best preparation method to pass the Cisco 300-165 exam, latest Cisco 300-165 exam dumps

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Cisco 300-165 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Assuming hello PDU authentication has been disabled, which command re-enables the feature on a FabricPath
interface?
A. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication-type cleartext
B. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication-type md5
C. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication check
D. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis hello-interval
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement about SNMP support on Cisco Nexus switches is true?
A. SNMP requires the LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKG license.
B. SNMP is not VRF-aware.
C. Only users belonging to the network operator RBAC role can assign SNMP groups.
D. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per VDC.
E. Cisco NX-OS only supports SNMP over IPv4.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
When implementing Cisco Adapter FEX, which setting on the virtual interface card on the Cisco UCS C-Series Server
must be configured?
A. uplink failover
B. PXE boot
C. network interface virtualization
D. VM-FEX
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Scenario
The following four questions concern the Nexus 7010\\’s which are configured as a vPC pair at the core of a Data
Center network. You can utilize all the available show commands to answer the questions. Access to the running-
configuration is
not allowed.
Instructions
Enter NX-OS commands on 7K-3 and 7K-4 to verify network operation and answer four multiple-choice questions.
THIS TASK DOES NOT REQUIRE DEVICE CONFIGURATION.
Click on the switch to gain access to the console of the switch. No console or enable passwords are required.
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next
button.

pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q4 pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q4-1

Within the vpc configuration of the 7K\\’s, the command peer-switch is configured.
What is the result of enabling this command?
A. Both vPC peers use the same STP root ID
B. The vPC primary switch (7K-4 in this case) also serves as the STP root to improve vPC convergence
C. The vPC secondary switch (7K-3 in this case) serves as the STP root to improve vPC performance
D. Allows 7K-3 to act as the active HSRP gateway for packets that are addressed to the MAC address of 7K-4
E. Automatically disables IP redirects on all interface VLANs mapped over a vPC VLAN to avoid generation of IP
redirect messages for packets switched through the vPC peer gateway router
F. Enables faster convergence of ARP tables after the vPC peer link flaps
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is implementing a new network design that includes a port channel to connect an MDS
core switch and an NPV switch. Which two Fibre Channel port types must be used to create Fibre Channel port
channel? (Choose two.)

pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q5

A. N Port
B. NP Port
C. F Port
D. E Port
E. TL Port
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/4_1/configuration/guides/cli_4_1/clibook/pc.html


QUESTION 6
Drag and drop the VXLAN protocol characteristic from the left onto the benefit it provides on the right.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
A Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switch suffers a supervisor failure. Which statement is true regarding Cisco NSF
functionality?
A. The line cards are reloaded.
B. The neighbouring routers do not participate in Cisco NSF.
C. The Cisco Express Forwarding cache is pruned.
D. Layer 3 reconvergence does not occur.
E. Cisco NSF can be deployed with RPR+.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum IPv6 unicast route memory allocated?pass4itsure 300-165 exam question q8

A. 4 MB
B. 8 MB
C. 1024 MB
D. 1 GB
E. 5 MB
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which two items are required components of VN-Link in software? (Choose two.)
A. VDC
B. VEM
C. vPC
D. VSM
E. VRRP
Correct Answer: BD
The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series consists of two main types of components that can virtually emulate a 66-slot modular
Ethernet switch with redundant supervisor functions:
Virtual Ethernet module (VEM)-data plane: This lightweight software component runs inside the hypervisor. It enables
advanced networking and security features, performs switching between directly attached virtual machines, provides
uplink capabilities to the rest of the network, and effectively replaces the vSwitch. Each hypervisor is embedded with
one VEM.
Virtual supervisor module (VSM)-control plane: This standalone, external, physical or virtual appliance is responsible for
the configuration, management, monitoring, and diagnostics of the overall Cisco Nexus 1000V Series system (that is,
the combination of the VSM itself and all the VEMs it controls) as well as the integration with VMware vCenter. A single
VSM can manage up to 64 VEMs. VSMs can be deployed in an active-standby model, helping ensure high availability.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmware-vsphere/white_paper_c11-525307.html

 

QUESTION 10
Which statement regarding the implementation of Fibre Channel domain IDs is true?
A. They are assigned on a per-switch basis.
B. They must be unique on all of the Fibre Channel switches in the fabric.
C. They are assigned on a per-line card basis.
D. They must be the same on all of the Fibre Channel switches in the fabric.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Fibre Channel IDs are dynamically assigned to which objects?
A. Cisco Fabric Services packets
B. WWPNs
C. FSPF packets
D. FEXs
E. VSANs
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 12
Which standard has Cisco used to implement VM-FEX?
A. IEEE 802.1BR
B. IEEE 802.1Qbb
C. IEEE 802.1Qaz
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. IEEE 802.1x
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
You configure STP on a switch that is attached to a Cisco FabricPath domain and that has the vPC feature deployed.
How do you configure STP on the switch in the Cisco FabricPath domain on VLAN 10?
A. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 0
B. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 8192 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 4096
C. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 8192
D. switch(config)# spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0 switch(config)# spanning-tree pseudo-information switch(config-
pseudo)# vlan 10 root priority 4096
Correct Answer: B
Note that it is fine to use the spanning-tree priority command and the spanning-tree pseudo-information command
together, but the root priority in the pseudo-information needs to be a lower value (higher priority) than the spanning-tree
priority to make sure that the remaining working Cisco FabricPath switch is sending a superior BPDU with the common
FabricPath bridge ID and the configured spanning-tree pseudo-information priority and remains at the spanning-tree
root. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/white_paper_c07-728188.pdf page 44

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The latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-170 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
A system administrator checks the endpoint database and discovers MAC addresses that belong to inactive local
nodes. Which description of the retention of the MAC addresses for the local hosts is true?
A. After five minutes of inactivity, the hosts are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
B. The local database is cleared only when the leaf reboots.
C. The leaf sends three ARP requests to the hosts after an aging period. If the switch receives no response, the hosts
are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
D. After 30 minutes of inactivity, the hosts are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Which two options are purposes of a device package? (Choose two.)
A. to identify a set of network or service functions required by the application
B. to provide a leaf and spine devices with operating systems and firmware
C. to provide a Cisco APIC with information about device specifics
D. to render the services required by a graph
E. to manage a class of service devices
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://webcache.googleusercontent.com/search?q=cache:sbj6aGf31j0J:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/d
ocs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/L4-L7_Services_Deployment/guide/b_L4L7_Deploy_ver211/
b_L4L7_Deploy_ver211_chapter_011pdf+andcd=1andhl=enandct=clnkandgl=inandclient=firefox-b-ab

 

QUESTION 3
You deploy AVS for Virtual Machine Manager integration and you add a host that has five VMNICs. You must use
VXLAN to maximize the load balancing of the traffic inside the fabric. How many VMKNICs must you add?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Why should you configure DHCP relay for Virtual Machine Manager integration?
A. to create VTEP VMK interfaces on each host for the OpFlex control channel
B. to provide IP addresses to ESXi hosts
C. to provide IP addresses to virtual hosts through the VXLAN infrastructure
D. to ensure that virtual hosts have the same address when they are moved by using VMware vMotion
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/white-paper-c11-738412.pdf

 

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco technology addresses management and performance concerns in a data center by unifying physical and
virtual switch management?
A. VSD
B. SVM
C. VM-FEX
D. AVS
Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/interfaces-modules/ucs-m81kr-virtual-interface-card/white_paper_c11-618838.pdf

 

QUESTION 6
A system administrator checks the endpoint database and discovers MAC addresses that belong to inactive local
nodes. Which description of the retention of the MAC addresses for the local nodes is true?
A. After five minutes, the inactive nodes are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
B. The local database if cleared only when the leaf reboots.
C. The leaf sends three ARP requests after an aging period. The MAC addresses are stored to the local endpoint
database as long as the devices respond to the requests
D. After 15 minutes, the inactive nodes are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
Which two methods does a Cisco APIC support to connect to the management IP address of a service appliance?
(Choose two.)
A. out-of-band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the management VLAN
B. in-band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the VRF of the tenant
C. out-of-band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the VRF of the tenant
D. out-of-band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the management VRF of the tenant
E. in-band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the management VRF of the tenant
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 8

pass4itsure 300-170 exam question q8

Refer to the exhibit. Which description of the configuration of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch is true?
A. VSM connects to the VMware vCenter server
B. Mgmt0 is a Layer 2 interface
C. SVS mode is set to L3.
D. Packet VLAN is a private VLAN
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
When you perform a task in the Cisco APIC GUI, the GUI creates and sends internal API messages to the operating
system to exclude the task. Which ACI tool enables you to view and copy the API messages?
A. SPAN
B. Postman
C. syslog
D. API Inspector
E. SNMP
F. EPG Listener
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-x/GSG/b_APIC_Getting_Started_Guide_Rel_2_x/b_APIC_Getting_Started_Guide_Rel_2_x_chapter_011.html

 

QUESTION 10

pass4itsure 300-170 exam question q10

Refer to the exhibit. Which result occurs when a user without a role attempts to log into the fabric?
A. The user is denied access.
B. The user is assigned to the local domain.
C. The user is assigned to a default role.
D. The user is authenticated by using TACACS.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
You are performing VMM integration between ACI and VMware with vDS. You place a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect
between the leaf and the ESXi hosts running on UCS-B series. Which is a valid configuration if using VMM integration
with “On Demand” resolution?
A. In the interface policy group, disable LLDP, enable Cisco Discovery Protocol, and then select MAC pinning on the
Fabric Interconnects.
B. In the interface policy, enable LLDP, Cisco Discovery Protocol, and LACP.
C. In the interface policy group, disable LLDP, disable Cisco Discovery Protocol, and then select active in the LACP
policy
D. Configure LLDP, Cisco Discovery Protocol, and LACP policies under global policies to match the interface policies.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
You have a Cisco Nexus device that is configured to use a RADIUS server. What occurs when local RBAC user account
and RADIUS roles exist simultaneously?
A. Only rules that are in local roles and the radius roles are applied
B. Rules from local account and radius account are merged
C. Only rules from local are applied
D. Only rules from Radius are applied
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Which Layer 3 protocol is used within the ACI fabric?
A. OperFlow
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. IS-IS
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1.Which one of the following choices lists the four steps of interaction with a database?
A.Connect, Read, Write, Disconnect
B.Connect, Send a command, Write, Disconnect
C.Connect, Query, Read/Write, Disconnect
D.Connect, Send a command, Display results, Disconnect
300-170 exam Correct:D
QUESTION 2.Which one of the following variables is used if no variable was specified in a pattern match, substitution operator or print statement?
A.$nul
B.$#
C.$_
D.$*
Correct:C
QUESTION 3.Which choice demonstrates the correct syntax for the DELETE command?
A.DELETE MyDatabase WHERE VALUES state=Kentucky AND color=blue
B.DELETE MyDatabase WHERE state=Kentucky AND color=blue
C.DELETE FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=Kentucky AND color=blue
D.DELETE state=Kentucky AND color=blue FROM MyDatabase
300-170 dumps Correct:C
QUESTION 4.Consider the following HTML code: < INPUT TYPE=text NAME=state VALUE=>> Given this code, which one of the following choices best describes how the data should be written to a file?
A.print OUTPUT, “state” . param(“State: “);
B.print OUTPUT “State: ” . param(“state”);
C.print OUTPUT, “State: ” . (“state”);
D.OUTPUT “state” . param(“State: “);
Correct:B
QUESTION 5.Which choice best demonstrates how the print statement may be used to print HTML code?
A.print HTML>>;
B.print ;
C.print (“HTML”);
D.print (“”);
300-170 pdf Correct:D
QUESTION 6.Consider the following code: open(INFILE, “myfile”); Given this code, which one of the following choices demonstrates reading in scalar context?
A.$file = INFILE>;
B.$file < INFILE>;
C.%file = INFILE>;
[email protected] <= INFILE>;
Correct:A
QUESTION 7.Consider the following code: open( INPUT, “Chapter1”); Given this code, which one of the following choices demonstrates reading in list context?
A.%file = INPUT ;
[email protected] = INPUT ;
[email protected]%file < INPUT ;

D.$file = INPUT ;
300-170 vce Correct:B
QUESTION 8.Which set of operators is used to read and write to a file in random-access mode?
A.< >
B.< >>
C.+< +>
D.-<< ->>
Correct:C
QUESTION 9.The do method duplicates the function of which of the following methods?
A.param and execute
B.post and prepare
C.prepare and execute
D.post and execute
300-170 exam Correct:C
QUESTION 10.Which one of the following statements allows for variable substitution?
A.$sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
B.$sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
C.$sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
D.$sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
Correct:A
QUESTION 11.Antonio is naming a Perl variable. Which choice includes characters he may use?
A._, &, *
B.+, #,
$ C.$,
@, % D.%,
#, @
300-170 dumps Correct:C
QUESTION 12.Which choice best describes how to access individual elements of an array?
A.Use an index starting with 1
B.Use an index starting with 0
C.Use a pointer
D.Use a key value
Correct:B
QUESTION 13.Before allowing a user to submit data with a Web form, which of the following tasks should be performed?
A.The data should be validated by the script.
B.The data should be validated by the programmer.
C.The data should be compared to valid data stored in a list.
D.The data should be passed through the validate() method.
300-170 pdf Correct:A
QUESTION 14.The CGI.pm module can be used to perform which one of the following tasks?
A.GET or POST data
B.Load external variables
C.Read large amounts of text into the script
D.Access environment variables

Correct:D
QUESTION 15.What is the main danger in using cookies and hidden fields?
A.They can be deleted.
B.They can be edited.
C.They can be blocked by the browser.
D.They can be viewed.
300-170 vce Correct:B
QUESTION 16.The start_html method of CGI.pm yields which one of the following results?
A.”content-type:A\n\n”
B. HTML
C. FORM METHOD=A ACTION=B ENCODING=C
D. NPUT TYPE=”submit” VALUE=A
Correct:B
QUESTION 17.Which method is used in a Perl script to access the variables POSTed by an HTML form?
A.prepare();
B.param();
C.header ();
D.post();
300-170 exam Correct:B
QUESTION 18.The file mode specifies which one of the following?
A.The access permissions
B.The inode number
C.The file’s owner
D.How the file is opened
Correct:D
QUESTION 19.List context versus scalar context is determined by which one of the following?
A.The compiler
B.The debugger
C.The interpreter
D.The environment
300-170 dumps Correct:C
QUESTION 20.Which one of the following choices best describes data tainting?
A.Tainted data can be used by eval, system, or exec.
B.Tainted data cannot be accessed by the script.
C.Variables containing external data cannot be used outside the script.
D.Data tainting is enabled using the D switch.
Correct:C
QUESTION 21
When is the earliest point at which the reduce method of a given Reducer can be called?
A. As soon as at least one mapper has finished processing its input split.
B. As soon as a mapper has emitted at least one record.
C. Not until all mappers have finished processing all records.
D. It depends on the InputFormat used for the job.
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Which describes how a client reads a file from HDFS?
A. The client queries the NameNode for the block location(s).The NameNode returns the block location(s) to the client. The client reads the data directory off the DataNode(s).
B. The client queries all DataNodes in parallel. The DataNode that contains the requested data responds
directly to the client. The client reads the data directly off the DataNode.
C. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s).The NameNode then queries the DataNodes for block locations. The DataNodes respond to the NameNode, and the NameNode redirects the client to the DataNode that holds the requested data block(s).The client then reads the data directly off the DataNode.
D. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s).The NameNode contacts the DataNode that holds the requested data block. Data is transferred from the DataNode to the NameNode, and then from the NameNode to the client.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
You are developing a combiner that takes as input Text keys, IntWritable values, and emits Text keys, IntWritable values. Which interface should your class implement?
A. Combiner <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
B. Mapper <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
C. Reducer <Text, Text, IntWritable, IntWritable>
D. Reducer <Text, IntWritable, Text, IntWritable>
E. Combiner <Text, Text, IntWritable, IntWritable>
300-170 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Indentify the utility that allows you to create and run MapReduce jobs with any executable or script as the mapper and/or the reducer?
A. Oozie
B. Sqoop
C. Flume
D. Hadoop Streaming
E. mapred
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
How are keys and values presented and passed to the reducers during a standard sort and shuffle phase of MapReduce?
A. Keys are presented to reducer in sorted order; values for a given key are not sorted.
B. Keys are presented to reducer in sorted order; values for a given key are sorted in ascending order.
C. Keys are presented to a reducer in random order; values for a given key are not sorted.
D. Keys are presented to a reducer in random order; values for a given key are sorted in ascending order.
300-170 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Assuming default settings, which best describes the order of data provided to a reducer s reduce method:
A. The keys given to a reducer aren t in a predictable order, but the values associated with those keys always are.
B. Both the keys and values passed to a reducer always appear in sorted order.
C. Neither keys nor values are in any predictable order.
D. The keys given to a reducer are in sorted order but the values associated with each key are in no predictable order
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
You wrote a map function that throws a runtime exception when it encounters a control character in input data. The input supplied to your mapper contains twelve such characters totals, spread across five file splits. The first four file splits each have two control characters and the last split has four control characters. Indentify the number of failed task attempts you can expect when you run the job with mapred.max.map.attempts set to 4:
A. You will have forty-eight failed task attempts
B. You will have seventeen failed task attempts
C. You will have five failed task attempts
D. You will have twelve failed task attempts
E. You will have twenty failed task attempts
300-170 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 28
You want to populate an associative array in order to perform a map-side join. You ?v decided to put this information in a text file, place that file into the Distributed Cache and read it in your Mapper before any records are processed. Indentify which method in the Mapper you should use to implement code for reading the file and populating the associative array?
A. combine
B. map
C. init
D. configure
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
You ve written a MapReduce job that will process 500 million input records and generated 500 million key value pairs. The data is not uniformly distributed. Your MapReduce job will create a significant amount of intermediate data that it needs to transfer between mappers and reduces which is a potential bottleneck.
A custom implementation of which interface is most likely to reduce the amount of intermediate data transferred across the network?
A. Partitioner
B. OutputFormat

C. WritableComparable
D. Writable
E. InputFormat
F. Combiner
300-170 pdf Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 30
Can you use MapReduce to perform a relational join on two large tables sharing a key? Assume that the two tables are formatted as comma-separated files in HDFS.
A. Yes.
B. Yes, but only if one of the tables fits into memory
C. Yes, so long as both tables fit into memory.
D. No, MapReduce cannot perform relational operations.
E. No, but it can be done with either Pig or Hive.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
You have just executed a MapReduce job. Where is intermediate data written to after being emitted from the Mapper s map method?
A. Intermediate data in streamed across the network from Mapper to the Reduce and is never written to disk.
B. Into in-memory buffers on the TaskTracker node running the Mapper that spill over and are written into HDFS.
C. Into in-memory buffers that spill over to the local file system of the TaskTracker node running the Mapper.
D. Into in-memory buffers that spill over to the local file system (outside HDFS) of the TaskTracker node running the Reducer
E. Into in-memory buffers on the TaskTracker node running the Reducer that spill over and are written into HDFS.
300-170 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
You want to understand more about how users browse your public website, such as which pages they visit prior to placing an order. You have a farm of 200 web servers hosting your website. How will you gather this data for your analysis?
A. Ingest the server web logs into HDFS using Flume.
B. Write a MapReduce job, with the web servers for mappers, and the Hadoop cluster nodes for reduces.
C. Import all users clicks from your OLTP databases into Hadoop, using Sqoop.
D. Channel these clickstreams inot Hadoop using Hadoop Streaming.
E. Sample the weblogs from the web servers, copying them into Hadoop using curl.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
MapReduce v2 (MRv2/YARN) is designed to address which two issues?
A. Single point of failure in the NameNode.
B. Resource pressure on the JobTracker.
C. HDFS latency.
D. Ability to run frameworks other than MapReduce, such as MPI.
E. Reduce complexity of the MapReduce APIs.

F. Standardize on a single MapReduce API.
300-170 exam Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 34
You need to run the same job many times with minor variations. Rather than hardcoding all job configuration options in your drive code, you ve decided to have your Driver subclass org.apache.hadoop.conf.Configured and implement the org.apache.hadoop.util.Tool interface. Indentify which invocation correctly passes.mapred.job.name with a value of Example to Hadoop?
A. hadoop mapred.job.name=Example MyDriver input output
B. hadoop MyDriver mapred.job.name=Example input output
C. hadoop MyDrive D mapred.job.name=Example input output
D. hadoop setproperty mapred.job.name=Example MyDriver input output
E. hadoop setproperty ( mapred.job.name=Example ) MyDriver input output
Correct Answer: C

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Following Cisco 300-165 Dumps 187QAs Are All New Published By Pass4itsure
QUESTION 1
Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
300-165 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
If Bob wanted to create a Management High Availability configuration, what is the minimum number of Security Management servers required in order to achieve his goal?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool would David use to accomplish his goal?
A. Smart Provisioning
B. Smart Blade
C. Smart Dashboard
D. Smart LSM
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
From the following output of cphaprob state, which Cluster XL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Cluster XL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all Cluster XL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization

D. Transparent upgrades
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing – Unicast
B. Load Balancing – Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing – Multicast
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an HTTP rule with a weight of 40, and the Default Rule with a weight of 10. If the only traffic passing through your QoS Module is HTTP traffic, what percent of bandwidth will be allocated to the HTTP traffic?
A. 80%
B. 40%
C. 100%
D. 50%
300-165 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What command will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unload local
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
How do you verify the Check Point kernel running on a firewall?
A. fw ctl get kernel
B. fw ctl pstat
C. fw kernel
D. fw ver -k
300-165 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
The process ________________ compiles $FWDIR/conf/*.W files into machine language.
A. fw gen
B. cpd
C. fwd
D. fwm
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which of the following is NOT part of the policy installation process?
A. Code compilation
B. Code generation
C. Initiation
D. Validation
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
When, during policy installation, does the atomic load task run?
A. It is the first task during policy installation.
B. It is the last task during policy installation.
C. Before CPD runs on the Gateway.
D. Immediately after fwm load runs on the Smart Center.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
What process is responsible for transferring the policy file from Smart Center to the Gateway?
A. FWD
B. FWM
C. CPRID
D. CPD
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
What firewall kernel table stores information about port allocations for Hide NAT connections?
A. NAT_dst_any_list
B. host_ip_addrs
C. NAT_src_any_list
D. fwx_alloc
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Where do you define NAT properties so that NAT is performed either client side or server side?
A. In Smart Dashboard under Gateway setting
B. In Smart Dashboard under Global Properties > NAT definition
C. In Smart Dashboard in the NAT Rules
D. In file $DFWDIR/lib/table.def
300-165 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
The process ___________ is responsible for all other security server processes run on the Gateway.
A. FWD
B. CPLMD
C. FWM
D. CPD

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
The process ________ is responsible for GUI Client communication with the Smart Center.
A. FWD
B. FWM
C. CPD
D. CPLMD
300-165 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
The process ________ is responsible for Policy compilation.
A. FWM
B. Fwcmp
C. CPLMD
D. CPD
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
The process ________ is responsible for Management High Availability synchronization.
A. CPLMD
B. FWM
C. Fwsync
D. CPD
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
_________ is the called process that starts when opening Smart View Tracker application.
A. logtrackerd
B. fwlogd
C. CPLMD
D. FWM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Anytime a client initiates a connection to a server, the firewall kernel signals the FWD process using a trap. FWD spawns the ________ child service, which runs the security server.
A. FWD
B. FWSD
C. In.httpd
D. FWSSD
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Security server configuration settings are stored in _______________ .
A. $FWDIR/conf/AMT.conf

B. $FWDIR/conf/fwrl.conf
C. $FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf
D. $FWDIR/conf/fwopsec.conf
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from running on-demand reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
300-165 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 24 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You want to add another Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports Job Server service. Using the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager, which three tasks must you perform? (Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B, C, D
QUESTION 25 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central Management Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
300-165 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 26 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server? (Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION 27 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups? (Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
300-165 dumps Answer: B, C
QUESTION 28 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space required for the drive holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB

C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C
QUESTION 29 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
300-165 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 30 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter (WCA)? (Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A, B
QUESTION 31 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from the initial Install type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
300-165 vce Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION 32 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal Reports Job Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A
QUESTION 33 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes scheduled List of Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
300-165 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 34 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of the Desktop

Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A
QUESTION 35 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server take when the Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
300-165 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION 36 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A, C, D, E
QUESTION 37 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
300-165 pdf Answer: A, B, C, E
QUESTION 38 You are configuring a SQL Server database restore job.You want the restore operation to roll back any uncommitted transactions.Which Recovery Completion State option should you use?
A.Leave torn page repairs offline.
B.Leave database read-only and able to restore additional transaction logs.
C.Leave database operational.No additional transaction logs can be restored.
D.Leave database non-operational, but able to restore additional transaction logs.
Answer: C
QUESTION 39 What is one disadvantage of performing both full and incremental Exchange Server backups every day?
A.High media usage
B.More recovery points
C.Short restore window
D.Corruption detection during offline backups
300-165 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 40 When you configure the Agent for Open Files, what do you select to determine how the agent detects if an open file is ready to be backed up by the backup client?
A.Sync method B.Timing
option C.Execution delay
D.Compare/restore priority
Answer: A
QUESTION 41 Which option is a database level or global level backup method for SQL Server databases?
A.Incremental
B.Time-based
C.Differential
D.Partial
300-165 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 42 In the Job Status Manager, jobs can display various statuses on the Job Queue tab.Examples of valid statuses include: (Choose three)
A.HOLD
B.READY
C.ACTIVE
D.CLOSED
E.PENDING
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION 43 If you configure the Windows client agent to use System Security:
A.The client agent runs under the local system account.
B.The client agent impersonates the administrator at all times.
C.The system enables you to set individual passwords for security.
D.The backup, compare, and restore operations are performed under Windows security.

300-165 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 44 Which information can you obtain using CA ARCserve Backup storage resource management (SRM) reports?
A.Deduplication benefits B.Processor
architecture and speed C.Status of your
virtualized environments
D.Media having encrypted or unencrypted sessions
Answer: B
QUESTION 45 You have media containing a backup session that is not included in the CA ARCserve Backup database.To get the media information into the database, which utility should you use?
A.Copy Utility
B.Merge Utility
C.Diagnostic Utility
D.Media Assure & Scan utility
300-165 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 46 You want to enable a Backup Operator and a Restore Operator to operate jobs submitted by any operator.Which CA ARCserve Backup extended permission should you select?
A.Job Operations
B.Submit Job Options
C.Security Administrator
D.Ownership Checking Exemption Privilege
Answer: D
QUESTION 47 If you need to read and restore blocks of data quickly by bypassing the file system, which restore method should you use?
A.Restore by Backup Media
B.Recover Virtual Machine
C.Restore by Image
D.Restore by Tree
300-165 vce Answer: C

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