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Exam Code: 70-414
Exam Name: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
Updated: Sep 17, 2017
Q&As: 243

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QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a solution that meets the technical requirements for DHCP.
What should you include in the recommendation for each office?
A. DHCP failover
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. DHCP server policies
D. IP Address Management (IPAM)
70-414 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution for updating the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the
visualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Cluster-Aware Updating
B. WSUS
C. System Center Updates Publisher 2011
D. System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that the developers can manage their own virtual machines.
Solution: You perform the following 70-414 dumps tasks:
In Virtual Machine Manager, you create a new user role named DevUsers that uses
the Application Administrator profile.
You add the virtual machines to the DevUsers role.
You grant Checkpoint permissions to the DevUsers role.
You install and configure App Controller.
You distribute the App Controller console URL to the developers.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You plan to configure Windows Network Load Balancing (NLB) for a company. You
display following Network Load Balancing Manager window:
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Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question
based on the information presented in the graphic.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You need to implement VM-SQLclusterl.contoso.com.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
70-414 pdf actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 6
You need to automatically restart the appropriate web service on DETCRL01 and
CHICRL01 if the web service is stopped. Solution: You create a diagnostic task in SCOM and configure it to start the Server service. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You currently have an intranet web site that is hosted by two Web servers named Web1
and Web2. Web1 and Web2 run Windows Server 2012. Users use the name intranet.contoso.com to request the web site and use DNS round robin.
You plan to implement the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on Web1 and Web2.
You need to recommend changes to the DNS records for the planned implementation.
What should you recommend?
A. Delete one of the host (A) records named Intranet. Modify the remaining host (A)
record named Intranet.
B. Delete both host (A) records named Intranet. Create a pointer (PTR) record for each
Web server.
C. Create a new host (A) record named Intranet. Remove both host (A) records for Web1
and Web2.
D. Create a service locator (SRV) record. Map the SRV record to Intranet.
70-414 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
You need to recommend changes to the existing environment to meet the PII requirement.
What should you recommend?
A. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from ProsewareCA.
B. Create an AD RMS cluster in Proseware, and then provision the user accounts in Proseware for the
Fabrikam users.
C. Configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) in Fabrikam, and then install a web application
proxy in Proseware.
D. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from FabrikamCA.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a network 70-414 exam configuration for the newly deployed Hyper-V hosts used by Customer1. On which network adapter should you recommend performing each configuration? To answer, select the appropriate network adapter for each configuration in the answer area.
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QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a solution to maintain a copy of App2. The solution must meet the application requirements and must minimize additional hardware purchases. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Single-site Failover Clustering
B. Hyper-V replicas
C. Multi-site Failover Clustering
D. Distributed File System (DFS) Replication
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used in the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the 70-414 dumps security requirements.
What should you recommend?
A. A scale-out file server that uses an NFS share
B. A file server that uses an SMB share
C. A scale-out file server that uses an SMB share
D. A file server that uses an NFS share
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
You install the Service Manager Self-Service Portal on a server named CONTOSOSSP1.
Users report that they receive access denied messages when they try to connect to the portal. You must grant users the minimum required permissions. You need to ensure that all users in the Contoso domain can access the Service Manager Self-Service Portal.
What should you do?

A. In Active Directory, create a new group named PortalUsers. Add the PortalUsers group to the Contoso \Domain Users group, and then add the group to the local users group on CONTOSOSSP1.
B. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Service portal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Read permissions to the portal.
C. In Service Manager, create a new user role named PortalUsers. Grant the PortalUsers role rights to all catalog items, and then add the Contoso\Domain Users Active Directory Domain Services group to the
PortalUsers role.
D. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Serviceportal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Contribute permissions to the portal.
70-414 pdf Correct Answer: D

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[2017 Microsoft Dumps Video] Download Latest Release Microsoft 70-695 Dumps MCSE Exam Training on Youtube Covers All Key Points (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 70-695
Exam Name: Deploying Windows Desktops and Enterprise Applications
Updated: Sep 15, 2017
Q&As: 95

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QUESTION 17
Click the exhibit button.
What can you deduce from the show command on router R6?
A. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment. The DR for this segment would be the router with router ID 10.10.10.5.
B. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment; however, this command does not indicate whether 10.10.10.3 or 10.10.10.5 is the DR or BDR.
C. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is the BDR, which is why it is not adjacent to the other routers.
D. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment. The DR for this segment would be the router with router ID 10.10.10.3.
70-695 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Click the exhibit button.
In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. How many type 4 LSAs will be present in the network?
A. One.
B. One for each of the routers in area 0
C. One for each of the external routes exported by router R1.
D. Type 4 LSAs are not generated in this network topology.
70-695 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Which of the following conditions will prevent an OSPF adjacency from reaching the full state? Choose three answers.
A. MTU mismatch
B. Incorrect subnet mask
C. System interface not included in OSPF
D. Area ID not the same
E. Different metric set on each end of the link
F. Router ID not defined
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 20
Click the exhibit button.
The following command sequence is executed on router R2:
A: R2# configure router ospf router-id 10.10.10.99
A: R2# configure router router-id 10.10.10.66
On router R1, what router ID appears for router R2 directly after these commands are executed?
A. 10.10.10.99
B. 10.10.10.66
C. 10.10.10.2
D. 10.10.10.1
70-695 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
In an OSPF Hello packet, which of the following fields must match for all neighbor routers on the segment?
Choose three answers.
A. Area ID W B.
B. Hello and Dead intervals PC.
C. Stub flag
D. Checksum values
E. The list of neighbors
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 22
Click the exhibit button.
The OSPF adjacency between routers R3 and R1 is down. What is the problem?
A. Area 1 of router R1 should not be configured as a stub.
B. Router R3 has the incorrect authentication key type.
C. Router R1 has the incorrect authentication key type.
D. There is not enough information to tell.

70-695 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Click the exhibit button.
Given the topology and the show commands, and assuming that router R2 advertises all of its loopbacks
into OSPF, what is the correct router R1 configuration?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
In which of the following types of areas does an OSPF router not set the E bit in its Type 1 LSA?
A. Not so stubby area
B. Stub area
C. Backbone area
D. Normal area
70-695 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Click the exhibit button.
In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. Which of the following statements regarding the OSPF LSAs in the network is true?
A. Router R1 generates a type 5 LSA that is flooded through all OSPF areas.
B. Router R1 generates a type 7 LSA that is flooded through all OSPF areas.
C. Router R1 generates a type 5 LSA that is flooded through area 1. Router R2 generates a type 7 LSA that is flooded through areas 0 and 2.
D. Router R1 generates a type 7 LSA that is flooded through area 1. Router R3 generates a type 5 LSA that is flooded through areas 0 and 2.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
What is the protocol number for OSPF in the IP header?
A. OSPF uses TCP, so the protocol number is 6.
B. OSPF uses UDP, so the protocol number is 17.
C. OSPF does not use IP.
D. OSPF has its own protocol number of 89.
70-695 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Click the exhibit button.
Which of the following would correctly configure routers R2, R3, and R4?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
When are virtual links used in OSPF?
A. When two areas need to communicate and there is no area 0.
B. When an area needs to traverse another area to reach area 0.
C. When two areas are connected to area 0, but there is no direct path between them.
D. When an area needs to connect directly to another area without using area 0.
70-695 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements regarding area border routers in an OSPF network is true?
A. The term backbone router has the same definition as the term area border router.
B. An OSPF network needs at least one area border router to function.
C. Area border routers connect the backbone area to other areas in an OSPF network.

D. By definition, an area border router must perform route summarization between areas.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which of the following correctly lists the 5 OSPF packet types?
A. Hello, link state update, link state packet, link State acknowledgement, database description.
B. Link state update, link state refresh, link state acknowledgement, database description, notification.
C. Hello, link state refresh, link state update, link state acknowledgement, link state authentication.
D. Hello, link state update, link state request, link state acknowledgement, database description.
70-695 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
Which of the following OSPF area types are supported by the Alcatel- Lucent 7750 SR? Choose two
answers.
A. Not so stubby areas
B. Level1 area WC
C. Stub areas
D. Partially stubby areas
E. Level 2 areas
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 32
If OSPF is used in a multi-area OSPF network, which of the following statements regarding route summarization is true?
A. Manual route summarization can only be done on autonomous system border routers.
B. Manual route summarization must be done on all the backbone routers to be effective. Manual route
summarization is optional on the routers in non-backbone areas.
C. Manual route summarization is done on the ABRs. By default, automatic summarization is done;
however, it may not be optimal for all networks.
D. Manual route summarization is done on the ABRs. By default, no route summarization is done and all
routes are advertised to all areas.
70-695 exam Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Sep 06, 2017
Q&As: 503

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QUESTION 25
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. You view the properties of VM1 as shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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You need to configure bandwidth management for VM1. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:

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70-410 exam Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1. Server1 runs 70-410 dumps Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed. You create two IPv4 scopes on Server1. The scopes are configured as shown in the following table.

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The DHCP clients in Subnet_Tor can connect to the client computers in Subnet_Mtl by using an IP address or a FQDN. You discover that the DHCP clients in Subnet_Mtl can connect to client computers in Subnet_Tor by using an IP address only. You need to ensure that the DHCP clients in both subnets can connect to any other DHCP client by using a FQDN.
What should you add?
A. The 015 DNS Domain Name option to Subnet_Mtl
B. The 015 DNS Domain Name option to Subnet_Tor
C. The 006 DNS Servers option to Subnet_Mtl
D. The 006 DNS Servers option to Subnet_Tor
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1. The domain contains a standalone server named Server2 that is located in a perimeter
network. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to manage Server2 remotely from Server1.
What should you do?
A. From Server2, run the Enable-PsRemoting cmdlet.
B. From Server1, run the winrni command.
C. From Server2, run the winrm command.
D. From Server1, run the Enable-PsRemoting cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
A printer named Printer1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) 70-410 dumps

To answer, complete each statement according to the information presented in the exhibit. Each correct selection is worth one point.

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70-410 pdf Hot Area:
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Question: 12
Given the following SAS statement:
%let idcode = Prod567;
Which one of the following statements stores the value 567 in the macro variable CODENUM?
A. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-2);
B. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-3);
C. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-2);
D. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-3);
Answer: C
Question: 13
The following SAS program is submitted:
data new (bufsize = 6144 bufno = 4);
set old;
run;
Which one of the following describes the difference between the usage of BUFSIZE= and
BUFNO= options?

A. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the input buffer in bytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of
input buffers.
B. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in bytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of
output buffers.
C. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in kilobytes; BUFNO= specifies the number
of input buffers.
D. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in kilobytes; BUFNO= specifies the number
of output buffers.
70-410 vce Answer: B
Question: 14
Consider the following SAS log:
229 data sasuser.ranch sasuser.condo / view = sasuser.ranch;
230 set sasuser.houses;
231 if style = ‘RANCH’ then output sasuser.ranch;
232 else if style = ‘CONDO’ then output sasuser.condo;
233 run;
NOTE: DATA STEP view saved on file SASUSER.RANCH.
NOTE: A stored DATA STEP view cannot run under a different operating system.
234
235 proc print data = sasuser.condo;
ERROR: File SASUSER.CONDO.DATA does not exist.
236 run;
NOTE: The SAS System stopped processing this step because of errors.
Which one of the following explains why the PRINT procedure fails?
A. SASUSER.CONDO is a stored DATA step program.
B. A SAS data file and SAS data view cannot be created in the same DATA step.
C. A second VIEW=SASUSER.CONDO option was omitted on the DATA statement.
D. The view SASUSER.RANCH must be processed before SASUSER.CONDO is created.
Answer: D
Question: 15
Which one of the following is an advantage of creating and using a SAS DATA step view?
A. It can store an index.
B. It always accesses the most current data.
C. It works quickly through multiple passes of the data.
D. It is useful when the underlying data file structure changes.
70-410 exam Answer: B
Question: 16
Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO
YEAR QTR BUDGET YEAR QTR SALES
—————————— —————————-
2001 3 500 2001 4 300

2001 4 400 2002 1 600
2002 1 700
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select one.*, sales
from one, two;
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
——————————————
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
B. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
———————————————
2001 3 500 .
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
C. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
—————————————–
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
D. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
——————————————
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 300
2001 3 500 600
2001 4 400 600
2002 1 700 600
Answer: D
Question: 17
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
NUM VAR
——————
1 A
2 B
3 C
Which one of the following SQL programs deletes the SAS data set ONE?
A. proc sql;
delete table one;
quit;
B. proc sql;
alter table one
drop num, var;
quit;

C. proc sql;
drop table one;
quit;
D. proc sql;
delete from one;
quit;
Answer: C
Question: 18
Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO
YEAR QTR BUDGET YEAR QTR SALES
——————————- ———————————
2001 3 500 2001 4 300
2001 4 400 2002 1 600
2002 1 700
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select one.*, sales
from one, two
where one.year = two.year;
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
———————————————————
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
B. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
———————————————————-
2001 3 500 .
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
C. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
————————————————————
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 600
D. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
————————————————————
2001 3 500 300
2001 4 400 300
2002 1 700 300
2001 3 500 600
2001 4 400 600
2002 1 700 600
70-410 dumps Answer: C
Question: 19
The SAS data set TEMP has the following distribution of values for variable A:
A Frequency
1 500,000
2 500,000
6 7,000,000
8 3,000
Which one of the following SAS programs requires the least CPU time to be processed?
A. data new;
set temp;
if a = 8 then
b = ‘Small ‘;
else if a in(1, 2) then
b = ‘Medium’;
else if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large’;
run;
B. data new;
set temp;
if a in (1, 2) then
b = ‘Medium’;
else if a = 8 then
b = ‘Small’;
else if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large’;
run;
C. data new;
set temp;
if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large ‘;
else if a in (1, 2) then
b = ‘Medium’;
else if a = 8 then
b = ‘Small’;
D. data new;
set temp;
if a = 6 then
b = ‘Large ‘;
if a in (1, 2) then
b = ‘Small’;
run;
Answer: C
Question: 20
The following SAS program is submitted:
%let value = 9;
%let value2 = 5;
%let newval = %eval(&value / &value2);
Which one of the following is the resulting value of the macro variable NEWVAL?
A. 1
B. 2

C. 1.8
D. null
Answer: A
Question: 21
The following SAS program is submitted:
%let lib = %upcase(sasuser);
proc sql;
select nvar
from dictionary.tables
where libname = “&lib”;
quit;
Given that several SAS data sets exist in the SASUSER library, which one of the following is
generated as output?
A. no result set
B. a syntax error in the log
C. a report showing the names of each table in SASUSER
D. a report showing the number of columns in each table in SASUSER
70-410 pdf Answer: D
Question: 22
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
GROUP SUM
————————-
A 765
B 123
C 564
The following SAS program is submitted:
data _null_;
set one;
call symput(group,sum);
run;
Which one of the following is the result when the program finishes execution?
A. Macro variable C has a value of 564.
B. Macro variable C has a value of 1452.
C. Macro variable GROUP has a value of 564.
D. Macro variable GROUP has a value of 1452.
Answer: A
Question: 23
The SAS data set ONE consists of five million observations and has 25 variables. Which one of
the following SAS programs successfully creates three new variables TOTREV, TOTCOST, and
PROFIT and requires the least CPU time to be processed?
A. data two;
set one;

totrev = sum(price * quantity);
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
if totrev > 1000;
run;
B. data two;
set one;
totrev = sum(price * quantity);
if totrev > 1000;
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
run;
C. data two;
set one;
totrev = sum(price * quantity);
where totrev > 1000;
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
run;
D. data two;
set one;
where totrev > 1000;
totrev = sum(price * quantity);
totcost = sum(fixed,variable);
profit = sum(totrev,otcost);
run;
70-410 vce Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Aug 25, 2017
Q&As: 230

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Question No : 23 – (Topic 1)
You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to retrieve product
data from two different sources. One source is hosted in a SQL Azure database. Each
source contains products for different distributors. Products for each distributor source must be combined for insertion into a single product table destination. You need to select the appropriate data flow transformation to meet this requirement. Which transformation types should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Multicast
B. Merge Join
C. Term Extraction
D. union All
E. Merge
70-463 exam 
Answer: D,E

Question No : 24 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)
You are developing a data flow to load sales data into a fact table. In the data flow, you configure a Lookup Transformation in full cache mode to look up the product data for the sale.The lookup source for the product data is contained in two tables. You need to set the data source for the lookup to be a query that combines the two tables. Which page of the Lookup Transformation Editor should you select to configure the query? To answer, select the appropriate page in the answer area.
70-463 dumps
Answer:
70-463 dumps

Question No : 25 – (Topic 1)
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.You need to design a package to change a variable value during package execution by using the least amount of development effort. What should you use?
A. Expression task
B. Script task
C. Execute SQL task
D. Execute Process task
E. Term Extraction transformation
70-463 dumps Answer: A
Reference:

Question No : 26 – (Topic 1) You are using SQL Server Data Tools to develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS)
project.The first package that you create in this project contains a package connection that accesses a flat file. Additional packages in the project must also access this file. You need to define and reuse the flat file connection in all project packages. What should you do?
A. Convert the package Connection Manager in the first package to a project Connection
Manager.
B. Copy the package Connection Manager and paste it into the second package.
C. Convert the project to the Package Deployment model.
D. Set the ProtectionLevel property of the package Connection Manager to
DontSaveSensitive to reuse the flat file connection.
Answer: A

Question No : 27 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
A Data Flow task in a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package produces run-time errors. You need to edit the package to log specific error messages. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.) 70-463 pdf
70-463 dumps

Question No : 28 – (Topic 1)
You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that uses the Fuzzy Lookup transformation. The reference data to be used in the transformation does not change.You need to reuse the Fuzzy Lookup match index to increase performance and reduce maintenance. What should you do?
A. Select the GenerateAndPersistNewIndex option in the Fuzzy Lookup Transformation
Editor.
B. Select the GenerateNewIndex option in the Fuzzy Lookup Transformation Editor.
C. Select the DropExistingMatchlndex option in the Fuzzy Lookup Transformation Editor.
D. Execute the sp_FuzzyLookupTableMaintenanceUninstall stored procedure.
E. Execute the sp_FuzzyLookupTableMaintenanceInvoke stored procedure.
Answer: A

Question No : 29 – (Topic 1)
You are using a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project that is stored in the SSIS catalog. An Environment has been defined in the SSIS catalog. You need to add the Environment to the project.
Which stored procedure should you use?
A. catalog.set_environment_reference_type
B. catalog.set_environment_property
C. catalog.create_environment_reference
D. catalog.create_environment
70-463 vce Answer: C

Question No : 30 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data
into a data warehouse. You are developing the part of the SSIS package that populates the
ProjectDates dimension table.
The business key of the ProjectDates table is the ProjectName column. The business user
has given you the dimensional attribute behavior for each of the four columns in the
ProjectDates table:
ExpectedStartDate – New values should be tracked over time.
ActualStartDate – New values should not be accepted.
ExpectedEndDate – New values should replace existing values.
ActualEndDate – New values should be tracked over time.
You use the SSIS Slowly Changing Dimension Transformation.
You must configure the Change Type value for each source column.
Which settings should you select? (To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in
the answer area. Each Change Type may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)
70-463 dumps

Question No : 31 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. The package moves
order-related data to a staging table named Order. Every night the staging data is truncated
and then all the recent orders from the online store database are inserted into the staging
table. Your package must meet the following requirements: If the truncate operation fails, the package execution must stop and report an error. If the Data Flow task that moves the data to the staging table fails, the entire
refresh operation must be rolled back. For auditing purposes, a log entry must be entered in a SQL log table after each
execution of the Data Flow task.The TransactionOption property for the package is set to Required. You need to design the package to meet the requirements.How should you design the control flow for the package? (To 70-463 dumps answer, drag the appropriate
setting from the list of settings to the correct location or locations in the answer area.)
70-463 dumps

Question No : 32 – (Topic 1)
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data
into a data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure.The package uses a Foreach container to process text files found in a folder. The package must be deployed to a single server by using the Project Deployment model. Multiple SQL Server Agent jobs call the package. Each job is executed on a different schedule. Each job passes a different folder path to the package.
You need to configure the package to accept the folder path from each job.
Which package configuration should you use?
A. .dtsConfig file
B. Registry Entry
C. Environment Variable
D. Parent Package Variable
E. XML Configuration File
70-463 exam Answer: C
Reference:

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[2017 Cisco Dumps Video] New Updated Cisco CCIE Exam (v5.0) 400-251 Dumps Security Written Exam Questions Vce Latest Version PDF&VCE (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 400-251
Exam Name: Cisco CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0)
Updated: Aug 26, 2017
Q&As: 452

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Following Cisco 400-251 Dumps 452QAs Are All New Published By Pass4itsure:

QUESTION: 1
You are creating a style sheet to format the pages on your company’s Web site.
One section will have a black background with white text. What is the
hexadecimal reference you would use to specify the text color for this portion
of the Web page?
A. “white”
B. #000000
C. #FFFFFF
D. “255, 255, 255”
400-251 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 2
Which of the following statements about virtualization is true?
A. Virtualization enables multiple physical computers to run off of a single
virtualized server.
B. In virtualization, you run multiple virtual machines, provided they all use the
same operating system.
C. In virtualization, the operating systems of the virtual machines should match
the host operating system.
D. Virtualization enables you to run multiple operating systems and
applications on a single computer.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 3
Which line of code instructs the browser to look for a directory named my site
that begins one level higher than the page you are currently viewing?
A. mysite/index.html
B. /mysite/index.html
C. . ./mysite/index.html
D. http://www.mysite.com/index.Html
400-251 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 4
A user is submitting data from a form on your Web page to a database using a
CCI script. Which attribute of the form field elements organizes the user’s
information into name=value pairs?
A. Name
B. Form
C. Value
D. Method
Answer: A
QUESTION: 5
Which is the preferred approach to communicate important action items in an
e-mail message to a co-worker?
A. Write the action items using all capital letters.
B. List the action items in a numbered or bulleted list for clarity.
C. Include emoticons to ensure the recipient understands your humor.
D. Describe all action items at length in a detailed paragraph in the middle of
the message.
400-251 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 6
Digital signatures verify the integrity of the data, verify the identity of the
sender, and:
A. Provide data confidentiality.
B. Enforce non-repudiation.
C. Sign digital certificate requests.
D. Create certificate requests.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 7
Gwen works for a small company where she has been asked to find a cost
effective option for providing comprehensive customer service. The finance,
technical support, sales and customer service departments all need to share
information about their customers. Gwen is considering adoption of a customer
relationship management (CRM) application. Which of the following would be
the most cost-effective solution?
A. She can purchase a new server, then create and maintain the CRM in-house.
B. She can outsource all customer service so the company can focus on product
development.
C. She can contract with a cloud service provider to host the CRM that her
company’s employees can access.
D. She can hire a programmer to develop and maintain the CRM specific to her
company’s needs, then have a service provider host the application.
400-251 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 8
Which of the following is used to help non-technical users collectively classify
and find information on a site?
A. Tagging
B. A wiki
C. Web feed
D. Ajax
Answer: A
QUESTION: 9
Sally is a network technician at Acme Corporation. She has been directed to
configure the network adapter for a company laptop so that it can be used to
connect to the company network and the Internet. What is one of the required
TCP/IP settings that she will need to configure?
A. MAC address
B. Default gateway
C. Workstation name
D. Loopback address

400-251 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 10
Web pages structured with which tag will fail W3C validation tests, no matter
what standard is used?
A. <d iv> B.
<table> C.
<header> D.
<aside>
Answer: B
QUESTION: 11
Consider the following address:
http://www.ClWcertified .com/Certifications/Web_Foundations/iba.php
Which of the following is the best classification for the address?
A. Fully qualified domain name
B. Virtual domain name
C. Relative URL
D. Deep URL
400-251 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 12
Consider the following HTML5 code:

The code does not validate as HTML5. Why?
A. The <article> tag is missing.
B. The <meta> tag and its attributes are missing.
C. The <blockquote> tag should be used outside the <p> tags.
D. The !DQCTYPE declaration is missing a reference to the Document Type
Definition (DTD).
Answer: C
QUESTION: 13
You received a text and a threatening voicemail from an angry customer who
wants to immediately discuss the shortcomings of a recently released product.
You are about to walk into a mandatory meeting with your top-level leadership
team. Which of the following is your best course of action?
A. Continue to send text messages to the customer hoping to smooth things
over until you can call him on the phone after your meeting.
B. Request that the customer send his complaints by e-mail, knowing
that any inappropriate communication will be well documented.
C. Do not respond to the customer.
D. Skip the meeting and call the customer.
400-251 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 14
Which of the following is a security threat commonly associated with cloud
based services?
A. Malware
B. Phishing
C. Hypervisor vulnerabilities
D. Operating system vulnerabilities
Answer: C
QUESTION: 15
Configuring a wireless network involves several steps. Which of the following
is a task that should be performed to configure and connect to a wireless
network?
A. Configure a certificate authority and configure the trust settings.
B. Configure the wireless AP’s SSID, encryption level and shared key.
C. Connect your computer to the same network hub as the wireless AP.
D. Connect your computer to the same network switch as the wireless AP.
400-251 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 16
You are modifying an existing Web page that needs to validate as HTML5
code. To create a rectangular hotspot in an image map that links to
www.xyz.com, which code would you nest inside the <map> </map> container
tags?
A. <area shape=“rectangle” coords=“7S. 0. 156. 75”
href=“http://www.xyz.com” alt=“xyz” />
B. <area shape=“rectangle” coords=“78, 0. 156, 75” href=“www.xyz.com”
alt=“xyz” />
C. <area shape=“rect” coords=“78, 0, 156. 75” href=“http://www.xyz.com”
alt=“xyz” />
D. <area shape=“rect” coords=“78. 0. 156, 75” href=http://www.xyz.com />
Answer: C
QUESTION: 17
Which of the following strategies is recommended when conducting keyword
searches?
A. Use nouns instead of verbs for keywords.
B. Use verbs instead of nouns for keywords.
C. Use as few keywords as possible.
D. Include at least one preposition such as “the” or “an” in your list of
keywords.
400-251 exam Answer: A

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[2017 Cisco Dumps Video From Google Drive]Helpful CCIE Data Center 400-151 Dumps Exam Demo Download Is Your Best Choice

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Exam Code: 400-151
Exam Name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam v2.0
Updated: Aug 14, 2017
Q&As: 232

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Following Cisco 400-151 Dumps 232QAs Are All New Published By Pass4itsure:

QUESTION 1:
Telecommunications is:
A. The use of a telephone or similar equipment for voice communication.
B. The practice of transporting a signal, often through a switch, typically using voice
communications technology.
C. Communications at a distance.
D. The designing of a telephone network calling area.
400-151 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 2:
Cellular subscribers represent:
A. Only 5 percent of the total voice users.
B. The largest growth in absolute numbers over the last decade.
C. A declining segment of the telecommunications market.
D. The most exciting area of Internet access innovation.
Answer: B
QUESTION 3:
CPE is:
A. Owned by the ILEC.
B. Owned by a CLEC.
C. Owned or leased by the end user.
D. Provided by the IXC.
400-151 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 4:
The public switched telephone network (PSTN) is defined by:
A. Direct trunk access to the called party.
B. Private leased lines.
C. Long-distance connection.
D. Dial-up access
Answer: D

QUESTION 5:
The point of demarcation divides:
A. The central office from the network.
B. Network responsibility and subscriber responsibility.
C. Local networks and long-distance networks.
D. IXC POP switch and CO switch.
400-151 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 6:
A connection between a phone and a switch is called a:
A. T1.
B. Trunk.
C. Line.
D. Wire.
Answer: C
QUESTION 7:
A trunk is:
A. A T1.
B. A connection between a key system and a switch.
C. A connection between two switches.
D. A connection between a switch and a STP.
400-151 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 8:
The three parts of the PSTN are switching, access, and:
A. CPE.
B. PBX.
C. Trunking.
D. Transmission.
Answer: D
QUESTION 9:
Universal service and interconnection are goals of:
A. IXCs.
B. Public policy in the United States.
C. The FCC.
D. Congress.
400-151 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 10:
The MFJ:
A. Deregulated PBXs.
B. Deregulated premise wiring.
C. Created the RBOCs.
D. Created the Bell System.
Answer: C
QUESTION 11:
Commercial long distance telephony began in:
A. 1938.
B. 1811.
C. 1881.
D. 1876.
400-151 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 12:
The transistor, stored program control, and digital technologies enabled:
A. The Internet.
B. Universal service.
C. Deregulation of telecommunications.
D. International calling.
Answer: B
QUESTION 13:
Which of the following technologies are changing our view of telecommunications?
A. Transistor, computers, and fiber optics
B. Satellite and submarine technology
C. Computers and communications
D. Cell and PCS phones, and the Web browser
400-151 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 14:
A telephone is called a:
A. Station set.
B. Message oriented device.
C. Key device.
D. Simple port.
Answer: A
QUESTION 15:
An in-band signal used by station sets is:
A. Loop start.
B. TT, or DTMF.
C. Rotary dial.
D. E&M.
400-151 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 16:
The CO switch provides power for:
A. Analog station sets.
B. Digital station sets.
C. Tie lines.
D. Key service units.
Answer: A
QUESTION 17:
Call appearance buttons allow the management of multiple:
A. Calls.
B. Station sets

C. Display colors.
D. Analog modems
400-151 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 18:
DC signaling is used by analog sets for:
A. In-band signaling.
B. Supervisory signaling.
C. Ringing.
D. Touchtone signaling
Answer: C
QUESTION 19:
A few lines serve multiple users using a:
A. PBX.
B. CO switch.
C. Multiplexer.
D. Key system.
400-151 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 20:
An 8 by 4 key system would have:
A. Eight lines.
B. Eight trunks.
C. Eight stations.
D. Four stations.
Answer: C
QUESTION 21:
In a key system, direct access means:
A. Callers can access an outside line.
B. Callers access an outside line using “dial 9.”
C. Callers access an outside line without using an attendant.
D. Callers access an outside by pressing a button.

400-151 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 22:
The device that controls the operation of the key telephone system is called:
A. Central control.
B. A call processor.
C. A key service unit.
D. The system controller.
Answer: C
QUESTION 23:
Hold, Drop, Transfer, and ________ are the “big four” features.
A. Split.
B. Camp on.
C. Announce.
D. Conference
400-151 vce Answer:
QUESTION 24:
In a PBX environment, dialing 9 normally provides:
A. Outside access.
B. Conferencing.
C. Tie line access.
D. Long distance access.
Answer:
QUESTION 25:
A PBX is:
A. A switch.
B. A simplified line sharing device.
C. An analog multiplexer.
D. Owned by the telco.
400-151 exam Answer: A

QUESTION 26:
A PBX can provide multiple:
A. Billing systems.
B. Entry points.
C. Trunk groups.
D. Power supplies
Answer: C
QUESTION 27:
A PBX can select the most economical trunk group using:
A. Translations.
B. Least cost routing.
C. Automatic selection lists.
D. Account code routing.
400-151 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 28:
Tie trunks are not switched by:
A. The telco.
B. The PBX.
C. The premise switch.
D. Using LCR.
Answer: A
QUESTION 29:
Direct Inward Dialing uses:
A. Key system lines.
B. Loop start functionality.
C. Digital key systems.
D. Trunks.
400-151 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION 30:
An OPX is:
A. An outside party line.
B. A station set on a different premise than the PBX.
C. An outside priority extension call.
D. Onside parameter exchange.
Answer: C
QUESTION 31:
If you want to track the cost of long distance calls, the feature you use is called:
A. SMDR
B. CAR
C. LLCR
D. LCR
400-151 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 32:
The LEC service that provides PBX like features from the LEC switch is:
A. Centrex.
B. SMDR.
C. Off-premise extensions.
D. Off-premise switching.
Answer: A
QUESTION 33:
The three applications of Centrex are PBX replacement, full featured business line,
and:
A. Resale.
B. Data switching.
C. Centralized attendant switching.
D. Trunking.
400-151 exam Answer: A

QUESTION 34:
Flat rate local service is:
A. Mileage sensitive.
B. Timed.
C. Fixed rate per month.
D. Priced per zone called.
Answer: C
QUESTION 35:
A call outside of the local calling area but within the LATA is called:
A. A dial round call.
B. An IXC call.
C. A local toll call.
D. An interLATA call.
400-151 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 36:
Flat rate toll is:
A. Mileage sensitive.
B. A fixed price per month.
C. Provided by LECs only.
D. Charge by the minute.
Answer: D

QUESTION 37:
The number of trunk circuit cards is reduced in the PBX by using:
A. Combined function cards.
B. Off premise extensions.
C. Digital station sets.
D. Integrated T carrier trunking.
400-151 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 38:
An outdial trunk is normally accessed by:
A. The attendant.
B. Tie lines.
C. Dialing 9.
D. System administrators.
Answer: C
QUESTION 39:
If a PBX has only one trunk group to the CO, it is most likely a:
A. DID group.
B. Outdial group.
C. Combo group.
D. T carrier trunk.
400-151 vce Answer: C

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