA CLI command do you use to determine which inspect actions are applied to the default inspection class?
A. show policy-map global_policy
B. show policy-map inspection_default
C. show class-map inspection_default
D. show class-map default-inspection-traffic
E. show service-policy global
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION: 31
You have created the following WSDL definition to describe a PO service that accepts
purchase orders submitted by customers:  However, when you try to use this WSDL definition, your system returns an error message stating that it is invalid due to a problem with namespaces. Which of the following revised WSDL definitions correct the problem?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
300-209 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 32
You are in the process of designing a service that manages content in a database of medical images. The service is able to add, update and delete images in the database.
Each of these three functions requires a separate message exchange with the service.
Therefore, the XML schema for this service provides an “addimage” element, an “updateimage” element and a “deleteimage” elements for the request messages, and
separate “addlmageResponse,” “updateimageResponse” and “deletelmageResponse”
elements for the response messages. Which of the following describes the minimum
number of WSDL “message”, “operation”, “portType”, “binding”, and “service”
elements that the WSDL definition must have for this service?
A. 6 “message” elements, 3 “operation” elements,1 “portType” element, 1 “binding” element, 1 “service” element
B. 3 “message” elements. 3 “operation” elements,1 “portType” element, 1 “binding”
element, 1 “service” element
C. 6 “message” elements, 6 “operation” elements, 3 “portType” elements, 1 “binding”
element, 1 “service” element
D. 6 “message” elements, 3 “operation” elements, 3 “portType” elements, 3 “binding”
elements, 1 “service” element
Answer: A
QUESTION: 33
You have developed a Library service that provides an “AddBook” operation that is able to add a book record to a library system. This operation accepts a message based on an “AddBookRequest” element that contains book record details, such as its author and title. It then responds with a message based on the “AddBookResponse” element that acknowledges that the book was successfully added. Below is the current WSDL definition:
You are asked to extend this WSDL definition in order to add a new “DeleteBook” operation that is able to receive a request message based on the “DeleteBookRequest” element and reply with a response message based on the “DeleteBookResponse” element. Which of the following describes the minimum number of message, operation and “portType” elements that will need to be added in order to fulfill these requirements?
A. 2 “message” elements, 2 “operation” elements, 1 “portType” element
B. 2 “message” elements, 2 “operation” elements, zero “portType” elements
C. 1 “message” elements, 1 “operation” element, 1 “portType” element
D. 2 “message” elements, 1 “operation” element, zero “portType” elements
300-209 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 34
You are building the Balance Request service that allows customers to request their current account balance. You have developed the following schema (called “balanceRequest.xsd”) to define the elements used in the messages exchanged by the
service: The “balanceRequest” element is to be used as the basis of the request message sent by a customer to the service. The “balanceResponse” element is to be used as the basis of the response message sent out by the service. Which of the following WSDL definitions correctly describes this service?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C
QUESTION: 35
You have written the following XML schema to describe a message that contains
employee payroll information:  Your company’s enterprise architecture team reviewed your schema to ensure that it conforms to internal design standards used for XML development. They have notified you that although your XML schema is technically correct, it must use the “xsd” prefix for the XML Schema namespace, rather than making it the default namespace. Which of the following revised XML schemas complies to this internal design standard while retaining its original meaning?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
300-209 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 36
A new requirement comes your way to create a Pay service that needs to be able to
retrieve employee payroll information. To fulfill this requirement, you first define the following XML schema (called “Pay.xsd”) that describes the structure of the messages that will need to be exchanged by the Pay service: The “PayLookup” element is intended to represent the request message received by the Pay service. It contains the “empNumber” child element that will provide the employee number used by the Pay service to carry out the search. The “PayLookupResponse” element is intended to represent the response message returned by the Pay service after it has collected the requested employee payroll data. This element contains the same “empNumber” child element along with a “annualSalary” child element and a “yearToDateSalary” child element. Your next task is to incorporate this schema into the Pay service’s WSDL definition. Which of the following correctly maps elements declared in the XML schema to WSDL elements?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A
QUESTION: 37
You work for a local police department and you just finished building a new Crime
Search service that allows police detectives to search a criminal database based on personal traits. The service returns identifying information for people that best meets
the search criteria. The schema for the service is shown here: A police department in a neighboring region wants to start using the Crime Search service. To help them build a service consumer program that will be able to interact with the service, they have requested that you provide them with two sample XML documents that show typical input and output message data. Which of the following pairs of XML elements will validate with the schema shown above?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
300-209 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 38
You are building the Quote Request service that allows other services to request the
current value of a stock. You have developed the following WSDL definition for this service:  The “message” element named “QuoteRequestMessage” represents the request message sent to the service and the “message” element named “QuoteResponseMessage” represents the response message that the service responds with. Your next task is to
define the concrete description for this WSDL definition and you start with the “binding” element. This of the following represents the correct “binding” element for this WSDL definition?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B
QUESTION: 39
You are asked to create an XML schema for a Postal service that accepts an address and returns the corresponding postal code. You are given the following specific instructions as to how the XML schema should be designed:
– The XML schema requires two elements named “PostalCodeLookup” and “PostalCodeResponse”.
– The “PostalCodeLookup” element must contain child elements named “address1”,
“address2,” “city”, “stateOrRegion” and “country”,in that order. Each of these elements must have the type string.
– The “PostalCodeResponse” element must contain only the postal code as a string and this element must not have any child elements. Which of the following XML schemas fulfills the requirements while also following the instructions?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
300-209 dumps Answer: C

300-209 dumps

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps

The network associate is configuring OSPF on the Core router. All the connections to the branches should be participating in OSPF. The link to the ISP should NOT participate in OSPF and should only be advertised as the default route. What set of commands will properly configure the Core router?
A. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
B. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.13 0.0.0.242 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
C. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.16 0.0.0.15 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
D. Core(config-router)# default-information originate Core(config-router)# network 10.10.2.32 0.0.0.31 area 0 Core(config-router)# exit Core(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
200-105 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
There are two ways to inject a default route into a normal area.1. If the ASBR already has the default route in its routing table, you can advertise theexisting 0.0.0.0/0 into the OSPF domain with th
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps

Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?
A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.
C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1.
D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.128, and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks.
E. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation/Reference:
First, notice that the more-specific routes will always be favored over less-specific routes regardless of the administrative distance set for a protocol. In this case, because we use OSPF for three
QUESTION 3
Scenario Refer to the topology. Your company has connected the routers R1. R2. and R3 with serial links. R2 and R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2, respectively. SW1 and SW2 are also connected to the routers R4 and R5. The EIGRP routing protocol is configured. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers. Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
200-105 dumps

200-105 dumps

200-105 dumps

200-105 dumps200-105 dumps

Which path does traffic take from R1 to R5?
A. The traffic goes through R2.
B. The traffic goes through R3.
C. The traffic is equally load-balanced over R2 and R3.
D. The traffic is unequally load-balanced over R2 and R3.
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?
A. 0000.5E00.01A3
B. 0007.B400.AE01
C. 0000.0C07.AC15
D. 0007.5E00.B301
Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which identification number is valid for an extended ACL?
A. 1
B. 64
C. 99
D. 100
E. 299
F. 1099
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows andquot;PVC STATUS = INACTIVEandquot;. What does this mean?
A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes.
B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address of the remote router.
C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger a call to the remote router.
D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC.
E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.
200-105 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The PVC STATUS displays the status of the PVC. The DCE device creates and sends the report to the DTE devices. There are 4 statuses: ACTIVE: the PVC is operational and can transmit dataI
QUESTION 8
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
200-105 exam Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation/Reference:
Each packet that is forwarded within a router or switch is examined for a set of IP packet attributes. These attributes are
the IP packet identity or fingerprint of the packet and determine if the
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps

A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the
problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
Whenever a node needs to send data to another node on a network, it must first know where to send it. If the node cannot directly connect to the destination node, it has to send it via other nodes a

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Exam Code: 70-246
Exam Name: Monitoring and Operating a Private Cloud with System Center 2012
Q&As: 153

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Question: 1
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) infrastructure. You create a host group named HostGroup1. You move several Hyper-V hosts to HostGroup1. You plan to manage Windows updates for the hosts in HostGroup1 by using VMM. An administrator creates a baseline as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-246 dumps

You discover that the updates defined in the baseline are not applied to the hosts in HostGroup1. You need to ensure that the required updates are deployed to the hosts in HostGroup1. What should you do?
A. Copy the required updates to the VMM library server.
B. Synchronize the Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server.
C. Modify the properties of HostGroup1.
D. Modify the properties of the baseline.
70-246 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
You can see from the exhibit, the baseline the administrator created is not applied. To apply a baseline, you modify the properties of the baseline to select the hosts and groups. Source information: How to Configure Update Baselines in VMM VMM provides two sample built-in updates baselines that you can use to apply security updates and critical updates to the computers in your VMM environment. Before you can use a baseline, you must assign it to host groups, host clusters, or individual managed computers. The following procedure explains how to assign computers to the sample security baseline. To assign computers to a built-in update baseline Open the Library workspace. On the Library pane, expand Update Catalog and Baselines, and then click Update Baselines. The Baselines pane displays the two built-in baselines: Sample Baseline for Security Updates and
Sample Baseline for Critical Updates. On the Baselines pane, click Sample Baseline for Security Updates. On the Home page, in the Properties group, click Properties. The Properties dialog box for the Sample Baseline for Security Updates opens. Note On the left of the dialog box, click Updates to open the Updates page. On the Updates page, optionally add or remove update baselines from the baselines that are listed. The Sample Baseline for Security Updates includes all security updates. To ensure that all security
updates are remediated, do not remove any baselines. Click Assignment Scope to open the Assignment Scope page and then, select host groups, host clusters, and computers to add to the baseline. Computers are represented by the roles they perform in VMM. When you select a role, such as VMM server, all the roles that the computer performs in VMM are selected. For example, if your VMM management server is also a library server, selecting your VMM management server under VMM Server causes the same computer under Library Servers to be selected. To apply a baseline to all hosts, select the All Hosts root host group. Click OK to save your changes.
Question: 2
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The Service Manager management server is installed on a server named Server1. The Configuration Manager site server is installed on a server named Server2. You create a baseline and several configuration items. You need to configure Service Manager to create incidents for each Service Manager configuration item that is non-complaint with the baseline. What should you create?
A. a task and a Desired Configuration Management Event Workflow
B. a channel and a subscription
C. a connector and a Desired Configuration Management Event Workflow
D. a subscription, a connector, and a task
Answer: C
Explanation:
A connector is required to bring data from Configuration Manager into Service Manager. From there, you create a Desired Configuration management Event Workflow. Using Connectors to Import Data into System Center 2012 – Service Manager
 Question: 3
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The network contains 50 virtual machines that run Windows 7. Each virtual machine has an application named Appl.exe installed. A new version of Appl.exe is released. You need to identify which virtual machines have the outdated version of App1.exe installed. What should you do?
A. From Operations Manager, create a monitor.
B. From Configuration Manager, deploy a Desired Configuration Management baseline.
C. From Service Manager, create a Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) connector.
D. From Virtual Machine Manager (VMM), deploy a service template.
70-246 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
Desired configuration management in Configuration Manager 2007 allows you to assess the compliance of computers with regard to a number of configurations, such as whether the correct Microsoft Windows operating system versions are installed and configured appropriately, whether all required applications are installed and configured correctly, whether optional applications are configured appropriately, and whether prohibited applications are installed. Additionally, you can check for compliance with software updates and security settings.
Question: 4
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. You deploy Data Protection Manager (DPM) to a server named DPM1. A server named Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed and hosts a virtual machine named VM1. From DPM1, you perform a full backup of Server1. You discover that you are unable to restore individual files from VM1. You need to ensure that you can restore individual files from VM1 by using the DPM Administrator console. What should you do first?
A. On VM1, install Windows Server Backup.
B. On DPM1, attach the VHD of VM1.
C. On DPM1, install the Hyper-V server role.
D. On VM1, install the integration features.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In either case, DPM utilizes the Hyper-V VSS writer to synchronize block-level differences within the VHDs using a process called an “Express Full”, which identifies which blocks have changed in the entire VHD and then sends just the updated blocks or fragments. This provides a complete and consistent image of the virtual hard disk files on the DPM server or appliance. DPM maintains up to  512 shadow copies of the full VHD set by storing only the block-level differences between any two images.

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Exam Code: 700-172
Exam Name: FlexPod Sales
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION NO: 1
You work as a Network Auditor for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. While auditing the company’s network, you are facing problems in searching the faults and other entities that belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?
A. Residual risk
B. Secondary risk
C. Detection risk
D. Inherent risk
700-172 exam Answer: C
Explanation: Detection risks are the risks that an auditor will not be able to find what they are looking to detect. Hence, it becomes tedious to report negative results when material conditions (faults) actually exist. Detection risk includes two types of risk: Sampling risk: This risk occurs when an auditor falsely accepts or erroneously rejects an audit sample. Nonsampling risk: This risk occurs when an auditor fails to detect a condition because of not applying the appropriate procedure or using procedures inconsistent with the audit objectives (detection faults). Answer: A is incorrect. Residual risk is the risk or danger of an action or an event, a method or a (technical) process that, although being abreast with science, still conceives these dangers, even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied (scientifically conceivable measures). The formula to calculate residual risk is (inherent risk) x (control risk) where inherent risk is (threats vulnerability). In the economic context, residual means “the quantity left over at the end of a process; a remainder”. Answer: D is incorrect. Inherent risk, in auditing, is the risk that the account
or section being audited is materially misstated without considering internal controls due to error or fraud. The assessment of inherent risk depends on the professional judgment of the auditor, and it is done after assessing the business environment of the entity being audited. Answer: B is incorrect. A secondary risk is a risk that arises as a straight consequence of implementing a risk response. The secondary risk is an outcome of dealing with the original risk. Secondary risks are not as rigorous or important as primary risks, but can turn out to be so if not estimated and planned properly.
QUESTION NO: 2
The National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP) is the
minimum standard process for the certification and accreditation of computer and telecommunications systems that handle U.S. national security information. Which of the following participants are required in a NIACAP security assessment? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Certification agent
B. Designated Approving Authority
C. IS program manager
D. Information Assurance Manager
E. User representative
700-172 dumps Answer: A,B,C,E
Explanation: The NIACAP roles are nearly the same as the DITSCAP roles. Four minimum
participants (roles) are required to perform a NIACAP security assessment: IS program manager:
The IS program manager is the primary authorization advocate. He is responsible for the
Information Systems (IS) throughout the life cycle of the system development. Designated
Approving Authority (DAA): The Designated Approving Authority (DAA), in the United States Department of Defense, is the official with the authority to formally assume responsibility for operating a system at an acceptable level of risk. Certification agent: The certification agent is also referred to as the certifier. He provides the technical expertise to conduct the certification throughout the system life cycle. User representative: The user representative focuses on system availability, access, integrity, functionality, performance, and confidentiality in a Certification and Accreditation (C&A) process. Answer: D is incorrect. Information Assurance Manager (IAM) is one of the key participants in the DIACAP process.
QUESTION NO: 3 DRAG DROP
Drop the appropriate value to complete the formula.
Answer:
Explanation:
A Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the value in dollar ($) that is assigned to a single event. The SLE can be calculated by the following formula: SLE = Asset Value ($) X Exposure Factor (EF) The Exposure Factor (EF) represents the % of assets loss caused by a threat. The EF is required to calculate the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE). The Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) can be calculated by multiplying the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) with the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) X Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) is a number that represents the estimated frequency in which a threat is expected to occur. It is calculated based upon the probability of the event occurring and the number of employees that could make that event occur.
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following penetration testing techniques automatically tests every phone line in an exchange and tries to locate modems that are attached to the network?
A. Demon dialing
B. Sniffing
C. Social engineering
D. Dumpster diving
700-172 pdf Answer: A
Explanation: The demon dialing technique automatically tests every phone line in an exchange and tries to locate modems that are attached to the network. Information about these modems can then be used to attempt external unauthorized access. Answer: B is incorrect. In sniffing, a protocol analyzer is used to capture data packets that are later decoded to collect information such as passwords or infrastructure configurations. Answer: D is incorrect. Dumpster diving technique is used for searching paper disposal areas for unshredded or otherwise improperly disposed-of reports. Answer: C is incorrect. Social engineering is the most commonly used technique of all, getting information (like passwords) just by asking for them.

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION: 148
The project manager calculated a schedule performance index of 0.8 and a cost performance index of 1.1 for the project. What is the actual status of this project?
A. Behind schedule and over budget
B. Behind schedule and under budget
C. Ahead of schedule and under budget
D. Ahead of schedule and over budget
200-155 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 149
EAC (estimate at complete) is typically based on actual cost (AC) for work completed plus an ETC (estimate to complete) the remaining work. Which of the following is a valid formula for calculating EAC?
A. EAC = AC + [(BAC-EV) / (Cumulative CPI * Cumulative SPI)]
B. EAC = BAC – AC
C. EAC = 1 – CPI
D. EAC = EV + [1 – (Cumulative CPI * Cumulative SPI) / BAC]
Answer: A
QUESTION: 150
Which of the following equations is used to calculate schedule variance?
A. EV/PV
B. PV/EV
C. EV-PV
D. PV-EV
200-155 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 151
Which tool and technique uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate estimates?
A. Analogous estimating
B. Three-point estimates
C. Parametric estimating
D. Bottom-up estimating
Answer: C
QUESTION: 152
Which of the following equations is used to calculate cost variance?
A. EV-AC
B. AC-EV
C. AC+EV
D. AC/EV
200-155 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 153
Given the following values, what is the calculated expected activity cost (CE) when using PERT?
CO = $7,000
CM = $10,500
CP = $11,000
A. $ 4,750
B. $ 9,500
C. $10,000
D. $11,500
Answer: C
QUESTION: 154
What is the expected activity cost for a project having a most likely cost of $140, a best case scenario of $115, and a worst case scenario of $165?
A. $115
B. $138
C. $140
D. $165
200-155 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 155
What does a SPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?
A. More work was completed than planned
B. Less work was completed than planned
C. Cost overrun for completed work has occurred
D. Cost underrun for completed work has occurred
Answer: A
QUESTION: 156
Total funding requirements and periodic funding requirements are derived from:
A. funding limit reconciliation
B. scope baseline
C. activity cost estimates.
D. cost baseline.
200-155 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 157
What is the status of the project whose data is shown in the following S-curve?
A. Under budget and ahead of schedule
B. Over budget and behind schedule
C. Over budget and ahead of schedule
D. Under budget and behind schedule
Answer: B
QUESTION: 158
If the earned value (EV) is $1000, actual cost (AC) is $800, and planned value (PV) is $1500, what would be the cost performance index (CPI)?
A. 0.66
B. 0.8
C. 1.25
D. 1.5
200-155 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 159
Control Charts, Flowcharting, Histograms, Pareto Charts, Scatter Diagrams are tools and techniques of what process?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Quality Planning
D. Performance Reporting
Answer: A
QUESTION: 160
Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes and
procedures?
A. Scope audits
B. Scope reviews
C. Quality audits
D. Control chart
200-155 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 161
What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?
A. Control chart
B. Flowchart
C. Run chart
D. Pareto chart
Answer: B
QUESTION: 162
Which tool and technique of quality planning involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?
A. Histogram
B. Quality audits
C. Benchmarking
D. Performance measurement analysis
200-155 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 163
In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?
A. Scope Management
B. Time Management
C. Communications Management
D. Quality Management
Answer: D
QUESTION: 164
What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?
A. Quality metrics
B. Less rework
C. Quality control measurements
D. Benchmarking
200-155 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 165
What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence
specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?
A. Failure modes and effects analysis
B. Design of experiments
C. Quality checklist
D. Risk analysis
Answer: B
QUESTION: 166
What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?
A. Scope
B. Quality
C. Specification
D. Grade
200-155 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 167
Which of the following provides a basis for assessing project performance?
A. Profitability and impact matrix
B. Expert judgment
C. Benchmarking
D. Risk categorization
Answer: C
QUESTION: 168
Regardless of style, what information is shown in a process flowchart?
A. Actions, decision points, and process drivers
B. Activities, decision points, and the order of processing
C. Activities, process drivers, and the order of processing
D. Actions, decision points, and activities
200-155 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 169
Which quality assurance tool and technique confirms the implementation of approved change requests, corrective actions, defect repairs, and preventive actions?
A. Quality checklists
B. Quality metrics
C. Quality audits
D. Process analysis
Answer: C
QUESTION: 170
Which tool or technique uses the 80/20 principle?
A. Pareto chart
B. Cause and effect diagrams
C. Control charts
D. Flowcharting
200-155 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 171
What is a cost of nonconformance?
A. Rework
B. Inspections
C. Training
D. Testing
Answer: A
QUESTION: 172
What is included in a control chart?
A. Baseline
B. Planned value
C. Upper specification limit
D. Expenditure
200-155 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 173
What tool and technique includes all costs incurred over the life of a product by investment in preventing nonconformance to requirements?
A. Cost of quality
B. Measure of design
C. Statistical control
D. Systematic analysis
Answer: A
QUESTION: 174
In a control chart, the consecutive measurements are 11, 13, 09, 07, 08, 09, 09, 09, 08, and 12. For the entire process, the goal is 10 and the standard deviation is 1. For this data set, it is correct to say that the process:
A. is under control.
B. is out of control.
C. has an increasing trend.
D. has a decreasing trend.
200-155 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 175
In which tool and technique is it possible to find a correlation between dependent and
independent variables?
A. Fishbone diagram
B. Control chart
C. Run chart
D. Scatter diagram
Answer: D
QUESTION: 176
A project manager arranges for project specific training for the new team members. Under
which category does this cost fall?
A. Appraisal
B. Internal failure
C. External failure
D. Prevention
200-155 pdf Answer: D

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION NO: 74
You work as a Network Administrator for InformSec Inc. You find that the TCP port number 23476 is open on your server. You suspect that there may be a Trojan named Donald Dick installed on your server. Now you want to verify whether Donald Dick is installed on it or not. For this, you want to know the process running on port 23476, as well as the process id, process name, and the path of the process on your server. Which of the following applications will you most likely use to accomplish the task?
A. Tripwire
B. SubSeven
C. Netstat
D. Fport
210-260 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 75
Which of the following password cracking attacks is based on a pre-calculated hash table to retrieve plain text passwords?
A. Rainbow attack
B. Brute Force attack
C. Dictionary attack
D. Hybrid attack
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 76
Which of the following attacks is specially used for cracking a password?
A. PING attack
B. Dictionary attack
C. Vulnerability attack
D. DoS attack
210-260 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 77
You run the following bash script in Linux: for i in ‘cat hostlist.txt’ ;do nc -q 2 -v $i 80 < request.txt done Where, hostlist.txt file contains the list of IP addresses and request.txt is the output file. Which of the following tasks do you want to perform by running this script?
A. You want to put nmap in the listen mode to the hosts given in the IP address list.
B. You want to perform banner grabbing to the hosts given in the IP address list.
C. You want to perform port scanning to the hosts given in the IP address list.
D. You want to transfer file hostlist.txt to the hosts given in the IP address list.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 78
The Klez worm is a mass-mailing worm that exploits a vulnerability to open an executable
attachment even in Microsoft Outlook’s preview pane. The Klez worm gathers email addresses from the entries of the default Windows Address Book (WAB). Which of the following registry values can be used to identify this worm?
A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\RunServices
B. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run
C. HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\WAB\WAB4\Wab File Name = “file and pathname of the WAB file”
D. HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run
210-260 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 79
John, a part-time hacker, has accessed in unauthorized way to the www.yourbank.com banking Website and stolen the bank account information of its users and their credit card numbers by using the SQL injection attack. Now, John wants to sell this information to malicious person Mark and make a deal to get a good amount of money. Since, he does not want to send the hacked information in the clear text format to Mark; he decides to send information in hidden text. For this, he takes a steganography tool and hides the information in ASCII text by appending whitespace to the end of lines and encrypts the hidden information by using the IDEA encryption algorithm. Which of the following tools is John using for steganography?
A. Image Hide
B. 2Mosaic
C. Snow.exe
D. Netcat
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 80
Which of the following DoS attacks affects mostly Windows computers by sending corrupt UDP packets?
A. Fraggle
B. Ping flood
C. Bonk
D. Smurf
210-260 vce Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 81
Who are the primary victims of smurf attacks on the contemporary Internet system?
A. IRC servers are the primary victims to smurf attacks
B. FTP servers are the primary victims to smurf attacks
C. SMTP servers are the primary victims to smurf attacks
D. Mail servers are the primary victims to smurf attacks
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 82
Which of the following tools can be used for stress testing of a Web server? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Internet bots
B. Scripts
C. Anti-virus software
D. Spyware
210-260 exam Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 83
An attacker sends a large number of packets to a target computer that causes denial of service. Which of the following type of attacks is this?
A. Spoofing
B. Snooping
C. Phishing
D. Flooding
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 84
Which of the following statements about a Trojan horse are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a macro or script that attaches itself to a file or template.
B. The writers of a Trojan horse can use it later to gain unauthorized access to a computer.
C. It is a malicious software program code that resembles another normal program.
D. It infects the boot record on hard disks and floppy disks.
210-260 dumps Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 85
Which of the following tools is an automated tool that is used to implement SQL injections and to retrieve data from Web server databases?
A. Fragroute
B. Absinthe
C. Stick
D. ADMutate
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 86
You run the following command while using Nikto Web scanner: perl nikto.pl -h 192.168.0.1 -p 443 What action do you want to perform?
A. Using it as a proxy server
B. Updating Nikto
C. Seting Nikto for network sniffing
D. Port scanning
210-260 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 87
Which of the following tools can be used to perform brute force attack on a remote database? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. SQLBF
B. SQLDict
C. FindSA
D. nmap
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 88 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. is the practice of monitoring and potentially restricting the flow of information outbound from one network to another
Answer: Egress filtering
QUESTION NO: 89
Which of the following commands can be used for port scanning?
A. nc -t
B. nc -z
C. nc -w
D. nc -g
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 90
Which of the following tools can be used for steganography? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Image hide
B. Stegbreak
C. Snow.exe
D. Anti-x
210-260 exam Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 91
Which of the following Denial-of-Service (DoS) attacks employ IP fragmentation mechanism? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Land attack
B. SYN flood attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Ping of Death attack
Answer: C,D
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION NO: 38
Which statement is true about portals in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. Conditional formatting can be applied to a portal row.
B. An OnObjectEnter script trigger applied to a portal will activate once for each portal row as a  user tabs from field to field across rows.
C. A portal set with only a bottom anchor containing fields set with only a top anchor will increase
row height as the layout is expanded vertically.
D. Records in a portal can become unsorted if the developer unchecks “Keep records in sorted order” in the Portal Setup > Sort Records dialog.
E. If there are multiple portals on a layout, the Go to Portal Row [First] script step will activate the portal closest to the top left corner of the layout.
300-135 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
The text field productCode has a script trigger set to activate OnObjectKeystroke and runs the following script:
If [Length (File::productCode) > 7]
Exit Script [Result: 0]
Else
Set Field [File::productCode; File::productCode & “-“]
End If The field productCode has the value of 12-1415. A user types a 6 in the field at the end of the value. What is the resulting value in the field after the script trigger has processed?
A. 12-1415
B. 12-1415-
C. 12-14156
D. 12-14156-
E. 12-1415-6
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40 Which two statements are true if a layout is configured with an OnRecordLoad script trigger enabled in both Browse and Find modes? (Choose two.)
A. It will be activated by entering Find mode.
B. It will be activated by creating a new window.
C. It will be activated when records are imported.
D. It will not be activated while switching records in Table view.
300-135 dumps Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
Which default layout theme will be chosen by FileMaker Pro 12 for layouts automatically created when a new table is added to the file?
A. The theme of the most recently edited layout
B. The theme of the most recently viewed layout
C. The theme of the most recently created layout
D. The Classic theme of the Basic theme group
E. The Cool theme of the Classic Refined theme group
F. The Cool Gray theme of the FileMaker Millennium theme group
Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
Which statement is true about the sort order of data in portals in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. The sort setting applied to the portal in Layout mode can only include fields from the portal’s table.
B. If the relationship that defines the portal’s record set includes a Sort records setting, unindexed fields in the sort setting will be ignored.
C. If the relationship that defines the portal’s record set includes a Sort records setting, any sort setting applied to the portal in Layout mode will be ignored.
D. If there are multiple sorted relationships defined between the layout’s table occurrence and the portal’s table occurrence, the portal records will be sorted based upon the relationship closest to the portal’s table occurrence.
E. If there are multiple sorted relationships defined between the layout’s table occurrence and the portal’s table occurrence, the portal records will combine the Sort records settings of all of those relationships, sub-sorting by the relationships closest to the portal’s table occurrence.
300-135 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 43
A layout contains a portal that is based on a relationship configured to allow creation of related records. The portal object has the name Porta1_1. Which technique can be used to navigate to a field in the empty row at the end of Portal_1?
A. use the Go To Field script step targeting the field in the desired portal, then use the Go
ToPortal Row [Last] script step
B. assuming a field in the desired portal is in the tab order, use the arrow keys to activate the portal, then tab to the desired row and field
C. use the Go to Object [Object Name: “Portal_1”] script step, followed by the script step Go to Portal Row [Select; Last]
D. use the Go To Portal [Portal_1] script step, followed by the Go To Portal Row [Last] script step and the Go To Field script step targeting the desired field
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
Given the following Relationships Graph for a FileMaker Pro 12 database, where Employee,
Manager, and Trainer are all table occurrences sharing the same source table:
The database has the following layout based on the Trainer table occurrence:
If a developer modifies the layout to be based on the Manager table occurrence instead of Trainer, what happens to the data that is displayed?
A. The trainer’s name, phone, and address fields will no longer display data, and the portal will show all employees related to the manager record.
B. The trainer’s name, phone, and address fields will change to show the manager’s data, and the portal shows all employees related to the manager record.
C. The trainer’s name, phone, and address fields will change to show the manager’s data, but the portal will need to be edited to Show related records from: the Manager table occurrence as well.
D. The name, phone, and address fields will now show data for the first related trainer of the first class of the first employee of the current manager, and the portal will show all employees related to the manager record.
E. The name, phone, and address fields will now show data for the first related trainer of the first class of the first employee of the current manager, and the portal will show all employees that have been enrolled in that trainer’s
300-135 vce Answer: D
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 1Y0-A20
Exam Name: Citrix XenApp 6.5 Administration
Q&As: 116

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QUESTION 1
An administrator needs to install a XenApp 6.5 server to act as an additional dedicated data collector.
After installing XenApp on the new server, the next step is to configure it by enabling the __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. Session-host mode only
B. Controller and Session-host modes
C. data collector and XML Broker host mode
D. data collector and XTE Service host mode
1Y0-A20 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Scenario: An administrator manages a XenApp 6.5 farm with one zone. All servers in the zone have identical hardware and software. The zone is configured with
a primary data collector with a preference of Most Preferred and a backup data collector with a preference of Preferred. All other XenApp servers in the zone have
a preference of Not Preferred.
If both the primary and backup zone data collectors are turned off, the XenApp server in the zone that will be elected the new primary zone data collector is the
one __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. with the lowest Host ID number
B. with the highest Host ID number
C. that responds last to the election request
D. that responds first to the election request
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Scenario: A XenApp administrator must recommend a database 1Y0-A20 dumps option for the new XenApp 6.5 data store. The new farm will have more than 100 XenApp servers and 500 published resources, support more than 5,000 concurrent users and have two zones separated by a WAN connection.
Which two database options should the administrator recommend? (Choose two.)
A. IBM DB2 9.7
B. Oracle Enterprise 11.1
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
D. Microsoft SQL Server Express 2008
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 4
Scenario: A XenApp administrator must recommend a database option for a new XenApp 6.5 data store. The new farm will have multiple zones over WAN
connections with low bandwidth and high latency.
Which two database options should the administrator recommend? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 Express
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 Express R2
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5
Scenario: The administrator of a XenApp Enterprise Edition server farm is configuring Single Sign-on for the users of the farm. The Citrix license server was
installed with the default vendor daemon and console Web port numbers, but NOT the default license server port number.
Of the port numbers that are in use in the XenApp server farm, which one should the administrator specify for the license server during Single Sign-on
configuration?
A. 443
B. 7279
C. 8082
D. 27009
1Y0-A20 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Scenario: The administrator of a small XenApp server farm has configured end-to-end data encryption between the XenApp servers and user devices by setting
up Access Gateway VPX. Session Reliability is enabled in the farm with default settings.
Over which port will published applications be delivered?
A. 80
B. 443
C. 1494
D. 2598
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which Citrix service should an administrator monitor when troubleshooting issues with Session Reliability?
A. IMA
B. XML
C. XTE
D. MFCom
1Y0-A20 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator is hired to implement a new XenApp server farm in an existing network. Because of the existing network security practices, the
administrator has to separate the Citrix license server from the XenApp server farm with a firewall.
Which two ports should the administrator ask the network security team to configure on the firewall to allow the XenApp servers to contact the Citrix license
server? (Choose two.)
A. 2512
B. 2513
C. 7279
D. 8082
E. 27000
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 9
Scenario: An administrator is hired to implement a new XenApp server farm in an existing network. The administrator needs to manage the Citrix license server,
which is located behind a firewall.
Which port should the administrator ask the network security team to configure on the firewall to allow the administrator to manage the license server?
A. 135
B. 2513
C. 7279
D. 8082
E. 27000
1Y0-A20 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Scenario: An administrator recently configured Session Reliability on a XenApp server which delivers one published application to 20 users on the local network.
After configuring Session Reliability, the administrator ran Microsoft TCPView to monitor a service that Session Reliability uses. The administrator notices that
users are connecting to the published application on port 443 but NOT on the default Session Reliability port. The administrator verified that Session Reliability is
configured and working.
Which two reasons explain why the users are connecting to the published application on port 443? (Choose two.)
A. SSL/TLS is enabled in the published application’s properties.
B. Data encryption has been enabled using the SSL Relay Configuration tool.
C. A policy is enabled to encrypt the session data between the server and user devices.
D. The published application is configured to allow connections made through Access Gateway Advanced Edition.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
An administrator needs to ensure that new XenApp servers are automatically added to worker groups. When creating a worker group, which two options could the administrator select to meet the requirements of the scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Application Folder
B. Local Security Group
C. XenApp Farm Server Group
D. Active Directory Server Group
E. Active Directory Organizational Unit
1Y0-A20 dumps Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 12
Scenario: An administrator manages a XenApp farm that uses Citrix Provisioning Services to automate the addition of XenApp servers to the farm. The
administrator must implement a solution to automate the addition of new servers to the published resources, load evaluators, Citrix policies and load balancing
policies.
Which two should the administrator configure to meet the requirements of the scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Zones
B. Policies
C. Worker groups
D. Load evaluators
Correct Answer: BC

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