[2018 Cisco Dumps Video] Most Popular Cisco 300-165 Dumps DCII Exam Video Certification Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure

Is Cisco 300-165 dumps is free? The Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (300-165 DCII) exam is a 90 minutes (55 – 65 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNP Data Center certification. Most popular Cisco 300-165 dumps DCII exam video certification Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure. “Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 300-165 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 300-165 exam. Our Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-165.html dumps preparation product is absolutely perfect for candidates who are in need of putting their careers on the top gear or in need of providing the brightest future for themselves.

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300-165 dumps

Following Cisco 300-165 Dumps 187QAs Are All New Published By Pass4itsure
Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
300-165 exam Correct Answer: D
If Bob wanted to create a Management High Availability configuration, what is the minimum number of Security Management servers required in order to achieve his goal?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One
Correct Answer: D
David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool would David use to accomplish his goal?
A. Smart Provisioning
B. Smart Blade
C. Smart Dashboard
D. Smart LSM
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: B
From the following output of cphaprob state, which Cluster XL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Correct Answer: D
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Cluster XL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all Cluster XL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization

D. Transparent upgrades
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: C
In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing – Unicast
B. Load Balancing – Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing – Multicast
Correct Answer: C
You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an HTTP rule with a weight of 40, and the Default Rule with a weight of 10. If the only traffic passing through your QoS Module is HTTP traffic, what percent of bandwidth will be allocated to the HTTP traffic?
A. 80%
B. 40%
C. 100%
D. 50%
300-165 vce Correct Answer: C
You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What command will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unload local
Correct Answer: D
How do you verify the Check Point kernel running on a firewall?
A. fw ctl get kernel
B. fw ctl pstat
C. fw kernel
D. fw ver -k
300-165 exam Correct Answer: D
The process ________________ compiles $FWDIR/conf/*.W files into machine language.
A. fw gen
B. cpd
C. fwd
D. fwm
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following is NOT part of the policy installation process?
A. Code compilation
B. Code generation
C. Initiation
D. Validation
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: D
When, during policy installation, does the atomic load task run?
A. It is the first task during policy installation.
B. It is the last task during policy installation.
C. Before CPD runs on the Gateway.
D. Immediately after fwm load runs on the Smart Center.
Correct Answer: B
What process is responsible for transferring the policy file from Smart Center to the Gateway?
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: D
What firewall kernel table stores information about port allocations for Hide NAT connections?
A. NAT_dst_any_list
B. host_ip_addrs
C. NAT_src_any_list
D. fwx_alloc
Correct Answer: D
Where do you define NAT properties so that NAT is performed either client side or server side?
A. In Smart Dashboard under Gateway setting
B. In Smart Dashboard under Global Properties > NAT definition
C. In Smart Dashboard in the NAT Rules
D. In file $DFWDIR/lib/table.def
300-165 vce Correct Answer: B
The process ___________ is responsible for all other security server processes run on the Gateway.

Correct Answer: A
The process ________ is responsible for GUI Client communication with the Smart Center.
300-165 exam Correct Answer: B
The process ________ is responsible for Policy compilation.
B. Fwcmp
Correct Answer: A
The process ________ is responsible for Management High Availability synchronization.
C. Fwsync
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: B
_________ is the called process that starts when opening Smart View Tracker application.
A. logtrackerd
B. fwlogd
Correct Answer: C
Anytime a client initiates a connection to a server, the firewall kernel signals the FWD process using a trap. FWD spawns the ________ child service, which runs the security server.
C. In.httpd
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: D
Security server configuration settings are stored in _______________ .
A. $FWDIR/conf/AMT.conf

B. $FWDIR/conf/fwrl.conf
C. $FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf
D. $FWDIR/conf/fwopsec.conf
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from running on-demand reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
300-165 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 24 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You want to add another Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports Job Server service. Using the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager, which three tasks must you perform? (Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B, C, D
QUESTION 25 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central Management Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
300-165 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 26 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server? (Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION 27 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups? (Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
300-165 dumps Answer: B, C
QUESTION 28 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space required for the drive holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB

C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C
QUESTION 29 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
300-165 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 30 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter (WCA)? (Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A, B
QUESTION 31 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from the initial Install type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
300-165 vce Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION 32 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal Reports Job Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A
QUESTION 33 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes scheduled List of Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
300-165 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 34 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of the Desktop

Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A
QUESTION 35 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server take when the Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
300-165 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 36 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A, C, D, E
QUESTION 37 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
300-165 pdf Answer: A, B, C, E
QUESTION 38 You are configuring a SQL Server database restore job.You want the restore operation to roll back any uncommitted transactions.Which Recovery Completion State option should you use?
A.Leave torn page repairs offline.
B.Leave database read-only and able to restore additional transaction logs.
C.Leave database operational.No additional transaction logs can be restored.
D.Leave database non-operational, but able to restore additional transaction logs.
Answer: C
QUESTION 39 What is one disadvantage of performing both full and incremental Exchange Server backups every day?
A.High media usage
B.More recovery points
C.Short restore window
D.Corruption detection during offline backups
300-165 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 40 When you configure the Agent for Open Files, what do you select to determine how the agent detects if an open file is ready to be backed up by the backup client?
A.Sync method B.Timing
option C.Execution delay
D.Compare/restore priority
Answer: A
QUESTION 41 Which option is a database level or global level backup method for SQL Server databases?
300-165 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 42 In the Job Status Manager, jobs can display various statuses on the Job Queue tab.Examples of valid statuses include: (Choose three)
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION 43 If you configure the Windows client agent to use System Security:
A.The client agent runs under the local system account.
B.The client agent impersonates the administrator at all times.
C.The system enables you to set individual passwords for security.
D.The backup, compare, and restore operations are performed under Windows security.

300-165 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 44 Which information can you obtain using CA ARCserve Backup storage resource management (SRM) reports?
A.Deduplication benefits B.Processor
architecture and speed C.Status of your
virtualized environments
D.Media having encrypted or unencrypted sessions
Answer: B
QUESTION 45 You have media containing a backup session that is not included in the CA ARCserve Backup database.To get the media information into the database, which utility should you use?
A.Copy Utility
B.Merge Utility
C.Diagnostic Utility
D.Media Assure & Scan utility
300-165 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 46 You want to enable a Backup Operator and a Restore Operator to operate jobs submitted by any operator.Which CA ARCserve Backup extended permission should you select?
A.Job Operations
B.Submit Job Options
C.Security Administrator
D.Ownership Checking Exemption Privilege
Answer: D
QUESTION 47 If you need to read and restore blocks of data quickly by bypassing the file system, which restore method should you use?
A.Restore by Backup Media
B.Recover Virtual Machine
C.Restore by Image
D.Restore by Tree
300-165 vce Answer: C

300-165 dumps

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